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Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the cell surface molecules of each of the following leukocytes?

B cells
T cells:

A

B cells: CD19, CD20

T cells: CD3, CD4. CD8

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2
Q

What are the cell surface molecules of each of the following leukocytes?

NK cells:
Macrophages/Monocytes:

A

NK cells: CD56

Macrophages/Monocyte: CD14

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3
Q

Name all 3 phagocytes, and indicate the ones found in circulation and the ones found in tissue.

A

Blood: Neutrophils and monocytes

Tissue: Macrophages

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4
Q

Leukocytosis is elevated WBC of greater than _________, while leaukopenia is a reduction in circulating WBC less than _________

A

Leukocytosis: >11,000 cells/mcL

Leukopenia: <4,000 cells/mcL

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5
Q

T/F: NETs have the ability to immobilize pathogens to allow phagocytosis of microbes while trapped, and can directly kill microbes with antimicrobial histones and proteases

A

True

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6
Q

Which of the following stem cell types comes from the blastocyst stage of embryo development?

A. Fetal Stem cells
B. Embryonic Stem cells
C. Adult stem cells
D. Cord Blood stem cells

A

Embryonic Stem cells

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7
Q

Which of the following are undifferentiated adult stem cells?

A. Fetal Stem cells
B. Embryonic Stem cells
C. Adult stem cells
D. Cord Blood stem cells

A

Cord Blood stem cells

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8
Q

Which of the following G proteins stimulates cGMP phosphodiesterases?

A. Gs
B. Gt
C. Gq
D. Gi

A

Gt

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9
Q

Which of the following G proteins activates phospholipase C?

A. Gs
B. Gt
C. Gq
D. Gi

A

Gq

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10
Q 
Which of the following G proteins inhibits adenylate cyclase? 
A. Gs
B. Gt
C. Gq
D. Gi
A

Gi

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11
Q

Match the following G proteins (Gs, Gi, Gt, Gq) with the appropriate ligand and GPCR receptor types?

Epinephrine and B-adrenergic receptor:
Epinephrine/norepinephrine w/ a-adrenergic receptor:
Acetylcholine w/ muscarinic acetylcholine receptor:
Light w/ rhodopsin:

A

Epinephrine and B-adrenergic receptor: Gs

Epinephrine/norepinephrine w/ a-adrenergic receptor: Gi

Acetylcholine w/ muscarinic acetylcholine receptor: Gq

Light w/ rhodopsin: Gt

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12
Q

Histamine is associated with which of the G proteins, while dopamine is associated with:

A. Gs, Gt
B. Gt, Gi
C. Gs, Gi
D. Gi, Gq

A

Gs, Gi

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13
Q

You wish to determine the restriction fragments associated with the target gene. Which of the following techniques would you select?

A. Northern blot
B. Southern Blot
C. PCR
D. qPCR

A

Southern Blot

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14
Q

You wish to measure the size and quantity of mRNA molecules to answer questions about gene expression. Which of the following techniques would you select?

A. Northern blot
B. Southern Blot
C. PCR
D. qPCR

A

Northern blot

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15
Q

Which detection method is best for investigating HIV and streptococas?

A. Northern blot
B. Southern Blot
C. PCR
D. qPCR

A

qPCR

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16
Q

Which detection method is best for investigating vaginalis?

A. Hybridization
B. qPCR
C. ELISA
D. PCR

A

Hybridization

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17
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are able to target a specific epitope on an antigen, and are used for clinical use. Which of the following monoclonal antibiotic drugs is used to prevent kidney transplant rejection?

A. Abciximab
B. Baciliximab
C. Cetuximab
D. Infliximab
E. Retuximab
A

Baciliximab

NOTE:

Abciximab inhibits platelet aggregation
Cetuximab treats metastatic colorectal cancer
Infliximab treats autoimmune disease
Retuximab treats lymphoma and leukemia

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18
Q

Does direct (sandwich) or indirect ELISA determine the amount of Ag in a sample, as seen in pregnancy test?

A

Direct (Sandwich) ELISA

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19
Q

Fever is not directly caused by pathogenic factors, but chemical release of cytokines. What are the 3 cytokines in macrophages that induce fever?

A

TNF
IL-1
IL-6

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20
Q

Inflammasomes contain NLRs that activate protease caspase 1, that work to activate what 2 interleukins that drive inflammation?

A

IL-1B

IL-18

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21
Q

All DAMPs stimulate the production and release of what two cytokines?

A

TNF-a

IL-1

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22
Q

Which of the following TLRs is the only one that does not use MyD88, but TRIF only?

A. TLR1
B. TLR4
C. TLR7
D. TLR3

A

TLR3

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23
Q

What are the 4 cross-linking agents?

Nightmares Can Make Car

A

Nitrogen Mustard
Cisplatin
Mitomycin C
Carmustine

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24
Q

Which of the following DNA repair mechanisms is damaged in PTs with Cockayne’s syndrome?

A. NHEJ
B. Homologous recombination
C. Transcription Coupled Repair
D. Mismatch Excision Repair
E. DNA Interstrand Cross-Link Repair
A

Transcription Coupled Repair

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25
Q

Which of the following DNA repair mechanisms is damaged in PTs with colorectal cancer?

A. NHEJ
B. Homologous recombination
C. Transcription Coupled Repair
D. Mismatch Excision Repair
E. DNA Interstrand Cross-Link Repair
A

Mismatch Excision Repair

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26
Q

Which of the following DNA repair mechanisms is damaged in PTs with Fanconi-Anemia

A. Nucleotide Excision repair
B. Homologous recombination
C. Transcription Coupled Repair
D. Mismatch Excision Repair
E. DNA Interstrand Cross-Link Repair
A

DNA Interstrand Cross-Link Repair

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27
Q

Which of the following DNA repair mechanisms is damaged in PTs with BRCA1/2 Breast cancer?

A. Nucleotide Excision repair
B. Homologous recombination
C. Transcription Coupled Repair
D. Mismatch Excision Repair
E. DNA Interstrand Cross-Link Repair
A

Homologous Recombination

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28
Q

What is the equation used for calculating osmolality from given lab values?

A

2[Na] + ([glucose]/18) + ([BUN]/2.8)

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29
Q

Which of the following values of saline is isotonic to RBCs?

A. 0.5%
B. 0.7%
C. 0.8%
D. 0.9%

A

0.9%

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30
Q

Which of the following scenarios correctly specifies the inhibitory affect chloramphenicol has on prokaryotic translation?

A. Inhibits initation by binding to the 30S subunit and interfere with fMet-tRNA binding to the subunit
B. Prevents peptide bond formation by inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity
C. Inhibits the translocation of the ribosome by binding to the large 50S subunit
D. Inhibits the elongation by binding to the 30S subunit in such a way that aminoacyl-tRNA cannot enter

A

Prevents peptide bond formation by inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity

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31
Q

Which of the following scenarios correctly specifies the inhibitory affect tetracycline has on prokaryotic translation?

A. Inhibits initation by binding to the 30S subunit and interfere with fMet-tRNA binding to the subunit
B. Prevents peptide bond formation by inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity
C. Inhibits the translocation of the ribosome by binding to the large 50S subunit
D. Inhibits the elongation by binding to the 30S subunit in such a way that aminoacyl-tRNA cannot enter

A

Inhibits the elongation by binding to the 30S subunit in such a way that aminoacyl-tRNA cannot enter

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32
Q

Tetracycline acts on prokaryotes by binding to the small subunit and blocking entry of aminoacyl-tRNA’s entry into the complex so elongation fails. What 2 inhibitors act on eukaryotes in the same way?

A

Shiga toxin

Ricin

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33
Q

Match the following eukaryotic translation inhibitors that work similarly to the prokaryotic inhibitors below?
(Shiga toxin, Ricin, Diptheria toxin, Cyclohexamine) Include an explanation of how they relate.

Chloramphenicol:

Tetracycline:

Clindimycin & Erythomycin:

A

Chloramphenicol: cyclohexamine
- both inhibit peptidyl transferase stopping peptide bond formation

Tetracycline: ricin, shiga toxin
- all 3 bind to the respective large subunit to block entry of aminoacyl-tRNA thus preventing elongation

Clindimycin & Erythomycin: Diptheria toxin
- both block translocation of the ribosome

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34
Q

What is the name of the disease caused by a missense mutation that makes GAG become GTG? What are the amino acids that change and their differing properties that lead to the presentation of the disease?

A 
Sickle Cell Anemia
Glutamic acid (negatively charged and hydrophilic) becomes valine which is hydrophobic causing HbA to become rigid with a tendency to aggregate

RBCs look messed up

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35
Q

For ________ pathway, protein synthesis begins and ends on a free ribosome, and for __________ pathway protein synthesis begins on the free ribosome but ends on the ribosome that is sent to the ER.

A

Cytoplasmic

Secretory

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36
Q

Which of the following signals must a protein have in order to reach the nucleus?

A. None
B. KKKRK
C. C-terminal SKL
D. Mannose-6-phosphate
E. Tryptophan rich domain
A

KKKRK

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37
Q

Which of the following signals must a protein have in order to be secreted out of the cell?

A. None
B. KKKRK
C. C-terminal SKL
D. Mannose-6-phosphate
E. Tryptophan rich domain
A

Tryptophan rich domain

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38
Q

Which of the following signals must a protein have in order to be encorporated into a lysosome?

A. None
B. KKKRK
C. C-terminal SKL
D. Mannose-6-phosphate
E. Tryptophan rich domain
A

Mannose-6-phosphate

NOTE: errors here are associated with I-cell disease

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39
Q

T/F: EVERY protein in the secretory pathway has an ER targeting signal of 15-60 AA’s on it’s N-terminus

A

True

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40
Q

What’s the difference between KARs and KIRs in regard to NK cells?

A

KARs are activating receptors that override KIRs (inhibitory receptors), when KIRs do not bind to MHC I complex of the target cell

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41
Q

Which of the following cyclin CDK complexes is active when the cell transits the restriction point and heads to the S phase? Note the cyclin is degraded at that point as well.

A. Cyclin E-CDK2
B. Cyclin A-CDK2
C. Cyclin D- CDK4 and CDK6
D. Cyclin A-CDK1 and Cyclin B-CDK1

A

Cyclin D- CDK4 and CDK6

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42
Q

Which of the following cyclin CDK complexes is active during the G1 to S phase transition?

A. Cyclin E-CDK2
B. Cyclin A-CDK2
C. Cyclin D- CDK4 and CDK6
D. Cyclin A-CDK1 and Cyclin B-CDK1

A

Cyclin E-CDK2

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43
Q

Which of the following cyclin CDK complexes is active during the S phase to enduce the enzyme needed for DNA synthesis?

A. Cyclin E-CDK2
B. Cyclin A-CDK2
C. Cyclin D- CDK4 and CDK6
D. Cyclin A-CDK1 and Cyclin B-CDK1

A

Cyclin A-CDK2

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44
Q

Which of the following cyclin CDK complexes is necessary to initiate mitosis?

A. Cyclin E-CDK2
B. Cyclin A-CDK2
C. Cyclin D- CDK4 and CDK6
D. Cyclin A-CDK1 and Cyclin B-CDK1

A

Cyclin A-CDK1 and Cyclin B-CDK1

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45
Q

Name the 2 inhipitors that belong to the CIP/KIP family. Indicate what cyclin-cdk complex they inhibit and how.

A

p21 and p27

Inhibit G1 and S cyclin-cdk complexs by changing the conformation of their active site

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46
Q

Name the inhiptor that belongs to the INK4 cyclin-cdk inhibitors. Explain what the inhibitors target and how they inhibit it

A

p16

Inhibits G1 cdks (CDK4 and CDK6) by binding to them so that they are unable to bind to cyclin D

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47
Q

What is depurination, and what two bases are generally affected?

A

Depurination is a type of spontaneous DNA damage

Specifically depurination the loss of the base adenine or guanine

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48
Q

Deamination is the loss of amine group from the bases adenine, guanine, or cytosine. What products result when each of the three are deaminated?

A

Adenine (purine) –> Hypoxanthine (IMP)

Guanine (purine) –> Xanthine (XMP)

Cytosine (pyrimidine) –> Uracil

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49
Q

The deamination of 5-methyl cytosine results in what base residue?

A

Thymine

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50
Q

Which of the following chemical agents requires metabolic activity to become carcinogenic, and instead is not a cross-linking agent that acts directly to modify DNA?

A. Nitrogen mustard
B. Cisplatin
C. BPDE
D. Mitomycin C
E. Carmustine
A

BPDE

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51
Q

Cross-linking agents act directly to modify DNA by forming crosslinks between bases in the same strand or complementary strand. What are the 4 cross-linking agents that act directly to modify DNA?

No mustard, circus might care

A

Nitrogen Mustard
Cisplatin
Mitomycin C
Carmustine

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52
Q

Alkylating agents act directly to modify DNA by methylating bases, or alkylating phosphodiester bonds into phosphotriester bonds. Name the two alkylating agents.

A

Dimethyl sulfate (DMS)

Methyl methansulfonate (MMS)

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53
Q

Intercalating agents cause the unwinding of helix and seperation of base pairs. Which of the following is an intercalating agent?

A. Cisplatin
B. BPDE
C. Methyl Methansulfonate
D. THalidomide

A

Thalidomide

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54
Q

Use Snow drop to specify what Southerner, Northern and Western blot address.

A

Southerner Blot: DNA-DNA (probe and target)

Northern Blot: DNA-RNA (probe is ssDNA and target is RNA)

Western blot: protein antibody

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55
Q

Which of the following is co-administered and is used to inhibit synthesis of RNA in bacteria?

A. Rifampicin
B. Ricin
C. Acyclovir
D. All the above

A

Rifampicin

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56
Q

Correctly name the repair mechanisms that are being described below

  1. Daughter strand is cut by exonuclease
  2. 2 cuts are made on either side of the error
  3. Altered or mismatched base is cut out and replaced
A

MER: Daughter strand is cut by exonuclease

NER: 2 cuts are made on either side of the error

BER: Altered or mismatched base is cut out and replaced

57
Q

T/F: Vorinosts and entinostat are examples of Histone Deacetylase Inhibitors (HDAC Inhibitors)

A

True

58
Q

These are Histone Acetyl transferase co-regulatory proteins:

  • CARM1
  • CBP/p300 complex
  • p160s
  • TIP60 complex
  • P/CAF complex
  • GCN5/TRAPP complex
A

Ok

59
Q

What is the start codon, and what AA does it code for?

What are the 3 stop codons?

A

AUG: methionine

UAA, UAG, UGA

60
Q

The peptide bond formation that occurs at the A and P site is catalyzed by which of the following enzymes?

A. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
B. Peptidyl transferase
C. GTP-elongation factor2
D. Release factor

A

Peptidyl transferase

NOTE: Cycloheximide inhibits peptidyl transferase in eukaryotes

61
Q

Which of the following inhibit C9 association with the MAC complex?

A. CD59
B. Clusterin
C. Vitronectin (S-protein)
D. All the above

A

All the above

CD59, clusterin, and vitonectin inhibit C9 association

59 yo’s Cluster Vitamins

62
Q

T/F: C1 inhibitor (C1-INH) inactivates C1s and C1r; MASP1 and MASP2

A

True

63
Q

Which of the following complement inhibitors degrades C3b and C4b?

A. Factor H
B. Factor D
C. Factor E
D. Factor I

A

Factor I

64
Q

CD8 T cells bind to what domain of the MHC I complex?

A. a1
B. a2
C. a3
D. B2

A

a3

65
Q

CD4 T cells bind to what domain of the MHC II complex

A. a1
B. a2
C. B1
D. B2

A

B2

66
Q

What type of development happens in B cells but doesn’t happens in T cells?

A

Somatic hypermutation

67
Q

Describe what process is similar in T cell receptor development:

  • Production of H chain in B cells:
  • Production of L chain in B cells:
A
  • Production of H chain in B cells: production of Beta-cahin

- Production of L chain in B cells: production of alpha chain

68
Q

The mechanism of junctional diversity leads to more diversity in what region of the chain DNA?

A. 2nd hypervariable region
B. 2nd hypovariable region
C. 3rd hypervariable region
D. 3rd hypovariable region

A

3rd hypervariable region

69
Q

PCR is used to detect microbes that have a long latency like HIV, or to detect diseases caused by gene mutations. How is PCR able to do this?

A

If the sequence is known then PCR is able to amplify that sequence and detect it’s presence

  • HIV inserts its sequence in the host DNA, and we know that sequence
  • the mutant gene in cystic fibrosis is known and we’re able to find that DNA
70
Q

What are the 2 things that qPCR is used for? Think about whu its good for comparing cancer cells to a target DNA sequence in a normal cell

A
  1. Detect levels of an infectious agent

2. Determine levels of gene expression

71
Q

T/F: Sickle cell disease, a condition caused by a single A –> T mutation in the Beta-globin gene, which causes a valine residue to replace the normal glutamic acid residue in position 6

A

True

72
Q

Why is it that VNTR analysis is helpful in determining the probability and severity of inherited diseases such as Huntington disease, fragile X syndrome, myotonic dystrophy, and Friedreich ataxia?

A

In normal individuals there will be lower amounts of small tandem number of repeats, while the severity of a gene is correlated with the amount of repeats found

NOTE: The number of repeats seems to increase with each generation

73
Q

T/F: Specific antibodies to HIV are produced immediately in humans once infected and can be detected by indirect ELISA

A

False

4-6 weeks after infection

This is why indirect ELISA can be used to detect the antigens that HIV makes before the Abs are even made

74
Q

Which of the following techniques can be used after ELISA technique to confirm HIV presence?

A. Southern Blot
B. Northern Blot
C. Eastern Blot
D. Western Blot

A

Western Blot

75
Q

T/F: In a western blot, you transfer the proteins from gel to nitocellulose membrane then add primary and secondary antibody w/ an enzyme tag in order to detect the amount of protein

A

True

76
Q

Cytoplasmic and Nuclear receptors both except hydrophobic molecules that are able to pass through the membrane. However they’re are important distinctions between the two. Explain the difference between cytoplasmic receptors and nuclear receptors in terms of activity, locations, enzymes involved

A

Cytoplasmic receptors exist in the inactive form with HSP90. Once the ligand binds, HSP dissociates and the complex translocates to the nucleus binding to the specific hormone receptor element

Nuclear receptors are already present in the nucleus and bound to the DNA. The addition of hormone binding allows additional protein interaction

77
Q

What are the 4 ways signalling can be desensitized so the signal is turned off?

A
  1. Drop hormone levels
  2. Remove signalling molecule with phosphodiesterases
  3. Sequester the receptor into an endosome
  4. Destroy the receptor by taking it into an endosome and allowing a lysosome to destroy inner contents
78
Q

T/F: It’s Gi vs Gs

A

True

Gs stimulates adenyl cyclase
Gi inhibits adenyl cyclase

79
Q

Which of the following TLRs is best for detecting HIV?

A. TLR3
B. TLR7
C. TLR8
D. TLR9

A

TLR7

80
Q

Which of the following TLRs is best for detecting west nile virus?

A. TLR3
B. TLR7
C. TLR8
D. TLR9

A

TLR3

81
Q

Alternatively activated Macrophages (M2) are induced by which of the following?

A. IL-4 and IFN-y
B. TLRs and cytokines
C. IL-4 and IL-13
D. All the above are correct

A

IL-4 and IL-13

82
Q

Which of the following vesicle transport coats is utilized for transport molecules like cholesterol from golgi to lysosomes?

A. COP I
B. COP II
C. Clathrin
D. All the above

A

Clathrin

NOTE:

COP I b/w cis and trans golgi
COP II ER to golgi

83
Q

Which of the following correctly describes Zellweger syndrome?

A. Mutation of LDL receptor that leads to the disruption of cholesterol uptake
B. Missing LDL receptor that causes failure of cholesterol uptake
C. Defect in peroxisome assembly leading to an absence or reduction of peroxisomes
D. None of the above

A

Defect in peroxisome assembly leading to an absence or reduction of peroxisomes

84
Q

Which of the following correctly describes Familial Hypercholesterolemia?

A. Mutation of LDL receptor that leads to the disruption of cholesterol uptake
B. Missing LDL receptor that causes failure of cholesterol uptake
C. Defect in peroxisome assembly leading to an absence or reduction of peroxisomes
D. None of the above

A

Mutation of LDL receptor that leads to the disruption of cholesterol uptake

85
Q

Ionizing radiation is exemplified in X-rays. They can result in thymine-tyrosine cross-links or direct DNA strand breaks

A

Ok

86
Q

What are the names of the 2 HDAC inhibitors that work as anti-convulsion or anti-cancer drugs?

A

Entinostat

Vorinostat

87
Q

Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer is a disease that results due to an error in which of the following DNA repair mechanisms?

A. NHEJ
B. NER
C. MER
D. BER

A

MER

Hereditary nonpolyposis is a colorectal cancer that results from MER error

88
Q

Which of the following DNA repair mechanisms is best for nondistorting alterations caused by depurination for example?

A. NHEJ
B. NER
C. MER
D. BER

A

BER

89
Q

Which of the following diseases is associated with HLA-B27?

A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Rheumatic Fever 
C. Sjogren's syndrome
D. Diabetes
E. Psoriasis
A

Ankylosing spondylitis

90
Q

Which of the following diseases is associated with HLA-DR4?

A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Rheumatic Fever 
C. Sjogren's syndrome
D. Diabetes
E. Psoriasis
A

Rheumatic Fever

91
Q

Which of the following diseases is associated with HLA-DR3?

A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Rheumatic Fever 
C. Sjogren's syndrome
D. Diabetes
E. Psoriasis
A

Sjogren’s syndrome

92
Q

Which of the following diseases is associated with HLA-Dqw8?

A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Rheumatic Fever 
C. Sjogren's syndrome
D. Diabetes
E. Psoriasis
A

Diabetes

93
Q

Which of the following diseases is associated with HLA-B3?

A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Rheumatic Fever 
C. Sjogren's syndrome
D. Diabetes
E. Psoriasis
A

Psoriasis

94
Q

Lyonization is another name for what?

A

X-inactivation

95
Q

2 or more population of cells with different genotypes found in one individual is referred to as what?

A

Mosaicism

96
Q

What 2 modes of inheritance is transmission from father to son impossible?

A

X-linked recessive

X-linked dominant

97
Q

Which of the following sorting signals is necessary for proteins to reach the mitochondria?

A. KKKRK
B. C-terminal KDEL
C. SKL
D. N-terminal hydrophobic alpha-helix

A

N-terminal hydrophobic alpha-helix

98
Q

Which of the following sorting signals is necessary for proteins to reach peroxisome?

A. KKKRK
B. C-terminal KDEL
C. C-terminal SKL
D. N-terminal hydrophobic alpha-helix

A

C-terminal SKL

99
Q

Glycosylation is a covalent modification of proteins. There is O-side and N-side, and they add different groups to specific amino acids. What are these specificities?

A

O-side: Add -OH to serine and threonine

N-side: Add -CONH2 to Asparagine

100
Q

Deficiencies in lysyl hydroxylases leads to skin, bone, and joint disorders. Normally it’s responsible for collagen assembly. Below is an example of of 2 types of disorders that result from this defect. Which of the presents with overly flexible joints causing rupture of vessels and intestines?

A. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
B. Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex

A

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

NOTE: Epidermolysis Bullosa Simplex presents with blisters on skin

101
Q

Which of the following protein based error disorders is characterized by expansion of CAG triplet repeats causing polyglutamine repeats forming intramolecular H-bonds?

A. Parkinsons
B. Huntingtons
C. Alzheimers
D. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

A

Huntingtons

102
Q

Which of the following protein based error disorders is characterized by aggregation of alpha-symuclein (AS) deposits and lewey bodies in dopiminergic neurons of substantia nigra?

A. Parkinsons
B. Huntingtons
C. Alzheimers
D. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

A

Parkinsons

103
Q

Which of the following mitochondrial disorders leads to a degeneration of retinal ganglion cells caused b a point mutation in NADH dehydrogenase?

A. LHON
B. MERFF
C. MELAS
D. None of the above

A

LHON

104
Q

Which of the following mitochondrial disorders is caused by a mutation in the gene encoding for tRNA for lysine, disrupting the synthesis of cytochrome-c oxidase?

A. LHON
B. MERFF
C. MELAS
D. None of the above

A

MERFF

105
Q

What mitochondrial disorder is the most common disease?

A

MELAS

106
Q

Karyotype is 45 XO

A

Turner syndrome

- female, ovarian hypofunction, infertile, webbed neck

107
Q

Karyotype is 47 XXY

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

  • male or female, small undescended testes, tall
108
Q

All of the following syndromes are a form of trisomy with a karyotype of 47 XX. Which of the following is +21 and results from maternal meiotic nondisjunction?

A. Down syndrome
B. Edwards syndrome
C. Patau syndrome

A

Down syndrome

  • most common
  • +21
109
Q

All of the following syndromes are a form of trisomy with a karyotype of 47 XX. Which of the following is +18 and 95% die in utero?

A. Down syndrome
B. Edwards syndrome
C. Patau syndrome

A

Edwards syndrome

110
Q

All of the following syndromes are a form of trisomy with a karyotype of 47 XX. Which of the following is +13 and often have cleft lip/palate?

A. Down syndrome
B. Edwards syndrome
C. Patau syndrome

A

Patau syndrome

111
Q

Cause oncogenic transduction of cellular genes and carry it within the retrovirus.

A. Transducing virus
B. Non-transducing virus
C. Non-transducing long latency virus
D. Retrovirus that contains an envelop that signals

A

Transducing virus

112
Q

Uses cis-acting provirus that activates the oncogene by insertion/integration of the provirus.

A. Transducing virus
B. Non-transducing virus
C. Non-transducing long latency virus
D. Retrovirus that contains an envelop that signals

A

Non-transducing virus

113
Q

Uses trans-acting proteins encoded by the retrovirus to disrupt normal regulation of cell transcription

A. Transducing virus
B. Non-transducing virus
C. Non-transducing long latency virus
D. Retrovirus that contains an envelop that signals

A

Non-transducing long latency virus

114
Q

Utilizes an enveloped trans-acting protein that causes innapropriate cell signalling from the interaction b/w viral envelop and cell receptor

A. Transducing virus
B. Non-transducing virus
C. Non-transducing long latency virus
D. Retrovirus that contains an envelop that signals

A

Retrovirus that contains an envelop that signals

115
Q

Which of the following oncogenes is involved in lung, ovarian, colorectal, bladder carcinoma?

A. K-ras
B. N-ras
C. H-ras

A

K-ras

116
Q

Which of the following oncogenes is involved in head and neck cancer?

A. K-ras
B. N-ras
C. H-ras

A

N-ras

117
Q

Which of the following oncogenes is involved in in colorectal cancer?

A. K-ras
B. N-ras
C. H-ras

A

H-ras

118
Q

Which of the following oncogenes is involved various leukemias?

A. c-myc
B. L-myc
C. N-myc-DDX1

A

c-myc

119
Q

Which of the following oncogenes is involved in lung cancer?

A. c-myc
B. L-myc
C. N-myc-DDX1

A

L-myc

120
Q

Which of the following oncogenes is involved in meuroblastoma and lung carcinomas?

A. c-myc
B. L-myc
C. N-myc-DDX1

A

N-myc-DDX1

121
Q

What are four major tumor suppressor genes?

A

p53
p16
Rb
p14ARF

122
Q

How does Factor I control complement activation?

A

Factor I degrades C3b and C4b

123
Q

T/F: In Class I Bare Lymphocyte syndrome, TAP protein is non-functional; while in Class II Bare Lymphocyte syndrome, there is an inherited defect in CIITA

A

True

124
Q

What chromosome can you find each of the following receptors on?

H-chain and TCR-alpha:

TCR beta:

k light chain:

lambda light chain:

A

H-chain and TCR-alpha: chromosome 14

TCR beta: chromosome 7

k light chain: chromsome 2

lambda light chain: chromsome 22

125
Q

T/F: Junctional diversity utilizes TdT to add random P and N nucleotides and further enhance repetoire

A

True

126
Q

Allelic exclusion gurantees that T cells and B cells will express one type of receptor to gurantee clonal specificity is maintained

A

Ok

127
Q

Hereditary Angioedema (HEA) is caused by a defect in the gene that controls what inhibitor?

A. Factor I
B. Factor H
C. C1 inhibitor
D. All of the above

A

C1 inhibitor

128
Q

Paraxysomal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) is an example of failure to regulate the MAC formation, caused by deficiency in GPI. GPI deficiency would result in what 2 inhibitors being unable to work?

A

DAF

CD59

129
Q

There are 3 potential mechanisms for the induction of the mitotic catastrophe. describe each of the following points listed below.

  1. Defects in cell cycle checkpoints (3)
  2. Hyperamplification of centrosomes
  3. Caspase-2 activation during metaphase
A
  1. Defects in cell cycle checkpoints
    - p53 at G2 checkpoint
    - BUB-related kinase at spindle checkpoint
    - increased expression of APC at spindle assembly
  2. Hyperamplification of centrosomes via cyclin E/A and CDK2
  3. Caspase-2 activation during metaphase causing delayed apoptosis
130
Q

What are the 3 checkpoints in the cell cycle?

A
  1. G1 checkpoint after Restriction
  2. G2 checkpoint
  3. Metaphase checkpoint before proceeding to anaphase
131
Q

Cyclin D is complexes with CDK6 and CDK4, and is later degraded from the transition of the restriction point into S phase

Cyclin E-CDK2 is active during the G1 to S transition

Cyclin A w/ CDK 2 is active during S phase to induce DNA synthesis enzyme

Cyclin A-CDK1 and CyclinB-CDK1 initiate mitosis

A

True

132
Q

Under phosphorylated Rb, a tumor suppressor, bind E2F to arrest cell cycle at G1. E2F when active normally triggers transcription of cyclin E and A

A

True

133
Q

Describe the slower vs faster pathway that occurs at the G1 checkpoint following DNA damage?

A

SLOW pathway: p53 is stabilized by phosphorylation and stimulates upregulation of p21 that binds to the CDK/cyclin complex to change their activation site and stop their activity

FAST pathway: Chk2 is activated and causes the inactivation of Cdc25 so that the inhibitory phosphate on cyclinE-CDK2 cannot be removed

134
Q

Describe what occurs in the ARP/p16 pathway in G1 checkpoint

A

ARP/p16 signals downstream arrest of G1 by signalling p53/p21 ORRRRRRRRR ARP/p16 directly prevents the phosphorylation of Rb

135
Q

Describe the 2 occurences that happen following DNA damage in the G2 checkpoint, when 2 ATM dependent pathways are activated

A
  1. Chk1 and Chk2 target cdc25 for export so cyclin B-CDK1 cannot be activated
  2. p53 furthers cyclinB-CDK1 inhibition
136
Q

Causes the loss of regulatory domain that leads to overactivity of an oncogene?

A. Truncation
B. Point mutation in coding region
C. Point mutation in promotor
D. Insertion
E. TRanslocation
A

Truncation

137
Q

All of the following mechanisms that convert protooncogenes to oncogenes leads to overproduction except which one?

A. Point mutation in coding region
B. Point mutation in promotor
C. Insertion
D. TRanslocation

A

Point mutation in coding region

  • this would result in unregulation of the oncogene
138
Q

T/F: AA amyloid is a secondary phenomenon that is caused by chronic inflammation, but because it is a serum (stem from SAA) multiple sites may be affected

A

True

CT_SFM Block (5 decks)

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