Quiz 3 (13-15) Flashcards

1
Q

biocompatibility

A

ability of a material to perform with an appropriate host response in a specific situation; maintain equilibrium, upon implantation

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2
Q

What are the biocompatibility requirements? (5)

A

not sensitive, not produce allergic reactions, noncarcinogenic, nontoxic, not interfere with healing

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3
Q

bioactive

A

interacts and bonds with surrounding tissues and affects tissue regeneration

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4
Q

biotolerant

A

mild-interaction with biological tissues but are generally well-tolerated

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5
Q

bioinert

A

remain unreactive and stable in contact with biological systems

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6
Q

cytotoxicity

A

a chemical or materials ability to damage or kill cells; quantified with cell activity or cell viability

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7
Q

Apoptosis

A

programmed cell death that is genetically controlled and natural; shrinkage of cell occurs

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8
Q

Necrosis

A

premature cell death that is pathological and detrimental to the organisms; swelling of cell occurs

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9
Q

Hemocompatibility

A

properties of a material that permits it to function in contact with blood without causing adverse reactions

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10
Q

What are CPD and Heparin?

A

anticoagulants

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11
Q

What Fibrinogen:Albumin Protein ratio is favored?

A

a lower ratio b/c of a reduced risk of thrombosis or blood clot formation

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12
Q

Carcinogen

A

substance or agent which can induce cancer

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13
Q

Carcinogenicity

A

properties of a materials that cause it to be involved in the promotion of cancer or its propagation

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14
Q

What are the 3 main classes of cacinogens?

A

physical, chemical, biological

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15
Q

What are the steps in the carcinogenic process?

A

initiation (reversible), promotion, progression (irreversible)

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16
Q

AMES test

A

easy and inexpensive way to measure mutagenicity of a chemical ; does not measure carcinogenecity

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17
Q

What is a cheap way that you could determine the sizes of proteins in your sample?

A

SDS-PAGE

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18
Q

What does SDS-PAGE stand for?

A

Sodium Dodecyl Sulfate-PolyAcrylamide Gel Electrophoresis

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19
Q

What are the standard running gel components?

A

acrylamide, crosslinker, initiator and catalyst, buffer, SDS, water

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20
Q

What is the role of SDS?

A

denatures proteins and imparts binding of (-) charges proportional to MW

21
Q

What is molecular weight standards?

A

MW ladder; mixture of different proteins of known molecular weights

22
Q

What are stains for TOTAL protein content?

A

coomassie blue dye or silver stain

23
Q

What are the steps of Western blotting? (5)

A
  1. transfer
  2. blocking
  3. primary antibody incubation step
  4. secondary antibody incubation step
  5. visualization
24
Q

What are 3 techniques that can be used for visualization during western blotting?

A

colorimetric, fluorescence, and chemiluminescence

25
What is ELISA?
Enzyme Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay
26
What is ELISA used for?
determine the specific quantity of a protein in an unknown solutions
27
DIRECT ELISA
only a labeled primary antibody is used
28
INDIRECT ELISA
antigen is bound by primary antibody then detected by a labeled secondary antibody
29
SANDWICH ELISA
antigen binds to capture antibody which then binds a primary antibody and is detected by a secondary antibody
30
What are the general steps of an immunohistochemical stain (IHC)?
1. Fix cells to scaffold 2. Primary Antibody Bound 3. Secondary Antibody Bound
31
What is RT-PCR?
Reverse Transcriptase - Polymerase Chain Reaction
32
What does RT-PCR do?
detects the expression of a specific gene to determine whether a gene is on or off
33
What is the function of a thermocycler during RT-PCR?
a thermocycler controls the temperature in wells to allow PCR reaction to occur
34
What is sustained release?
a drug preparation that allows contents to be steadily released over a long period of time
35
What is the Therapeutic Window?
where a biologically active molecule is presented to tissue in an optimal concentration where the desired response occurs
36
What is zero order release?
delivery rate remains constant until device is exhausted of active agent
37
What is first order release?
release is directly proportional to amount of drug loaded in device
38
What is burst release?
when an initial large bolus of drug is released immediately upon placement in the release medium before the release rate reaches a stable profile
39
What is lag time?
the time it takes for a device membrane to become saturated allowing a stable release rate to be reached
40
What are 4 pharmaceutical approaches to CR?
diffusion CR, dissolution CR, combination dissolution-diffusion CR, osmotic pressure controlled systems
41
Diffusion CR
rate of drug release is primarily determined by the drugs ability to diffuse through a matrix or membrane
42
Dissolution CR
rate of drug release is primarily determined by the dissolution of the drug into the surrounding fluids
43
What is the difference between matrix diffusion systems and reservoir diffusion systems?
in reservoir - drug is encased by water insoluble polymeric mesh material that surrounds the drug reservoir in matrix - an inert polymeric matrix in which a drug is uniformly distributed
44
Matrix dissolution systems
prepared by compressing a drug with a slowly dissolving carrier into a tablet form
45
Encapsulation dissolution systems
drug is encapsulated with a dissolvable capsule and rate depends on stability thickness of coating
46
Osmotic pressure drug delivery systems
use the osmotic pressure of drug and other solutes for controlled delivery of drugs
47
What are the pros of osmotic pressure drug systems?
zero order delivery rate is achievable, drug release is independent of gastric pH, higher release rate is possible
48