Quiz 2 (Modules 6-10) Flashcards

1
Q

Long bone parts

A

Diaphysis (shaft/body)

Epiphyses (ends)

Epiphyseal (growth) plate

Articular cartilage

Periosteum (surrounds bone surface)

Medullary cavity

Endosteum (lines the medullary cavity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sharpey’s (perforating) fibers

A

Thick bundles of collagen that extend from the periosteum into the bone extracellular matrix

Attaches periosteum to underlying bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hydroxyapatite

A

Crystals formed from calcium phosphate and calcium hydroxide in the bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Calcification

A

Mineral salts are deposited in the framework formed by collagen in the extracellular matrix, where they crystallize and the tissue hardens Initiated by osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bone’s hardness depends on

A

crystallized inorganic mineral salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bone’s flexibility depends on

A

its collagen fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tensile strength

A

Resistance to being stretched or pulled apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

4 types of cells present in bone tissue

A

Osteogenic cells

Osteoblasts

Osteocytes

Osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Osteogenic cells

A

Unspecialized bone stem cells derived from mesenchyme

Only bone cells to undergo cell division

Found along the inner portion of the periosteum, in the endosteum, and in canals within bone that contain blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Bone-building cells

Synthesize and secrete collagen fibers and components for extracellular matrix of bone tissue

Initiate calcification

Turn into osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Osteocytes

A

Mature bone cells, main cells in bone tissue

Maintain daily metabolism, eg. exchange of nutrients and wastes with blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ostoclasts

A

“Carves out bone” - releases enzymes and acid that digest components of the extracellular bone matrix

Huge cells derived from fusion of monocytes

Concentrated in endosteum

Ruffled border on side of cell that faces bone surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Resorption

A

Breakdown of bone extracellular matrix by osteoclasts

Helps regulate blood calcium level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Osteon (Haversian system)

A

Repeating structural units of compact bone tissue

Consists of concentric lamellae arranged around a small network of blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves located in the central (haversian) canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lamellae

A

Circular plates of mineralized extracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lacunae

A

Located between the concentric lamellae

Small spaces which contain osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Canaliculi

A

Interconnecting channels that join lacunae with each other and to nearby blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Concentric vs. Interstitial lamellae

A

Concentric lamellae are found within osteons, interstitial lamellae are found between neighbouring osteons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Volkmann’s canals / Perforating canals

A

Transverse canals that allow blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves from the periosteum to penetrate the compact bone and connect with vessels and nerves of the medullary cavity, periosteum, and central canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Function of compact bone tissue

A

Provides protection and support

Resists the stresses produced by weight and movement

80% of the skeleton, strongest form of bone tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Function of spongy bone tissue

A

Reduces overall weight of a bone

Support and protect bone marrow

20% of the skeleton, always covered by compact bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

4 situations in which bone formation occurs

A

Initial formation of bones in embryo and fetus

Growth of bones until adult sizes are reached

Remodeling of bone (replacement of old bone by new)

Repair of fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where yellow bone marrow is contained

A

In the medullary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

2 methods of bone formation

A

Intramembranous ossification

Endochondral ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Steps in intramembranous ossification

A
  1. Mesenchymal cells cluster together and differentiate into osteogenic cells then osteoblasts. Osteoblasts secrete extracellular matrix of bone until they are surrounded by it
  2. Calcification
  3. Formation of trabeculae and development of the periosteum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Steps in endochondral ossification

A
  1. Mesenchymal cells crowd together and develop into chondroblasts, which produce hyaline cartilage covered by a perichondrium.
  2. Growth of the cartilage model
  3. Primary ossification
  4. Development of the medullary cavity
  5. Secondary ossification
  6. Formation of articulate cartilage and the epiphyseal (growth) plate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

4 zones of the epiphyseal growth plate

A

Zone of resting cartilage

Zone of proliferating cartilage

Zone of hypertrophic cartilage

Zone of calcified cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Appositional growth

A

Outward expansion - growth in thickness/diameter

Osteoblasts in periosteum form compact bone around external bone surface

Osteoclasts in the endosteum break down bone on the internal bone surface (around medullary cavity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Wolff’s law

A

A bone grows or remodels in response to the forces or demands placed upon it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bone remodeling

A

Balanced bone deposit and removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Steps in fracture repair

A

Hematoma formation

Fibrocartilaginous callus formation

Bony callus formation

Bone remodelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why is the healing process of fractured bone slow?

A

Bone cell reproduction is normally a slow process

Blood supply has been interrupted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Compound fracture

A

Bone protrudes through the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Simple fracture

A

Bone does not protrude through the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Transverse fracture

A

Broken at right angles to the long axis of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

Bone is crushed into small pieces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bones in the axial skeleton

A

80 bones

Skull

Hyoid

Vertebral column

Sternum

Ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Bones in the appendicular skeleton

A

126 bones

Clavicle

Scapula

Upper and lower limbs

Pelvic girdle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Number of bones in the adult human body

A

206

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

5 main types of bones

A

Long

Short

Flat

Irregular

Sesamoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Long bones

A

Long shaft

Composed mostly of compact bone with some spongy bone

Function in structural support for the limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Short bones

A

Roughly cube-shaped

Composed mostly of spongy bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Flat bones

A

Thin and plate-like

A thin layer of compact bone surrounding a layer of spongy bone

Often curved

Eg. Skull, rubs, sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Irregular bones

A

Varied shapes that don’t fit into the other categories

Eg. Vertebrae, hip bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cranial bones

A

8

Frontal bone

2 parietal bones

2 temporal bones

Occipital bone

Sphenoid bone

Ethmoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Facial bones

A

14

2 nasal bones

2 maxillae

2 zygomatic bones

Mandible

2 lacrimal bones

2 palatine bones

2 inferior nasal conchae

Comer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hyaline cartilage

A

Composed of collagen fibers with a flexible matrix

Covers the ends of bones at joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fibrocartilage

A

Holds its shape under high compression

Found in between the vertebrae (vertebral discs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Elastic cartilage

A

Stretchy

Provides support for flexible structures such as the external ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

26 vertebrae

A

7 cervical

12 thoracic

5 lumbar

1 sacrum

1 coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Lordosis

A

Increase in the lumbar curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Normal curvatures of the spine

A

Primary - thoracic and sacral curves; present before birth

Secondary - cervical and lumbar curves; develop after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Intervertebral discs - components

A

Outer fibrous ring - annulus fibrosis

Inner soft, pulpy elastic substance - nucleus pulposus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Parts of a vertebra

A

Vertebral body

Vertebral arch

2 transverse processes, 1 spinous process, 2 superior articular processes, 2 inferior articular processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Parts of the sternum

A

Manubrium (superior)

Body

Xiphoid process (inferior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Kyphosis

A

“Hunchback”

Increase in the thoracic curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Components of the shoulder girdle

A

Clavicle and scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Glenohumeral joint

A

Where the scapula articulates with the humerus (shoulder joint)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Parts of the hip bones

A

Ilium

Pubis

Ischium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Acetabulum

A

The socket for the head of the femur

Where the three parts of the hip bone converge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Fibrous joints

A

No synovial cavity

Composed of dense irregular connective tissue

Allow very little movement

Eg. Skull sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Cartilaginous joints

A

No synovial cavity

Composed of cartilage

Allow very little or no movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Difference between ligaments and tendons

A

Ligaments connect bone to bone

Tendons connect muscle to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Synarthrosis

A

Immovable joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Amphiarthrosis

A

Slightly movable joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Diarthrosis

A

Freely movable joint

All diarthroses are synovial joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Synostosis

A

Bony joint

A joint in which there is a complete fusion of two separate bones into one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Gomphosis

A

Type of fibrous joint

Where a tooth fits into its socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

3 types of fibrous joints

A

Sutures

Syndesmoses

Interosseous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Ligament

A

Parallel bundles of dense regular connective tissue in a fibrous membrane that are highly adapted for resisting strains

Connects bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

6 categories of synovial joints based on movement

A

Plane

Hinge

Pivot

Condyloid

Saddle

Ball-and-socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Type of joint between the wrist and the thumb

A

Saddle joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Movements at synovial joints - 4 categories

A

Gliding

Angular movements

Rotation

Special movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Functions of muscle

A

Producing body movements

Stabilizing body positions

Storing and moving substances within the body

Generating heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

4 special properties of muscular tissue

A

Electrical excitability

Contractility

Extensibility

Elasticity

76
Q

Contractility

A

The ability of muscular tissue to contract forcefully when stimulated by an action potential

77
Q

Extensibility

A

The ability of muscular tissue to stretch, within limits, without being damaged

78
Q

3 layers of connective tissue in skeletal muscle

A

Epimysium (outermost, encircles the entire muscle)

Perimysium (surrounds fascicles)

Endomysium (inside of each fascicle, separates individual muscle fibers)

79
Q

Fascicle

A

Bundles of 10-100+ muscle fibers

80
Q

Tendon

A

Attaches a muscle to the periosteum of a bone

81
Q

Somatic motor neurons

A

The neurons that stimulate skeletal muscle to contract

Axon typically branches many times

82
Q

Sarcolemma

A

Plasma membrane of a muscle cell

83
Q

Sarcoplasm

A

Cytoplasm of a muscle cell

84
Q

Myoglobin

A

Protein, found only in muscle, that binds oxygen molecules that diffuse into muscle fibers from interstitial fluid

85
Q

5 levels of organization within a skeletal muscle

A

Skeletal muscle

Fascicle

Muscle fiber (cell)

Myofibril

Filaments (myofilaments)

86
Q

Transverse tubules (T tubules)

A

Invaginations of the sarcolemma

87
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

A

Fluid-filled system of membranous sacs encircling each myofibril In a relaxed muscle fiber, the SR stores calcium ions

88
Q

Terminal cisterns

A

Dilated end sacs of the SR that are on either side of a transverse tubule

Releases calcium ions from the SR

89
Q

Thin filaments

A

Composed mostly of actin

Directly involved in the contractile process

90
Q

Thick filaments

A

Composed mostly of myosin

Directly involved in the contractile process

91
Q

Sarcomere

A

Basic functional unit of a myofibril

Separated by Z-discs

92
Q

Z disc

A

Narrow, plate-shapes regions of dense protein material

Separate one sarcomere from the next

93
Q

A band

A

Portion of a sarcomere

Extends the entire length of the thick filaments

94
Q

I band

A

Portion of a sarcomere

Lighter, less dense area

Contains thin filaments but no thick filaments

Z disc passes through the centre of the I band

95
Q

H zone

A

Narrow area in the centre of each A band that contains thick but not thin filaments

96
Q

M line

A

Middle of the sarcomere

Supporting proteins that hold thick filaments together at the centre of the H zone

97
Q

3 kinds of proteins that make up myofibrils

A

Contractile proteins

Regulatory proteins

Structural proteins

98
Q

2 contractile proteins in muscle

A

Myosin and actin

99
Q

2 regulatory proteins in muscle

A

Tropomyosin and troponin

100
Q

Sliding filament mechanism

A

Muscle contraction occurs because myosin heads attach to and “walk” along the thin filaments at both ends of a sarcomere, progressively pulling the thin filaments toward the M line

Result - each sarcomere is shortened, which leads to shortening of the entire muscle

101
Q

Onset of contraction

A

SR releases calcium ions into the sarcoplasm, where they bind to troponin. Troponin moves tropomyosin away from the myosin-binding sites of actin. Then the contraction cycle can begin

102
Q

Contraction cycle - 4 steps

A

ATP hydrolysis

Attachment of myosin to actin to form cross-bridges

Power stroke

Detachment of myosin from actin

103
Q

Effect of calcium concentration on muscle contraction

A

Increase in Ca2+ starts muscle contraction

Decrease stops it

104
Q

In the process of muscle contraction, calcium bonds to

A

Troponin

105
Q

Isometric contraction

A

When the muscle contracts but does not shorten and does not produce movement

106
Q

All-or-none principle of muscle contraction

A

Once a minimum threshold is reached the muscle fiber will contract fully

107
Q

Origin of a muscle

A

The end that attaches to a stationary bone

108
Q

Motor unit

A

A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers innervated by it

109
Q

A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers innervated by it are called:

A

Motor unit

110
Q

Muscle tone

A

Skeletal and smooth muscle remain in a state of continual, partial contraction

111
Q

Insertion

A

Point of attachment to a moveable bone

112
Q

Prime mover

A

Main muscle providing force for producing specific movement

113
Q

During anaerobic respiration:

A

There is an absence of oxygen

Glucose is broken down producing lactic acid and 2 ATP molecules

Energy is provided for 30-40 seconds of strenuous muscle activity

114
Q

Ganglia

A

Small masses of nervous tissue, consisting primarily of neuron cell bodies, that are located outside of the brain and spinal cord

115
Q

Enteric plexuses

A

Extensive networks of neurons located in the walls of organs of the GI tract

116
Q

Somatic nervous system (SNS)

A

Consists of sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors for the special senses of vision, heating, taste and smell to the CNS, and motor neurons that conduct impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles only.

Voluntary

117
Q

Autonomic nervous system (ANS)

A

Consists of sensory neurons that convey information from autonomic sensory receptors to the CNS, and motor neurons that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

Involuntary

Two branches - sympathetic and parasympathetic

118
Q

Sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

A

Generally helps support exercise of emergency actions

“Fight-or-flight”

119
Q

Parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

A

Generally takes care of “rest-and-digest” activities

120
Q

Enteric nervous system

A

“Brain of the gut”

Involuntary

Muscles of GI tract

121
Q

Functions of the nervous system

A

Sensory

Integrative (processing)

Motor

122
Q

What organelles do neurons not have

A

centrioles (this is why neurons cannot replicate themselves; centrioles are needed for mitosis to take place)

123
Q

Lipofuscin

A

A pigment that occurs as clumps of yellowish brown granules in the cytoplasm, present in aging neurons

124
Q

Nerve fiber

A

General term for any neuronal extension that emerges from the cell body of a neuron (dendrites and axon)

125
Q

Dendrites

A

The receiving or input portions of a neuron

126
Q

Axon

A

Long, thin, cylindrical projection from the cell body

Propagates nerve impulses toward another neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell

127
Q

Neuroglia

A

Type of cell in nervous tissue

Smaller than neurons

Do not conduct nerve impulses

Support, nourish, and protect neurons

Capable of mitosis

128
Q

Axon hillock

A

Cone-shaped elevation where the axon connects to the cell body of a neuron

129
Q

Collaterals

A

Side branches of an axon

130
Q

Multipolar neurons

A

Have several dendrites and one axon

All motor neurons

131
Q

Bipolar neurons

A

One main dendrite and one axon

132
Q

Unipolar neurons

A

Have dendrites and one axon that are fused together to form a continuous process that emerges from the cell body

133
Q

Nissl bodies

A

Unique to neurons

Specialized layers of rough endoplasmic reticulum that synthesize neurofibrils and microtubules

134
Q

Axon terminals (synaptic knobs)

A

Ends of the axon

Store neurotransmitters

135
Q

Interneurons / Association neurons

A

Lie entirely within the central nervous system

Receive input from sensory (afferent) neurons and communicate with one another or with motor (efferent) neurons

136
Q

The type of neuroglia responsible for generating the myelin sheath in the PNS is

A

Schwann cells

137
Q

The type of neuroglia responsible for generating the myelin sheath in the CNS is

A

oligodendrocytes

138
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

Gaps in the myelin sheath

139
Q

Nerve

A

A bundle of nerve cell fibers (axons and dendrites) that follow the same path

Only found in the PNS

140
Q

Tract

A

Bundle of nerve cell fibers

Found only in the CNS

141
Q

Difference between tracts and nerves

A

Tracts are bundles of axons in the CNS, nerves are bundles of axons in the PNS

142
Q

Ganglia

A

Clusters of neuron cell bodies

Found only in the PNS

143
Q

Nuclei (nervous system)

A

Clusters of neuron cell bodies (one cluster is called a nucleus)

Found only in the CNS

144
Q

Difference between ganglia and nuclei in the nervous system

A

Ganglia are clusters of neuron cell bodies in the PNS, nuclei are clusters of neuron cell bodies in the CNS

145
Q

Blood-brain barrier

A
  • Protective barrier that keeps harmful substances out of the brain
  • Astrocytes form a wall around the outside of the blood vessels
  • This astrocytic wall, plus the walls of the blood vessels, is collectively called the blood-brain barrier
146
Q

Significance of the blood-brain barrier

A

Drugs (e.g., penicillin) that are needed to treat disorders in other parts of the body have no effect in the brain because they are not able to cross the blood-brain barrier

147
Q

When the membrane is at the resting membrane potential

A

1) There is an unequal distribution of sodium ions at the inner and outer surface of the membrane
2) The membrane potential is approximately -70mV
3) The membrane is more permeable to the diffusion of potassium ions than sodium ions

148
Q

4 types of ion channels in neurons

A

Leak channels

Ligand-gated channel

Mechanically gated channel

Voltage-gated channel

149
Q

Resting membrane potential of a neuron

A

-70 mV

150
Q

3 major factors that cause resting membrane potential

A

Unequal distribution of ions in the ECF and cytosol

Inability of most anions to leave the cell

Electrogenic nature of the Na+/K+ ATPases

151
Q

Graded potential

A

Small deviation from the membrane potential

Occurs when a stimulus causes gated channels to open or close in an excitable cell’s plasma membrane

Disperses over a short distance

Occur mostly in the dendrites and cell body of a neuron

152
Q

Decremental conduction

A

Mode of travel by which graded potentials die out as they spread along the membrane

153
Q

Summation

A

The process by which graded potentials add together

154
Q

Action potential

A

A rapid change in the membrane potential along a nerve fiber

155
Q

Depolarizing phase

A

Negative membrane potential becomes less negative, reaches zero, then becomes positive

156
Q

Repolarizing phase

A

Membrane potential is restored to the resting state of -70mV

157
Q

After-hyperpolarizing phase

A

Memrane potential temporarily becomes more negative than the resting level

158
Q

Absolute refractory period

A

Even a very strong stimulus cannot initiate a second action potential

159
Q

Relative refractory period

A

Period of time during which a second action potential can be initiated but only by a larger-than-normal stimulus

160
Q

Continuous conduction

A

Involves step-by-step depolarization and repolarization of each adjacent segment of the plasma membrane

Occurs in unmyelinated axons and muscle fibers

161
Q

Saltatory conduction

A

Occurs along myelinated axons

Action potential appears to “leap” from node to node

Much faster and energy-efficient (less ATP used)

162
Q

Factors that affect the speed of propagation of action potentials

A
  1. Amount of myelination
  2. Axon diameter (larger diameter -> faster)
  3. Temperature (lower temp -> slower)
163
Q

Axodendritic synapse

A

From axon to dendrite

164
Q

Axosomatic synapse

A

From axon to cell body

165
Q

Axoaxonic synapse

A

From axon to axon

166
Q

Electrical synapse

A

Action potentials conduct directly between the plasma membranes of adjacent neurons through structures called gap junctions

167
Q

Advantages of electrical synapses

A

Faster communication Synchronization

168
Q

Acetylcholine (ACh)

A

The only neurotransmitter that is released at the synapses between neurons and skeletal muscle cells (i.e., at the neuromuscular junction– NMJ)

169
Q

Meninges

A

3 protective connective tissue coverings that encircle the spinal cord and brain Dura mater Arachnoid mater Pia mater

170
Q

Epidural space

A

A space between the dura mater and the wall of the vertebral canal Contains a fat and connective tissue that protect the spinal cord

171
Q

Subdural space

A

Between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater Contains interstitial fluid

172
Q

Denticulate ligaments

A

Extensions of the pia mater that suspend the spinal cord in the middle of its dural sheath Protect the spinal cord against sudden displacement

173
Q

Subarachnoid space

A

Between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater Contains CSF

174
Q

Endoneurium

A

Innermost layer of connective tissue that wraps around individual axons (and their myelin sheaths if present) in a nerve

175
Q

Perineurium

A

Layer of connective tissue surrounding a fascicle (bundle of axons)

176
Q

Epineurium

A

Outermost covering over the entire nerve

177
Q

The innermost meninx adhering to the brain and spinal cord

A

Pia mater

178
Q

4 main regions of the brain

A

Cerebrum, diencephalon, brain stem, cerebellum

179
Q

Frontal lobes

A

• Movements of voluntary skeletal muscles • Higher intellectual processes such as concentration, planning, and problem solving

180
Q

Parietal lobes

A

• Sensations of temperature, touch, pressure, and pain • Understanding speech and using words

181
Q

Temporal lobes

A

• Hearing and smelling • Memory of scenes and music

182
Q

Occipital lobes

A

• Vision • Combining

183
Q

Corpus colossum

A

connects the two hemispheres and provides the communication pathway between the two halves

184
Q

4 ventricles of the brain

A

fluid-filled cavities - two lateral ventricles, the third ventricle, and the fourth ventricle

185
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the

A

Choroid plexus