Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

CT_SFM Block > Final Section > Flashcards

Final Section Flashcards

1
Q

Define contraction of T cells

A

The apoptosis of the expanded population of lymphocytes after T cells clear the infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The resting mature naive T cell express what surface receptors besides CD4 or CD8?

A 
CD28
MHC Class I
TCR and CD3
LFA-1 and VLA-4 adhesion molecules
Chemokine receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The activation of integrins and chemotaxis of of naive T cells involves the T-cells CCR7 binding to what ligand on endothelial cell?

A

CCL19

CCL21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The activation of integrins and chemotaxis of activated effector and memory T cells involves T-cell’s CXCR3 binding to what ligand on the endothelial cell?

A

CXCL10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What selectins are expressed on naive T-cells (1) versus effector or memory T-cells (2)?

A

Naive T cells: L-selectin

Effector and Memory T cells: E and P-selectins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following surface molecules of T lymphocytes binds with B7 (CD80) on APCs to promote signal transduction?

A. CD28
B. CTLA-4
C. PD-1
D. PD-1 and CTLA-4

A

CD28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following surface molecules of T lymphocytes binds with B7 (CD80) on APCs to cause inhibition of T cells?

A. CD28
B. CTLA-4
C. PD-1
D. PD-1 and CTLA-4
E. LFA-1
A

CTLA-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following surface molecules of T lymphocytes when bound to APCs signals inhibition?

A. CD28
B. CTLA-4
C. PD-1
D. PD-1 and CTLA-4

A

PD-1 and CTLA-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following surface molecules of T lymphocytes binds with APCs ICAM to promote adhesion and stability?

A. CD28
B. CTLA-4
C. PD-1
D. PD-1 and CTLA-4
E. LFA-1
A

LFA-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following correctly characterizes the role of the second signal of T cell activation?

A. Upregulates expression of CD80 on APCs
B. Upregulates CD40L expression on T cells
C. Maintains specificity of the response to the epitope
D. All of the above

A

Maintains specificity of the response to the epitope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T cell activation causes the formation of a synapse that activates ITAMs leading to a cascade of intermediates doing downstream activation to produce 3 transcription factors. What are the 3 transcription factors?

A

NFAT
NF-kB
AP-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are 2 terms used to describe T cells that recognize the antigen without binding of stimulatory ligands or cytokine support to provide the second signal?

A

Tolerant

Anergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are 2 cytokines that inhibit the activation of T cells, or are known for promoting the differntiation of Treg cells?

A

IL-10

TGF-B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following cytokines is necessary for T cell proliferation and survival of Treg cells?

A. IL-22
B. INF-y
C. IL-2
D. IL-17
E. IL-5
A

IL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following cytokines activates eosinophils?

A. IL-22
B. INF-y
C. IL-2
D. IL-17
E. IL-5
A

L-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following cytokines acts to maintain the function of the epithelial barrier?

A. IL-22
B. INF-y
C. IL-2
D. IL-17
E. IL-5
A

IL-22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following cytokines has the primary function of stimulating acute inflammation?

A. IL-22
B. IL-2
C. IL-17
D. IL-5

A

IL-17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IL-2-alpha chain is another name for what complex on the T cell surface?

A

CD25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the role of CD69 in terms of the trapping and activation of naive T cells once an Ag binds in the lymph node?

A

CD69 on the T cell binds to the S1RP and sequesters it. This little maneuver prevents T cells from binding S1P that would direct it out of the cell. This sequestration is meant to give naive T cells plenty of time for clonal expansion after binding Ags

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Th1 cells are principally involved in the activation of macrophages, and help aid in defense of intracellular pathogens. What are the 2 cytokines that define Th1 cells?

A

IFN-y

IL-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Th2 helper cells principally target eosinophils and are involved in eosinophil activation, mast cell activation, and alternative macrophage activation. What are the 3 cytokines that define Th2 cells?

A

IL-13
IL-4
IL-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Th17 cells are involved in neutrophil recruitment and activation for extracellular bacteria and fungi. What is Th17 three defining cytokines?

A

TGF-B
IL-6
IL-23

(also IL-17, IL-22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Follicular Helper T cells target B cells to aid in antibody production to combat extracellular pathogens. What are the 3 cytokines that define them?

A

IL-21

IFN-y or IL-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following T cell types can recognize non-protein antigens?

A. Th1
B. gamma-delta T cells
C. Th2
D. Th17

A

gamma-delta T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the transcription factor needed to develop Th1 cells?

A. FOXP3
B. GATA-3
C. T-bet
D. RORyt

A

T-bet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the transcription factor needed to develop Th2 cells?

A. FOXP3
B. GATA-3
C. T-bet
D. RORyt

A

GATA-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the transcription factor needed to develop Th17 cells?

A. FOXP3
B. GATA-3
C. T-bet
D. RORyt

A

RORyt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Memory T cells require what 2 cytokines for survival?

A

IL-7

IL-15

29
Q

A resting mature naive B cell will express IgM, IgD, Ig-alpha and beta, CD40 and CD20, as well as 3 co-receptors. What are the co-receptors found on a resting mature naive B cell?

A

CD19
CD81
CR2 (CD21)

30
Q

When migrating, B cells will utilize it’s ______ chemokine receptor, and enter primary lymphoid follicles via ________, and exit through _____________

A

CXCR5

enter via HEV
exit via efferent lymphatic vessels

31
Q

Which of the following are responsible for sending survival signals to migrating B cells that do not contact Ags?

A. Follicular T cells
B. Macrophages
C. Neutrophils
D. Follicular Dendritic cells

A

Follicular Dendritic cells

32
Q

Where are B cells coming in and looking for antigens?

A. Medullary
B. Follicular
C. No where

A

Follicular

33
Q

The B cell activation on the intracellular side is the same as T cells but differs in the Src family kinases involved. What is the kinase involved with B cells?

A. Lyk
B. Syk
C. Zap70
D. All of the above

34
Q

Binding of which of the following C3 complement products to the protein Ag leads to the protein being x1000 more immonogenic? NOTE: This binding helps crosslink the microbe between the BCR and CR2.

A. C3a
B. C3b
C. C3c
D. C3d

35
Q

There are multiple outcomes that result from the first signal for B cell activation. Which of the following is the result of increased CCR7 expression?

A. Promotion of survival and cell cycling
B. Migration out of the follicle to T cell zone
C. PRomote interaction with T helper cells
D. Increase responsiveness to cytokines

A

Migration out of the follicle to T cell zone

Determine what the other results of the outcomes

  • increase B7 expression
  • increase protein expression
  • increased expression of cytokine receptors
36
Q

Which of the following binding activities will induce the expression of AID (activation induced deaminase), that leads to the affinity maturation/somatic hypermutation of secreted Abs?

A. CD80/86(B7) - CD28
B. CD40-CD40L
C. HLA Class II to TCR
D. None of the above

A

CD40-CD40L

CD40-CD40L interaction is ESSENTIAL for somatic hypermutation through induction of AID

37
Q

All of the following cytokines will predominantly make IgA, except for which of the following that would predominantly make IgE or IgG4?

A. BAFF
B. TGF-B
C. IL-4
D. APRIL
E. All the above will predominantly make IgA
38
Q

Which of the following activities leading to switch recombination does CD40-CD40L ligation and cytokines promote?

A. Modulate switching regions
B. Expose and make DNA accessible at specific C region
C. Induce expression of AID
D. All the above

A

All the above

39
Q

T/F: AID converts C’s to U’s to allow Ape 1 endonuclease tp create double stranded breaks in DNA, and UNG makes abasic sites

40
Q

All of the following surface markers decrease expression in plasma B cells EXCEPT?

A. CD27
B. CD19
C. CD20
D. HLA Class II
E. All the above are decreased
41
Q

What is the role of IVIG in autoimmune or inflammatory diseases?

A

IVIG binds to inhibitory FcR on B cells and supresses the immune response

42
Q

Which of the following Fc receptors is responsible or better yet, associated with the crossing of IgG across the placenta?

A. FcRa
B. FcRb
C. FcRn
D. FcRm

A

FcRn

Note the acidity of the environment causes the association of IgG with the receptor

43
Q

T/F: In newborns IgG and IgA development lags by about 6-12 months as compared to IgM

44
Q

Which of the following chemokine receptor allows the naive T cell to home in and out of the lymphoid tissue?

A. CCR5
B. CXCR5
C. CCR7
D. CXCR3

45
Q

Which of the following causes of SCID results in T-, B-, NK- cells caused by an accumulation og deoxyadenosine?

A. ADA deficiency
B. RAG1/2 deficiency
C. ARTEMIS
D. Jak3 deficiency

A

ADA deficiency

46
Q

Which of the following causes of SCID equally lead to T-B-NK+?

A. ADA deficiency
B. RAG1/2 deficiency
C. ARTEMIS
D. Jak3 deficiency

A

B. RAG1/2 deficiency
C. ARTEMIS

NOTE: Loss of Jak3 leads to defect in IL-2

47
Q

T/F: In causes of SCID you will see lower than normal levels of IgG, IgA, IgM; as well as all are autosomal recessive

48
Q

Patients with IgA deficiency may have what that is linked to non-IgE mediated anyphylaxis in response to IVIG?

A

anti-IgA IgG

49
Q

There are two forms of Hyper IgM syndrome. One is X linked and the other is autosomal. What are the occurrences of each form, and what is the deficiency?

A

X-linked: deficiency of CD40L (2/3)

Autosomal Recessive: deficiency of CD40 (1/3)

50
Q

For Bare lymphocyte Syndrome Type 2, there is no MHC II on APC’s due to transcription factors that regulate MHC II expression. There is variable hypogammaglobulinemia, but mainly what Abs?

51
Q

What is the cause and result of IPEX syndrome?

A

Mutation in FoxP3 that leads to no/low Treg cell

Leads to self-reactive effector T cells not being inhibited

52
Q

IgM Hypersensitivity can be caused by X-linked or Autosomal recessive disorders. What is the mutation in either disorder?

A

X-linked: CD40L

Autosomal: CD40

53
Q

Rabies and Tetanus immunizations are an example of which of the following type of immunizations?

A. Passive Immunity: provides immediate, but transient immunity
B. Active Immunity: provides delayed but permanent immunity (develops memory)
C. Combined Passive-Active Immunity: gives immediate, transient protection as well as slow developed protection
D. None of the above

A

Combined Passive-Active Immunity: gives immediate, transient protection as well as slow developed protection

54
Q

What is the general difference between central tolerance and peripheral tolerance of lymphocytes?

Think about location, targets, and overall goal

A

Central Tolerance happens in the PRIMARY lymphoid organs and checks IMMATUER self-reactive lymphocytes. It’s goal is to make sure that once mature, the lymphocytes to not react to self-Ags

Peripheral Tolerance is induced in mature self-reactive lymphocytes in LYMPH NODES, and works to ensure that dangerous lymphocyte clones are not activated

55
Q

What are the 3 general outcomes of lymphocytes that fail central tolerance?

A
  • Apoptosis
  • change in BCR specificity
  • Development of Treg cells
56
Q

What are the 3 general outcomes of lymphocytes that fail peripheral tolerance?

A
  • Anergy
  • Apoptosis
  • suppression by Treg cells
57
Q

Explain how development of Th17 and inducible Treg cells are so similar? Specify the molecules that must be present to make either one

A

Ag recognition in the presence of TGF-B induces expression of FoxP3 only IF IL-2 and not IL-6 is there

The presence of IL-6 prevents FoxP3 expression and instead retinoic acid receptor (similar to RORyt) is expressed instead –> Th17

Th17: Th0 + TGF-B + IL-6 + RORyt

iTreg: Th0+ TGF-B + IL-2 + FOXP3

58
Q

Inducible Treg cells are produced in all of the following locations except?

A. GI tract
B. Lymph Nodes
C. Thymus
D. iTreg are produced in all the above

59
Q

T/F: Checkpoint Blockade is a therapeutic application for cancer patients where anti-CTLA-4 and anti-PD-1 are made to enhance antitumor immunity

60
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. The k light chain is the second light chain to be made
B. The conservative region of the BCR is responsible for binding Ags
C. All B cells with a lambda light chain underwent BCR editing
D. All the above are correct

A

All B cells with a lambda light chain underwent BCR editing

61
Q

Which of the following interactions causes the immature B cell to become anergic in central tolerance?

A. High avidity binding of self-Ag
B. Low-avidity binding of self-Ag
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

Low-avidity binding of self-Ag

62
Q

Why is it that defects in Lyn, CD22, or SHP-1 tyrosine phosphatase lead to autoimmunity involveing B cells?

A

CD22 is an inhibitory receptor that gets phosphorylated by Lyn. Once phosphorylated, SHP-1 tyrosine phosphatase is recruited and de-phosphorylated ITAMs to STOP BCR signalling

63
Q

Mutations in which of the following factors is the only one responsible for the breakdown of central tolerance? Explain why

A. C4
B. SHP-1
C. CTLA-4
D. AIRE

A

AIRE is a transcription factor that regulates the expression of Tissue Restricted Ags (TRAs), that are expressed in the thymus by binding to HLA molecules on the medullary thymic epithelial tissue

Error of AIRE prevents this expression, and immature T cells cannot be correctly tested

AIRE like giving a test without having exam material to give

64
Q

What are the 7 immune privileged sites in the body?

A 
Eye
Brain
Adrenal Cortex
Hair follicles
Ovary
Pregnant Uterus
65
Q

Which of the following is the correct term that describes when the body is triggered by streptococcal infection and cross-reacts between the microbe and the cardiac myosin as seen in Rheumatic fever?

A. Polyclonal (bystander) activation
B. RElease of Sequestered Ags
C. Molecular Mimicry
D. All the above

A

Molecular Mimicry

Another example is in Multiple sclerosis where T cells react with myelin basic protein after exposure to Epstein-Barr virus, Influenze A, papillomavirus

66
Q

All of the following are Type IV hypersensitivity disorders, except which of the following that is a Type III hypersensitivity disorder?

A. Inflammatory Bowel Disease
B. Rheumatoid Arthritis
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

67
Q

Match the general mechanisms of Hypersensitivity to the correct Types:

  • Mediated by IgE, results from mediators secreted by mast cells
  • mediated by T cells, results from Th1, Th17, macrophages, killing of host cells by CD8 secreting inflammatory cytokines
  • mediated by antibodies that bind tissue Ags causing complement dependent tissue injury and disease
  • mediated by circulating Ag-Ab complexes that deposit in vessels causing comlpement dependent injury in vessels called Vasculitis
A

TYPE I: Mediated by IgE, results from mediators secreted by mast cells

TYPE IV: mediated by T cells, results from Th1, Th17, macrophages, killing of host cells by CD8 secreting inflammatory cytokines

TYPE II: mediated by antibodies that bind tissue Ags causing complement dependent tissue injury and disease

TYPE III: mediated by circulating Ag-Ab complexes that deposit in vessels causing comlpement dependent injury in vessels called Vasculitis

68
Q

What are all of the diseases associated with Type IV hypersensitivity as shown in class?

A 
Multiple Sclerosis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Type 1 Diabetes
Chron's disease
Chronic Infections like TB
Chronic sensitivity (poison ivy)

CT_SFM Block (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions