Quiz 2 review pt 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the circulatory system?

A

Transports gases, nutrients, & other essential substances to the tissues & transports waste products from the cells to the appropriate sites for excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three layers of the vessel walls?

A

Tunica intima (inner), tunica media (middle), tunica adventitia (outer).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Arteries carry what kind of blood and in what direction? Which arteries are different?

A

Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart.

Pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Veins carry what kind of blood and in what direction? Which veins are different?

A

Veins carry deoxygenated blood toward the heart.

Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do veins appear on ultrasound?

A

Thin-walled, oval, larger diameter, and compressible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do valves do?

A

Prevent backflow of blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are capillaries?

A

Capillaries are the exchange vessels. They are microscopic and have only one wall—tunica intima—allowing substances to pass through quickly.

They connect arterioles to venules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

After blood is passed through capillaries, it is then collected where?

A

Venules.

Venules then unite to form larger vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or False? Aorta changes in size with respiration.

A

False.

Only veins do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 5 sections of the aorta?

A

Root, ascending, descending, abdominal, bifurcation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which sections are part of the aortic arch?

A

The root and ascending aorta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 3 vessels (in order) that come off the aortic arch?

A

Brachiocephalic, Left common carotid artery, Left subclavian.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the branches of the abdominal aorta?

A

Celiac axis/trunk (1-2 cm from diaphragm), Superior mesenteric artery (1-2 cm from CA), Renal arteries, Inferior mesenteric artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the branches of the CA?

A

Left gastric artery, Splenic artery, Common hepatic artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The internal iliac artery is also called?

A

Hypogastric artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where does the root of the aorta arise from?

A

Left ventricle of the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What kind of flow resistance does the SMA have?

A

High resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the phrenic artery supply?

A

Diaphragm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are clinical reasons to perform aortic exam?

A

Pulsatile mass, abdominal pain radiating to the back, abdominal bruit, hemodynamic compromise in the lower legs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most common cause of AAA?

A

Arteriosclerosis (97%).

Atherosclerosis is a type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A true aneurysm involves?

A

All 3 layers of the vessel wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the two main types of AAA? Which is more common?

A

Fusiform (most common), Saccular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where do AAA usually begin?

A

Below renal arteries (infrarenal).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When will a patient with AAA need surgery?

A

If greater than 5 cm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Difference between fusiform and saccular aneurysm?

A

Fusiform is a gradual dilation & can dilate on both sides; saccular is spherical (5-10 cm) outpouching, partially or completely filled with thrombus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where does a berry aneurysm occur?

A

In the brain (1-1.5 cm).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Risk factors for AAA?

A

Tobacco, Hypertension, Vascular disease, COPD, Family history.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 3 most common symptoms of AAA?

A

Palpable abdominal mass, Back pain, Drop in hematocrit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

At what point is the aorta considered aneurysmal?

A

3 cm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do you measure the aorta?

A

Outer wall to outer wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where does thrombus usually occur in the aorta?

A

Along anterior or anterolateral wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is ectatic aorta?

A

Bulgy in areas but diameter is less than 3 cm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Internal echoes in the aorta can indicate?

A

Thrombus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are S/S of a ruptured AAA?

A

Excruciating abdominal pain, shock, expanding abdominal mass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a pseudoaneurysm?

A

A false aneurysm.

It’s a pulsatile hematoma that results from leakage of blood into soft tissues from punctured artery; occurs after procedure & common in the groin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What kind of flow pattern do pseudoaneurysms have?

A

To & fro (bidirectional) flow pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do we repair pseudoaneurysms?

A

2 methods: Thrombin injection, Compression of neck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is an aortic dissection?

A

When the intima pulls away from the aortic wall.

Blood makes its way between the layers of the wall causing separation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where do aortic dissections usually occur?

A

Aortic arch (thoracic aorta) 90%.

40
Q

What are the types of dissection? Which has a high mortality?

A

Type 1, Type 2 (Marfans), Type 3.

Type 1 & 2 have high mortality; Type 3 has better prognosis.

41
Q

Marfan’s syndrome usually occurs at which part of AO?

A

Ascending AO.

42
Q

What are some pseudo-pulsatile abdominal masses?

A

Enlarged lymph nodes (most common), retroperitoneal tumor/sarcoma, huge fibroid uterus, pancreatic cancer.

43
Q

What is RPF?

A

Retroperitoneal Fibrosis.

Also called Ormond’s disease.

44
Q

What is AVF? What causes AVF?

A

Arteriovenous Fistulas.

It’s an abnormal connection between an artery and a vein, usually secondary to trauma; can be complication to arteriosclerotic AAA.

45
Q

What does RAS stand for?

A

Renal Artery Stenosis.

46
Q

Splenic artery is tortuous & therefore can experience what in its waveform?

A

Spectral broadening.

47
Q

What vessels come together to form the IVC?

A

Common iliac veins.

48
Q

What are the major tributaries of the IVC?

A

Hepatic veins (right, middle, left), renal veins (left & right).

49
Q

True or False? Portal system has no connection with systemic veins.

50
Q

The renal veins originate _______ to the renal arteries.

51
Q

What are the largest tributaries of the IVC?

A

Hepatic veins.

52
Q

Where do the hepatic veins originate?

A

Liver.

They drain blood from liver into the IVC.

53
Q

How do the HV’s change in size as they travel to the IVC?

A

They increase in size.

54
Q

The IVC runs ______ to the portal system.

A

Posterior.

55
Q

Where is the dome of the liver located?

A

Superior, closest to diaphragm.

56
Q

What vessels form the PV?

A

SMV, SV, IMC.

57
Q

Where does the portal venous system carry blood from?

A

Intestines and spleen.

58
Q

Which vessels do the ascending lumbar veins become and where do those vessels drain?

A

They are branches of the CIVs.

Superior to the diaphragm, they become the azygos vein (right) & hemiazygos (left) & both drain into the SVC.

59
Q

What is the main tributary of the PV?

60
Q

Which vessels form the portal triad?

A

PV, CHA, CBD.

61
Q

What are the two main findings in portal venous?

A

Portal vein hypertension, portal vein thrombus.

62
Q

What is the biggest risk with thrombus in the IVC?

A

It can travel to the lungs and PE can occur.

63
Q

What is RCC?

A

Renal cell carcinoma.

Most common primary kidney tumor (usually on right side).

64
Q

What is an IVC filter? Where is it usually placed?

A

A ‘clot trap’ used to prevent thrombus from traveling into lungs.

Usually placed at iliac bifurcation.

65
Q

What are potential complications of IVC filters?

A

It can migrate and perforate IVC, duodenum, aorta, ureter, hepatic vein.

66
Q

What are the 5 specific sonographic findings of acute renal vein thrombosis?

A
  1. Dilated and echo-filled renal vein 2. Absence of intrarenal venous flow 3. An enlarged kidney 4. Hypoechoic renal parenchyma 5. Highly resistive renal artery waveform.
67
Q

A single liver cell is called?

A

Hepatocyte.

68
Q

The microscopic lobules of the liver =

A

Functional units.

69
Q

Phagocytes are also called?

A

Macrophages.

70
Q

The RLL should not measure out to be more than ____ cm.

71
Q

What part of the liver lies between the fossa of the IVC and ligamentum venosum?

A

The caudate lobe.

72
Q

True or False? The caudate lobe can increase in size when the LLL or RLL decrease in size?

73
Q

What connects the umbilical vein to the IVC?

A

Ductus venosus.

74
Q

What is a normal variant of the liver?

A

Reidel’s lobe.

It is when the RLL extends below the lower pole of RK (seen more in women).

75
Q

Which part of the liver does not have peritoneal tissue?

A

The bare area—where the porta hepatis is—it is also a common location for abscess.

76
Q

How do ligaments and fissures appear on ultrasound and why?

A

Appear echogenic or hyperechoic because of the presence of collagen & fat within and around structures.

77
Q

The MLF divides the liver into?

A

Right and left (anterior RLL & medial LLL).

78
Q

The falciform ligament divides the liver into?

A

Medial and lateral LLL.

79
Q

The ligamentum teres runs within?

A

The falciform ligament.

80
Q

What does the ligamentum venosum separate? What is this a remnant of?

A

Separates the caudate lobe from lateral LLL.

Remnant of umbilical vein.

81
Q

Portal veins are ____-segmental.

82
Q

Portal veins have what kind of blood flow?

A

Hepatopetal.

83
Q

What can cause the portal veins to have hepatofugal flow?

A

Portal vein hypertension.

84
Q

How to tell the difference between portal veins and hepatic veins on ultrasound?

A

Portal veins have more echogenic walls than HVs.

85
Q

What does power doppler look for?

A

Presence/absence of blood flow.

86
Q

Hepatic veins are _____-segmental.

87
Q

Which hepatic vein is the largest? Which is the smallest?

A

Right- largest, Left- smallest.

88
Q

Portal veins ____ the liver while hepatic veins ____ the liver.

A

Supply; drain.

89
Q

What are the functions of the liver?

A

Metabolic regulation, secretes bile, stores iron and certain vitamins, detoxifies many drugs and poisons.

90
Q

Difference between hepatic vs obstructive disease?

A

Hepatocellular disease: liver cells are the immediate problem, diffuse disease process, usually treated medically w/ supportive measures and drugs.

Obstructive disorders: bile excretion is blocked, usually treated surgically.

91
Q

Which LFT is elevated with HCC?

92
Q

What is the best method for evaluating liver disease?

93
Q

Which lab test is more specific to liver?

94
Q

Which lab test can elevate mono, hepatitis, cirrhosis, obstructive jaundice & in cardiac and skeletal muscle damage?

A

LDH (lactate dehydrogenase).

95
Q

When PTT is increased, what does that mean for blood?

A

It takes longer for blood to clot.

96
Q

What does exophytic mean?

A

Mass hanging off organ.

97
Q

Echogenicity from least to greatest:

A

Renal cortex, liver, spleen, pancreas, renal sinus.