Quiz 1 Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which patient would require additional calories and nutrients?

a. A 36-year-old female gravida 2, para 1, in her first trimester of pregnancy
b. An 18-year-old female who delivered a 7-lb baby and is bottle feeding
c. A 23-year-old female who had a cesarean birth and is bottle feeding
d. A 20-year-old female who had a vaginal birth 5 months ago and is breastfeeding

A

d. A 20-year-old female who had a vaginal birth 5 months ago and is breastfeeding

A patient who is breastfeeding will require more calories and nutrients than women who are pregnant. The type of birth has no impact on nutrient intake. A patient who is bottle-feeding does not require additional calories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A nurse at a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. The client tells the nurse that she is upset because, although she and her husband planned this pregnancy, she has been having many doubts and second thoughts about the upcoming changes in her life. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

A. “Ambivalent feelings are quite common for women early in pregnancy.”
B. “Perhaps you should see a counselor to discuss these feelings further.”
C. “Have you spoken to your mother about these feelings?”
D. “Don’t worry. You’ll be fine once the baby is born.”

A

A. “Ambivalent feelings are quite common for women early in pregnancy.”

This response uses the therapeutic communication technique of providing information while addressing the client’s concerns and feelings. This statement is true and gives the client the information she needs; many antepartum women experience similar feelings in early pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is to have a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A. “I will have to lie on my back during the test.”
B. “My baby’s heart rate will be monitored during the test.”
C. “I should schedule the test when the baby is usually active.”
D. “It will take 20 to 30 minutes to complete the test.”

A

A. “I will have to lie on my back during the test.”

The client is placed in a Semi-Fowler’s position with one hip slightly elevated to promote uterine perfusion and prevent supine hypotension as a result of the uterus compressing the maternal vena cava.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define Positive Signs of Pregnancy, Give Manifestations:

A

Signs that can be only explained by pregnancy.
- Fetal Heart Rate.
- Visualization of fetus on Ultrasound.
- Palpation of fetus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A couple is undergoing genetic counseling and are very concerned about the possibility of having a child with a birth defect as a result of a strong family history on both sides of the family. Which statement made by the nurse is evidence of therapeutic communication?

A: “It is important to ask other members of your family for any information they can provide that will help obtain more insight into the health history.”
B: “Given what you have told me, there is little that anyone can do to improve outcomes.”
C: although you may feel that you have no options, I can’t really discuss these matters as only the physician can provide you with information.”
D: “Do you have all your forms filled out correctly? This will make the review easier to accomplish.

A

A: “It is important to ask other members of your family for any information they can provide that will help obtain more insight into the health history.”

Having as much information as possible will help analyze potential health outcomes. It also shows that the nurse is taking the patients’ concerns seriously. Telling the patients that there is little anyone can do does not provide any comfort or hope and is therefore self-defeating. Although the patients may have limited options based on their genetic and medical history, it is important to provide support and not defer all communication to the physician. The nurse must be able to provide support and counseling to patients. It is important to have completed forms, but asking patients about them does not address their psychological concerns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has a positive pregnancy test. The nurse is teaching the client about common discomforts in the first trimester of pregnancy as well as warning signs of potential danger. The nurse should instruct the client to call the clinic if she experiences which of the following manifestations?

A. Leukorrhea
B. Urinary frequency
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Facial edema

A

D. Facial edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

To determine cultural influences on a patient’s diet, what is the nurse’s primary action?

a. Evaluate the patient’s weight gain during pregnancy.
b. Assess the socioeconomic status of the patient.
c. Discuss the four food groups with the patient.
d. Identify the food preferences and methods of food preparation common to the patient’s culture.

A

d. Identify the food preferences and methods of food preparation common to the patient’s culture.

Understanding the patient’s food preferences and how she prepares food will assist the nurse in determining whether the patient’s culture is adversely affecting her nutritional intake. Evaluating a patient’s weight gain during pregnancy should be included for all patients, not just for those who are culturally different. The socioeconomic status of the patients may alter the nutritional intake, but not the cultural influence. Teaching the food groups to the patient should come after assessing food preferences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which advice to the patient is one of the most effective methods for preventing venous stasis?

A: sit with the legs crossed
B: rest often with the feet elevated
C: sleep with the foot of the bed elevated
D: wear elastic stockings in the afternoon

A

B: rest often with the feet elevated

Elevating the feet and legs improves venous return and prevents venous stasis. Sitting with the legs crossed will decrease circulation in the legs and increase venous stasis. Elevating the legs at night may cause pressure on the diaphragm and increase breathing problems. Elastic stockings should be applied before lowering the legs in the morning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A nurse is teaching about fetal development to a group of clients in the antenatal clinic. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. “The baby’s heart beat is audible by a Doppler stethoscope at 12 weeks of pregnancy.”
B. “The sex of the baby is determined by week 8 of pregnancy.”
C. “Very fine hairs, called lanugo, cover your baby’s entire body by week 36 of pregnancy.”
D. “You will first feel your baby move in week 24 of pregnancy.”

A

A. “The baby’s heart beat is audible by a Doppler stethoscope at 12 weeks of pregnancy.”

The fetal heartbeat is audible by Doppler stethoscope between 8 to 17 weeks of gestation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Be able to interpret the results of a nonstress test.

A

HR 120 bpm w/ minimal accel.
2 variable decels during fetal movement, lasting 20 sec each
Non-reactive test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The patient has just learned that she is pregnant and overhears the gynecologist saying that she has a positive Chadwick’s sign. When the patient asks the nurse what this means, how would the nurse respond?

A: “Chadwick’s sign signifies an increased risk of blood clots in pregnant women because of a congestion of blood.”
B: “That sign means the cervix has softened as the result of tissue changes that naturally occur with pregnancy.”
C: “This means that a mucus plug has formed in the cervical canal to help protect you from uterine infection.”
D: “This sign occurs normally in pregnancy, when estrogen causes increased blood flow in the area of the cervix.”

A

D: “This sign occurs normally in pregnancy, when estrogen causes increased blood flow in the area of the cervix.”

Increasing levels of estrogen cause hyperemia (congestion with blood) of the cervix, resulting in the characteristic bluish purple color that extends to include the vagina and labia. This discoloration, referred to as Chadwick’s sign, is one of the earliest signs of pregnancy. Although Chadwick’s sign occurs with hyperemia (congestion with blood), the sign does not signify an increased risk of blood clots. The softening of the cervix is called Goodell’s sign, not Chadwick’s sign. Although the formation of a mucus plug protects from infection, it is not called Chadwick’s sign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A nurse is providing teaching to a patient planning on becoming pregnant about the changes she should expect. Identify the sequence of maternal changes.
a) Goodell’s sign
b) lightening
c) quickening
d) amenorrhea

A

1) amenorrhea
2) Goodell’s sign
3) quickening
4) lightning

Amenorrhea is the absence of a period which occurs early in the first trimester. Goodell’s sign is the softening of the cervix occuring in the first trimester. Quickening is the mother feeling the baby move which first occurs in the 2nd trimester around 16-20 weeks. Lightning is the baby settling into the cavity around 38 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

People who have two copies of the same abnormal autosomal dominant gene will usually be

a. more severely affected by the disorder than will people with one copy of the gene.
b. infertile and unable to transmit the gene.
c. carriers of the trait but not affected with the disorder.
d. mildly affected with the disorder.

A

a.more severely affected by the disorder than will people with one copy of the gene.

People who have two copies of an abnormal gene are usually more severely affected by the disorder because they have no normal gene to maintain normal function. Infertility may or may not be caused by chromosomal defects. A carrier of a trait has one recessive gene. Those mildly affected with the disorder will have only one copy of the abnormal gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who is at 23 weeks of gestation and will return to the facility in 2 days for an amniocentesis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

A. Food and fluids should not be consumed the day of the procedure.
B. Complete a bowel prep protocol the day before the procedure.
C. Empty her bladder immediately prior to the procedure.
D. Wash her abdomen with soap and water the morning of the procedure.

A

C. Empty her bladder immediately prior to the procedure.

Rationale: Emptying the bladder before amniocentesis prevents possible puncture of the bladder and displacement of the uterus and fetus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During vital sign assessment of a pregnant patient in her third trimester, the patient complains of feeling faint, dizzy, and agitated. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

a. Have the patient stand up and retake her blood pressure.
b. Have the patient sit down and hold her arm in a dependent position.
c. Have the patient turn to her left side and recheck her blood pressure in 5 minutes.
d. Have the patient lie supine for 5 minutes and recheck her blood pressure on both arms.

A

d. Have the patient lie supine for 5 minutes and recheck her blood pressure on both arms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which statement best describes the changes that occur during the fetal period of development?

A. maturation of organ systems
B. development of basic organ systems
C. resistance of organs to damage from external agents
D. development of placental oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange

A

A. maturation of organ systems

During the fetal period, the body systems grow in size and mature in function to allow independent existence after birth. Basic organ systems are developed during the embryonic period. The organs are always at risk for damage from external sources; however, the older the fetus, the more resistant will be the organs. The greatest risk is when the organs are developing. The placental system is complete by week 12, but that is not the best description of the fetal period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A nurse is assessing a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy. The nurse should recognize which of the following findings as an expected physiologic during pregnancy?

A. Gradual lordosis
B. Increased abdominal muscle tone
C. Posterior neck flexion
D. Decreased mobility of pelvic joints

A

A. Gradual lordosis

Clients who are pregnant can develop a gradual, forward curving of the spine as the growth of the fetus pulls the pelvis forward. This lordosis resolves after delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A. “It’s a minor inconvenience, which you should ignore.”
B. “In most cases it only lasts until the 12th week, but it will continue if you have poor bladder tone.”
C. “There is no way to predict how long it will last in each individual client.”
D. “It occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy.”

A

D. “It occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Obstetric code for 5th pregnancy w 2 spontaneous abortions, on infant at 32 weeks gestation, and one at 38 weeks gestation.

A

G5 T1 P1 A2 L2

20
Q

A pregnant client relates a story of how her boyfriend is feeling her aches and pains associated with her pregnancy. She is concerned that her boyfriend is making fun of her concerns. How would you respond to this client statement?

a. Tell her not to worry because it is natural for her boyfriend to make her feel better by identifying with her pregnancy.
b. Refer the client to a psychologist for counseling to deal with this problem because it is clearly upsetting her.
c. Explain that her boyfriend may be experiencing couvade syndrome and that this is a normal finding seen with male partners.
d. Ask the client specifically to define her concerns related to her relationship with her boyfriend and suggest methods to stop this type of behavior by her significant other.

A

c. Explain that her boyfriend may be experiencing couvade syndrome and that this is a normal finding seen with male partners.

Provide factual information that will help reduce stress and modify acceptance. Telling her not to worry does not address the possibility that her boyfriend may be experiencing couvade syndrome. The client is expressing concern but does not have all the facts related to couvade syndrome and requires education, rather than referral. Couvade syndrome is not an abnormal condition and should be treated with acceptance and understanding.

21
Q

The nurse is explaining the function of the placenta to a pregnant patient. Which statement indicates to the nurse that further clarification is necessary?

A. “My baby gets oxygen from the placenta.”
B. “The placenta functions to help excrete waste products.”
C. “The nourishment that I take in passes through the placenta.”
D. “The placenta helps maintain a stable temperature for my baby.”

A

D. “The placenta helps maintain a stable temperature for my baby.”

Amniotic fluid and not the placenta helps with thermoregulation. The remaining statements are correct regarding placental function.

22
Q

Which suggestion is most helpful for the pregnant patient who is experiencing heartburn?

A. drink plenty of fluids at bedtime
B. eat only three meals a day so the stomach is empty between meals
C. drink coffee or orange juice immediately on arising in the morning
D. use Tums or Rolaids to obtain relief, as directed by the health care provider.

A

D. use Tums or Rolaids to obtain relief, as directed by the health care provider.

Antacids high in calcium (e.g., Tums, Rolaids) can provide temporary relief. Fluids overstretch the stomach and may precipitate reflux when lying down. Instruct the patient to eat five or six small meals per day rather than three full meals. Coffee and orange juice stimulate acid formation in the stomach and may need to be eliminated from the diet.

23
Q

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 12 weeks gestation. The client asks about the cause of her heartburn. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A. Retained bile in the liver results in delayed digestion.
B. Increased estrogen production causes increased secretion of hydrochloric acid.
C. Pressure from the growing uterus displaces the stomach.
D. Increased progesterone production causes decreased motility of smooth muscle.

A

D. Increased progesterone production causes decreased motility of smooth muscle.

24
Q

What is the rationale for a woman in her first trimester of pregnancy to expect to visit her health care provider every 4 weeks?

a. Problems can be eliminated.
b. She develops trust in the health care team.
c. Her questions about labor can be answered.
d. The conditions of the expectant mother and fetus can be monitored.

A

d. The conditions of the expectant mother and fetus can be monitored.

25
Q

Which of the following hormones is responsible for milk letdown during lactation?

a. Prolactin
b. Estrogen
c. Oxytocin
d. Human growth hormone

A

a. Prolactin

Rationale: prolactin is the hormone responsible for milk production after the birth of the placenta?

26
Q

A patient in her first trimester complains of nausea and vomiting. The patient asks, “Why is this happening?” What is the nurse’s best response?

a. “It is due to an increase in gastric motility.”
b. “It may be due to changes in hormones.”
c. “It is related to an increase in glucose levels.”
d. “It is caused by a decrease in gastric secretions.

A

b. “It may be due to changes in hormones.”

27
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy and asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A. “This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.”
B. “This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.”
C. “This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.”
D. “This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.”

A

C. “This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.”

28
Q

A patient presents with curly hair and blue eyes. These finding are consistent with:

A: phenotype
B: genotype
C: dominant alleles
D: recessive traits

A

A: phenotype

Curly hair is considered to be a dominant trait, whereas blue eyes are considered to be a recessive trait. Observation of characteristics is noted as phenotype. Genotype identifies the gents makeup of traits.

29
Q

A nurse is providing preconception counseling for a client who is planning a pregnancy. Which of the following supplements should the nurse recommend to help prevent neural tube defects in the fetus?

A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Vitamin C
D. Folic acid

A

D. Folic acid

30
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 18 weeks of gestation. The client tells the nurse that she felt fluttering movements in her abdomen 3 days ago. The nurse should interpret this finding as which of the following?

A. Ballottement
B. Lightening
C. Quickening
D. Chloasma

A

C. Quickening

31
Q

One of the assessments performed in the birth room is checking the umbilical cord for blood vessels. Which finding is considered to be within normal limits?

A. One artery and one vein
B. Two veins and one artery
C. Two arteries and one vein
D. Two arteries and two veins

A

C. Two arteries and one vein

The umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein to transport blood between the fetus and the placenta. Any option other than two arteries and one vein is considered abnormal and requires further assessment. Two veins and one artery is abnormal and may indicate an anomaly. Two arteries instead is a normal finding; this infant would require further assessment for anomalies due to the finding of two veins.

32
Q

A nurse in a prenatal clinic overhears a newly licensed nurse discussing conception with a client. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention by the nurse?

A. “Fertilization takes place in the outer third of the fallopian tube.”
B. “Implantation occurs between 2 to 3 weeks after conception.”
C. “Sperm remain viable in the woman’s reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days.”
D. “Bleeding or spotting can accompany implantation.”

A

B. “Implantation occurs between 2 to 3 weeks after conception.”

This statement requires clarification because implantation occurs between 6 to 10 days following conception.

33
Q

What does a birth plan help the parents accomplish?

a. Avoidance of an episiotomy
b. Determining the outcome of the birth
c. Assuming complete control of the situation
d. Taking an active part in planning the birth experience

A

d. Taking an active part in planning the birth experience

34
Q

A new mother asks the nurse about the “white substance” covering her infant. How should the nurse explain the purpose of vernix caseosa?

a. Vernix caseosa protects the fetal skin from the amniotic fluid.
b. Vernix caseosa promotes the normal development of the peripheral nervous system.
c. Vernix caseosa allows the transport of oxygen and nutrients across the amnion.
d. Vernix caseosa regulates fetal temperature.

A

a. Vernix caseosa protects the fetal skin from the amniotic fluid.

35
Q

What is the best explanation that the nurse can provide to a patient who is concerned that she has “pseudoanemia” of pregnancy?

a. Have her write down her concerns and tell her that you will ask the physician to respond once the lab results have been evaluated
b. Tell her that this is a benign self-limiting condition that can be easily corrected by switching to a high-iron diet.
c. Inform her that because of the pregnancy, her blood volume has increased, leading to a substantial dilution effect on her serum blood levels, and that most women experience this condition.
d. Contact the physician and get a prescription for iron pills to correct this condition.

A

c. Inform her that because of the pregnancy, her blood volume has increased, leading to a substantial dilution effect on her serum blood levels, and that most women experience this condition.

Providing factual information based on physiologic mechanisms is the best option. Although having the patient write down her concerns is reasonable, the nurse should not refer this conversation to the physician but rather address the patient’s specific concerns. Switching to a high-iron diet will not correct this condition. This physiologic pattern occurs during pregnancy as a result of hemodilution from excess blood volume. Iron medication is not indicated for correction of this condition. There is no need to contact the physician for a prescription.

36
Q

A pregnant woman notices that she is beginning to develop dark skin patches on her face. She denies using any different type of facial products as a cleansing solution or makeup. What would the priority nursing intervention be in response to this situation?

a. Refer the patient to a dermatologist for further examination.
b. Ask the patient if she has been eating different types of foods.
c. Take a culture swab and send to the lab for culture and sensitivity (C&S).
d. Let the patient know that this is a common finding that occurs during pregnancy.

A

d. Let the patient know that this is a common finding that occurs during pregnancy.

37
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The nurse would provide which explanation about this test to the client?

A. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus.
B. It looks for different types of diseases in the fetal cells.
C. This test identifies a Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
D. It assesses fetal lung maturity and lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio

A

1.It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus.

38
Q

Secondary sexual characteristic?

A

Female breast development

39
Q

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who believes that she might be pregnant because she feels the baby moving. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

A. “This is a presumptive sign of pregnancy.”
B. “This is a probable sign of pregnancy.”
C. “This is a possible sign of pregnancy.”
D. “This is a positive sign of pregnancy.”

A

A. “This is a presumptive sign of pregnancy.”

Presumptive signs of pregnancy include physical changes that are apparent to the client, such as quickening.

40
Q

A nurse is reviewing findings of a clients biophysical profile. The nurse should expect which of the following variables to be included in the (select all that apply)?

A. Fetal weight
B. Fetal breathing movement
C. Fetal tone
D. Fetal position
E. Amniotic fluid volume

A

B. Fetal breathing movement
C. Fetal tone
E. Amniotic fluid volume

41
Q

A nurse is providing education to a client during the first prenatal visit. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse a need for clarification?

A. “I should drink about 2 liters of fluid each day.”
B. “It is okay for me to eat cold cuts so long as they are heated until steaming hot just before serving.”
C. “I can have a moderate amount of caffeine daily.”
D. “I should increase my calcium intake to 1,500 milligrams per day”

A

D. “I should increase my calcium intake to 1,500 milligrams per day”

42
Q

A nurse is providing teaching about expected gestational changes to a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A. I will reduce my stress level
B. I will tell my doctor before using home remedies for nausea
C. I will monitor my weight gain during the remaining months
D. I will use only nonprescription medication while pregnant

A

D. I will use only nonprescription medication while pregnant

Both nonprescription and prescription medications can be harmful to the fetus. The client needs to understand the importance of disclosing all medications, supplements, and vitamins to the provider period to use during pregnancy

43
Q

A nurse is caring for a client at the first prenatal visit who has a BMI of 26.5. The client asks how much weight she should gain during pregnancy. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A. “It would be best if you gained about 11 to 20 pounds.”
B. “The recommendation for you is about 15 to 25 pounds.”
C. “A gain of about 25 to 35 pounds is recommended for you.”
D. “A gain of about 1 pound per week is the best pattern for you.”

A

B. “The recommendation for you is about 15 to 25 pounds.”

44
Q

A patient, gravida 2, para 1, comes for a prenatal visit at 20 weeks of gestation. Her funds is palpated 3 cm below the umbilicus. This finding is:

A: appropriate for gestational age
B: a sign of impending complications
C: lower than normal for gestational age
D: higher than normal for gestational age

A

C: lower than normal for gestational age

By 20 weeks, the fundus should reach the umbilicus. The fundus should be at the umbilicus at 20 weeks, so 3 cm below the umbilicus is an inappropriate height and needs further
assessment. This is lower than expected at this date. It may be a complication, but it may also be because of incorrect dating of the pregnancy.

45
Q

A nurse is caring for an antepartum client whose laboratory findings indicate a negative rubella titer. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?

A. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time.
B. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time.
C. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery.
D. The client is immune to the rubella virus.

A

C. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery.

The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery. This is correct because a negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella and should receive the vaccine postpartum to prevent future infection.

46
Q

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks gestation and undergoing a contraction stress test. The test results are negative. Which of the following interpretations of this finding should the nurse make?

A. There is no evidence of cervical incompetence.
B. There is no evidence of two or more accelerations in fetal heart rate in 20 min.
C. There is no evidence of uteroplacental insufficiency.
D. There are less than 3 uterine contractions in a 10 min period.

A

C. There is no evidence of uteroplacental insufficiency.

A contraction stress test determines how well the fetus tolerates the stress of uterine contractions. A test is negative when there are at least 3 uterine contractions in a 10-min period with no late or significant variable decelerations during electronic fetal monitoring. Uteroplacental insufficiency produces late decelerations.

This result suggests that the fetus is responding well to contractions, which typically implies adequate oxygenation and a functioning placenta.