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Cell and Tissue Engineering > Quiz 3 (13-15) > Flashcards

Quiz 3 (13-15) Flashcards

1
Q

biocompatibility

A

ability of a material to perform with an appropriate host response in a specific situation; maintain equilibrium, upon implantation

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2
Q

What are the biocompatibility requirements? (5)

A

not sensitive, not produce allergic reactions, noncarcinogenic, nontoxic, not interfere with healing

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3
Q

bioactive

A

interacts and bonds with surrounding tissues and affects tissue regeneration

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4
Q

biotolerant

A

mild-interaction with biological tissues but are generally well-tolerated

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5
Q

bioinert

A

remain unreactive and stable in contact with biological systems

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6
Q

cytotoxicity

A

a chemical or materials ability to damage or kill cells; quantified with cell activity or cell viability

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7
Q

Apoptosis

A

programmed cell death that is genetically controlled and natural; shrinkage of cell occurs

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8
Q

Necrosis

A

premature cell death that is pathological and detrimental to the organisms; swelling of cell occurs

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9
Q

Hemocompatibility

A

properties of a material that permits it to function in contact with blood without causing adverse reactions

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10
Q

What are CPD and Heparin?

A

anticoagulants

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11
Q

What Fibrinogen:Albumin Protein ratio is favored?

A

a lower ratio b/c of a reduced risk of thrombosis or blood clot formation

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12
Q

Carcinogen

A

substance or agent which can induce cancer

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13
Q

Carcinogenicity

A

properties of a materials that cause it to be involved in the promotion of cancer or its propagation

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14
Q

What are the 3 main classes of cacinogens?

A

physical, chemical, biological

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15
Q

What are the steps in the carcinogenic process?

A

initiation (reversible), promotion, progression (irreversible)

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16
Q

AMES test

A

easy and inexpensive way to measure mutagenicity of a chemical ; does not measure carcinogenecity

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17
Q

What is a cheap way that you could determine the sizes of proteins in your sample?

A

SDS-PAGE

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18
Q

What does SDS-PAGE stand for?

A

Sodium Dodecyl Sulfate-PolyAcrylamide Gel Electrophoresis

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19
Q

What are the standard running gel components?

A

acrylamide, crosslinker, initiator and catalyst, buffer, SDS, water

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20
Q

What is the role of SDS?

A

denatures proteins and imparts binding of (-) charges proportional to MW

21
Q

What is molecular weight standards?

A

MW ladder; mixture of different proteins of known molecular weights

22
Q

What are stains for TOTAL protein content?

A

coomassie blue dye or silver stain

23
Q

What are the steps of Western blotting? (5)

A
  1. transfer
  2. blocking
  3. primary antibody incubation step
  4. secondary antibody incubation step
  5. visualization
24
Q

What are 3 techniques that can be used for visualization during western blotting?

A

colorimetric, fluorescence, and chemiluminescence

25
Q

What is ELISA?

A

Enzyme Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay

26
Q

What is ELISA used for?

A

determine the specific quantity of a protein in an unknown solutions

27
Q

DIRECT ELISA

A

only a labeled primary antibody is used

28
Q

INDIRECT ELISA

A

antigen is bound by primary antibody then detected by a labeled secondary antibody

29
Q

SANDWICH ELISA

A

antigen binds to capture antibody which then binds a primary antibody and is detected by a secondary antibody

30
Q

What are the general steps of an immunohistochemical stain
(IHC)?

A
  1. Fix cells to scaffold
  2. Primary Antibody Bound
  3. Secondary Antibody Bound
31
Q

What is RT-PCR?

A

Reverse Transcriptase - Polymerase Chain Reaction

32
Q

What does RT-PCR do?

A

detects the expression of a specific gene to determine whether a gene is on or off

33
Q

What is the function of a thermocycler during RT-PCR?

A

a thermocycler controls the temperature in wells to allow PCR reaction to occur

34
Q

What is sustained release?

A

a drug preparation that allows contents to be steadily released over a long period of time

35
Q

What is the Therapeutic Window?

A

where a biologically active molecule is presented to tissue in an optimal concentration where the desired response occurs

36
Q

What is zero order release?

A

delivery rate remains constant until device is exhausted of active agent

37
Q

What is first order release?

A

release is directly proportional to amount of drug loaded in device

38
Q

What is burst release?

A

when an initial large bolus of drug is released immediately upon placement in the release medium before the release rate reaches a stable profile

39
Q

What is lag time?

A

the time it takes for a device membrane to become saturated allowing a stable release rate to be reached

40
Q

What are 4 pharmaceutical approaches to CR?

A

diffusion CR, dissolution CR, combination dissolution-diffusion CR, osmotic pressure controlled systems

41
Q

Diffusion CR

A

rate of drug release is primarily determined by the drugs ability to diffuse through a matrix or membrane

42
Q

Dissolution CR

A

rate of drug release is primarily determined by the dissolution of the drug into the surrounding fluids

43
Q

What is the difference between matrix diffusion systems and reservoir diffusion systems?

A

in reservoir - drug is encased by water insoluble polymeric mesh material that surrounds the drug reservoir
in matrix - an inert polymeric matrix in which a drug is uniformly distributed

44
Q

Matrix dissolution systems

A

prepared by compressing a drug with a slowly dissolving carrier into a tablet form

45
Q

Encapsulation dissolution systems

A

drug is encapsulated with a dissolvable capsule and rate depends on stability thickness of coating

46
Q

Osmotic pressure drug delivery systems

A

use the osmotic pressure of drug and other solutes for controlled delivery of drugs

47
Q

What are the pros of osmotic pressure drug systems?

A

zero order delivery rate is achievable, drug release is independent of gastric pH, higher release rate is possible

48
Q
A

Cell and Tissue Engineering (6 decks)

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