Final Exam

Question 1

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is reviewing the record of a client at 28 weeks of gestation. The woman’s history reveals one pregnancy, terminated by elective abortion at 9 weeks; the birth of twins at 36 weeks; and a spontaneous abortion at 15 weeks. According to the GTPAL system, which of the following describes her present parity?
A. 4-0-1-2-2
B. 3-0-2-2-2
C. 4-0-0-2-2
D. 3-2-0-2-2

Answer 1

A. 4-0-1-2-2

Question 2

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor. The nurse observes late decelerations on the monitor strip and interprets them as indicating which of the following?
a. Uteroplacental insufficiency
b. Maternal bradycardia
c. Umbilical cord compression
d. Fetal head compression

Answer 2

a. Uteroplacental insufficiency

Question 3

A nurse is caring for a client during a nonstress test (NST). At the end of a 30-min period of observation, the nurse notes the following findings: The fetal heart rate baseline is 120/min with minimal variability and no accelerations. There are two decelerations of 15/min in the fetal heart rate during a period of fetal movement, each lasting 20 seconds. Which of the following interpretations of these findings should the nurse make?
A. negative test
B. A nonreactive test
C A positive test
D. A reactive test

Answer 3

B. A nonreactive test

Question 4

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is to have a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
“My baby’s heart rate will be monitored during the test.”
“I should schedule the test when the baby is usually active.”
“It will take 20 to 30 minutes to complete the test.”
“I will have to lie on my back during the test.”

Answer 4

“I will have to lie on my back during the test.”

Question 5

Which pulmonary surfactant ratio confirms the maturity of the infant’s lungs?
When the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin is 3:1
When the ratio of sphingomyelin to lecithin is 1:1
When the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin is 2:1
When the ratio of sphingomyelin to lecithin is 2:1

Answer 5

When the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin is 2:1

Question 6

A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hr postpartum. The client if Rh-negative and her newborn is Rh-positive. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered by the provider. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
“It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.”
“It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn’s blood.”
“It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother’s blood.”
“It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn’s blood.”

Answer 6

“It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother’s blood.”

Question 7

A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The nurse provides which of the following explanations about this test to the client?
A. This test assesses fetal lung maturity.
B. It assesses various markers of fetal well-being.
C. This test identifies an Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
D. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus

Answer 7

D. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus

Question 8

Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
A. Multiple-marker screening
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
C. Biophysical profile
D. Type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum

Answer 8

A. Multiple-marker screening

Question 9

A nurse is teaching a client who is at 23 weeks of gestation about immunizations. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. “you should not receive the rubella vaccine while breastfeeding.”
b. “you should receive a varicella vaccine before you deliver.”
c. “You can receive an influenza vaccination during pregnancy.”
d. “You cannot receive Tdap vaccine until after your delivery.”

Answer 9

c. “You can receive an influenza vaccination during pregnancy.”

Question 10

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor. The nurse locates the fetal heart tones above the client’s umbilicus at midline. The nurse should suspect that the fetus is in which of the following positions?
A) cephalic
B) transverse
C) posterior
D) frank breech

Answer 10

D) frank breech

Question 11

A nurse is assessing a client who is pregnant for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
a) Increased urine output
b) Vaginal discharge
c) Elevated blood pressure
d) Joint pain

Answer 11

c) Elevated blood pressure

Question 12

A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vacuum-assisted delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Poor sucking
b. Blue coloring of the hands and feet
c. Soft, edematous area on the scalp
d. Facial edema

Answer 12

a. Poor sucking

Question 13

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about newborn care with a client who is 2 hours postpartum. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
a. “I should keep my baby’s head covered.”
b. “My baby’s temperature will be checked rectally every hour.”
c. “I will place my baby on my stomach and cover her with a warm blanket.
d. “My baby’s bassinet should be kept away from fans and air conditioning.

Answer 13

b. “My baby’s temperature will be checked rectally every hour.”

Question 14

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is at 7 weeks of gestation. The client reports urinary frequency and asks if this will continue until delivery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. “It’s a minor inconvenience, which you should ignore.”
B. “In most cases it only lasts until the 12th week, but it will continue if you have poor bladder tone.”
C. “There is no way to predict how long it will last in each individual client.”
D. “It occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy.”

Answer 14

D. “It occurs during the first trimester and near the end of the pregnancy.”

Question 15

A nurse is admitting a client who is at 36 weeks gestation and has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse should recognize this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?
a. Abruptio placentae
b. Placenta previa
c. Precipitous labor
d. Threatened abortion

Answer 15

b. Placenta previa

Question 16

A nurse in a provider’s office is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and at risk for placental abruption. The nurse should recognize that which of the following is the most common risk factor for abruption?

A. Cocaine use
B. Hypertension
C. Blunt force trauma
D. Cigarette smoking

Answer 16

B. Hypertension

Question 17

A nurse is providing education about the diaphragm to a patient. Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of a diaphragm?
A. History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS)
B. History of uterine fibroids
C. History of irregular menstrual periods
D. History of breast cancer

Answer 17

A. History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

Question 18

A nurse is leading a discussion regarding options for birth control. Which of the following methods is considered the most reliable?
a. Coitus interruptus
b. Breastfeeding
c. Natural family planning
d. Intrauterine device

Answer 18

d. Intrauterine device

Question 19

A nurse is reviewing a basal body temperature chart with a couple. Which change would indicate probable ovulation?
a) A decrease in temperature followed by an increase for several days
b) An increase in temperature followed by a decrease for several days
c) A decrease in temperature that remains until menses begins
d) A steadily increasing temperature over seven days

Answer 19

a) A decrease in temperature followed by an increase for several days

Question 20

A 23-year-old nulliparous client visiting the clinic for a routine examination tells the nurse that she desires to use the basal body temperature method for family planning. The nurse should instruct the client to do which of the following?
A. Check the cervical mucus to see if it is thick and sparse.
B. Take her temperature at the same time every morning.
C. Document ovulation when the temperature decreases at least 1°F.
D. Avoid coitus for 10 days after a slight rise in temperature.

Answer 20

B. Take her temperature at the same time every morning.

Question 21

A nurse is teaching a group of teenage clients about the use of condoms for the prevention of STIs. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. use a natural membrane condom rather than polyurethane
B. you may use a condom more than once
C. use an oil-based lubricant when you use a condom
D. female condoms can help prevent transmission of sexually transmitted viruses

Answer 21

D. female condoms can help prevent transmission of sexually transmitted viruses

Question 22

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?
Peanut butter
Potatoes
Apple juice
Broccoli

Answer 22

Peanut butter

Question 23

Semen analysis is a common diagnostic procedure related to infertility. In instructing a male patient regarding this test, the nurse would tell him to:
a) ejaculate into a sterile container.
b) obtain the specimen after a period of abstinence from ejaculation of 2 to 5 days.
c) transport specimen with container packed in ice.
d) ensure that the specimen arrives at the laboratory within 30 minutes of ejaculation.

Answer 23

b) obtain the specimen after a period of abstinence from ejaculation of 2 to 5 days.

Question 24

Laura and Miguel were relieved that the process of having a baby went so smoothly. So they were surprised when Laura had significant difficulties becoming pregnant when they wanted to have another baby.

Which term best describes the problem Laura and Miguel are experiencing?

a. sequential infertility
b. postpartum infertility
c. secondary infertility
d. cyclic infertility

Answer 24

c. secondary infertility

Question 25

A nurse is caring for a client who has a suspected ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks of gestation. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect to identify as consistent with the diagnosis?
A.Uterine enlargement greater than expected for gestational age
B. Unilateral, cramp like abdominal pain
C. Severe nausea and vomiting
D. Large amount of vaginal bleeding

Answer 25

B. Unilateral, cramp like abdominal pain

Question 26

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states that she missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because she has an intrauterine device. The nurse should suspect which of the following?

A: Missed abortion
B: Ectopic pregnancy
C: Severe preclampsia
D: Hydatidiform mole

Answer 26

B: Ectopic pregnancy

Question 27

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is suspected of having a hydatidiform mole. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to observe in this client?
A)Rapid decline in human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels
B)Profuse, clear vaginal discharge
C)Irregular fetal heart rate
D)Excessive uterine enlargement

Answer 27

D)Excessive uterine enlargement

Question 28

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is teaching a client who has a new prescription for dinoprostone gel. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. “This medication promotes softening of the cervix.”
B. “This medication is used to treat preeclampsia.”
C. “It causes relaxation of the uterine muscles.”
D. “It is used to treat genital herpes simplex virus.”

Answer 28

A. “This medication promotes softening of the cervix.”

Question 29

A nurse on a labor unit is caring for a patient who just received an epidural. The nurse determines that the contractions have a duration of 1 min and a frequency of 3 min. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: fetal heart rate 130/min, maternal heart rate 128/min and maternal blood pressure 92/54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse to take?
A) Notify the provider of the findings.
B) Position the client on her side.
C) Ask the client if she is still in pain.
D) Have the client void.

Answer 29

B) Position the client on her side.

Question 30

A nurse is providing teaching about comfort measures for breast engorgement to a client who is postpartum and is breastfeeding. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. I will breastfeed every 2 hours
B. I will apply ice packs to my breasts after feeding
C. i should apply hot packs to my breasts during feedings
D. i should crush cabbage leaves and place them on my breasts

Answer 30

C. i should apply hot packs to my breasts during feedings

Question 31

In which condition is breastfeeding contraindicated?
a. Triplet birth
b. Flat or inverted nipples
c. Human immunodeficiency virus infection
d. Inactive, previously treated tuberculosis

Answer 31

c. Human immunodeficiency virus infection

Question 32

Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth?
a. Fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination.
b. Bloody mucous discharge increases.
c. Vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head.
d. Membranes rupture during a contraction.

Answer 32

c. Vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head.

Question 33

Which factor is most likely to result in fetal hypoxia during a dysfunctional labor?
a. Incomplete uterine relaxation
b. Maternal fatigue and exhaustion
c. Maternal sedation with narcotics
d. Administration of tocolytic drugs

Answer 33

a. Incomplete uterine relaxation

Question 34

A nurse in a community clinic is counseling a client who received a positive test result for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?
A. “This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.”
B. “If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed.”
C. “You have to avoid sexual relations for 3 days.”
D. “You need to return in 6 months for retesting”

Answer 34

A. “This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.”

Question 35

A nurse is speaking with a 35-year-old client who has fibrocystic disease of the breasts. At which of the following times should the nurse inform the client that manifestations are most evident?
a) Before menstruation begins
b) After menstruation ends
c) During cold weather
d) During hot weather

Answer 35

a) Before menstruation begins

Manifestations include: painful breasts, smooth moveable lumps, and possible swelling of breasts

Question 36

A nurse in a clinic is interviewing a client who has a possible diagnosis of endometriosis. Which of the following findings in the client’s history should the nurse recognize as consistent with a diagnosis of endometriosis?
a)A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
b)Abdominal bloating starting several days before menses.
c)An atypical Papanicolaou smear at her last clinic visit.
d)Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to NSAIDs.

Answer 36

d)Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to NSAIDs.

Dysmenorrhea means painful period, or menstrual cramps

Question 37

A nurse is caring for a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy and asks the nurse if she can continue to exercise during pregnancy. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
A. “Exercising during pregnancy is not recommended.”
B. “Daily jogging for up to 30 minutes is fine throughout the pregnancy.”
C. “Activities that raise the body temperature, such as saunas and hot tubs, are safe until the third trimester.”
D. “It is recommended that pregnant clients limit their exercise routine to stretching activities on a mat several times a week.”

Answer 37

B. “Daily jogging for up to 30 minutes is fine throughout the pregnancy.”

Question 38

A nurse is caring for a new mother who is concerned that her infant’s eyes cross. Which of the following statements is a therapeutic response by the nurse?
a)”I will call your primary care provider and report your concerns”
b)”I’ll bring your baby back to the nursery for an examination”
c)”This is normal because newborns lack the muscle control necessary to regulate eye movement”
d)”This is a cause for concern, but in most cases strabismus can be easily treated with patching”

Answer 38

c)”This is normal because newborns lack the muscle control necessary to regulate eye movement”

Question 39

A nurse is assessing a client for postpartum infection. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for endometritis?
a) Moderate amount of dark red lochia with a bloody odor
b) A localized area of breast tenderness
c) Pelvic pain
d) Hematuria

Answer 39

c) Pelvic pain

Question 40

A nurse is caring for a middle adult female client who reports that her menstrual periods have become irregular, and she has been having hot flashes. The nurse should expect the client to have which of the following manifestations associated with early menopause?
A. Urinary retention
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Dryness with intercourse
D. Elevation in body temperature above (100F)

Answer 40

C. Dryness with intercourse

Question 41

What are the clinical manifestations of​ menopause? (Select all that ​apply.)
Vaginal dryness
Headaches
Cold intolerance
Thinning hair
Hot flashes

Answer 41

Vaginal dryness
Headaches
Thinning hair
Hot flashes

Question 42

NGN (bowtie) Hypoglycemic newborn presentation: hypotonia, decreased temperature, and jitteriness
Condition: hypoglycemia
Actions: warmer & heel stick
Monitor: temperature & seizures

Question 43

NGN (SATA) preterm labor
Meds: betamethasone, magnesium sulfate (neuro protection), terbutaline (stops contractions, can cause maternal palpitations), indomethacin (relaxes smooth muscle)
Before 37 weeks, cervical change or rupture of membranes (admin antibiotics)

Question 44

NGN (dropdown fill in the blank question) if a mom goes into preterm labor when her water breaks what are some things she is going to experience and going to be at risk for
Risk for infection due to prolonged rupture of the membrane - chorioamnionitis (malodorous, vaginal leakage)

Question 45

NGN (bowtie) S/S of UTI, pyelonephritis, and sepsis
Condition: pyelonephritis
Actions: assess for symptoms of sepsis & administer cefazolin
Monitor: urine output & uterine contractions

Question 46

NGN Pt has HSV2, can deliver vaginally if there are no lesions, if lesions are present c-section - take acyclovir

Question 47

NGN preterm labor vs UTI
Vaginal exam
Pain
Vaginal discharge
Temperature

Answer 47

Preterm labor: vaginal exam, pain, vaginal discharge
UTI: pain, temperature

Question 48

A nurse is reviewing contraception options for four clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following clients has a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives.

A. A 26-year-old client who has migraine headaches at the start of each menstrual cycle
B. A 28-year-old client who has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease
C. A 32-year-old client who has benign breast disease
D. A 38-year-old client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes every day

Answer 48

D. A 38-year-old client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes every day

Question 49

A nurse is caring for a newborn delivered by vaginal birth with a vacuum assist. The newborn’s mother asks about the swollen area on her son’s head. After palpation to identify that the swelling crosses the suture line, which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

“A caput succedaneum occurs due to compression of blood vessels.”
“Mongolian spots can be found on the skin of many newborns.”
“This is a cephalhematoma, which can occur spontaneously.”
“This is erythema toxicum, which is a transient condition.”

Answer 49

“A caput succedaneum occurs due to compression of blood vessels.”

Question 50

The breastfeeding client should be taught a safe method to remove her breast from the baby’s mouth. Which suggestion by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Break the suction by inserting your finger into the corner of the infant’s mouth.
b. A popping sound occurs when the breast is correctly removed from the infant’s mouth.
c. Slowly remove the breast from the baby’s mouth when the infant has fallen asleep and the jaws are relaxed.
d. Elicit the Moro reflex in the baby to wake the baby up, and remove the breast when the baby cries.

Answer 50

a. Break the suction by inserting your finger into the corner of the infant’s mouth.

Question 51

The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant client who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to:

a. monitor uterine contractions.
b. assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs.
c. place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage.
d. perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

Answer 51

b. assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs.

Question 52

What are the main side effects for terbutaline?

Answer 52

• *Tachycardia. Also jitters/shakes and palpitations.

Question 53

What is the main side effect of Methergine?

Answer 53

• Hypertension
• Side note: Careful with hemabate too which causes
  hypertension and explosive diarrhea.

Question 54

What is the reason we give Rhogam?

Answer 54

• For Rh incompatibility. Given to Rh negative mom with Rh
  positive baby to prevent antibody formation.

Question 55

The nurse assesses a patient that delivered, and it’s been under a day, where should the fundus be palpated?

Answer 55

• At umbilicus

Question 56

As the nurse, you assess a patient that’s grand multiparity. Upon palpation of the fundus, you find it is shifted to the right. What are you thinking?

Answer 56

• They have a full bladder. They need to urinate.

Question 57

What are some nursing interventions to do for a myelomeningocele?

Answer 57

• Put the patient prone. Cover it with a non-adhering sterile gauze that’s moist with saline. Measure head circumference to check for hydrocephalus. Hydrocephalus will show if the sac is leaking.
• Side note: The priority is to prevent rupture and breaking of sac.

Question 58

A patient is crowning and ready to deliver, what are some movements to help deliver the baby?

Answer 58

• Flex legs back and bring knees back
• If the head is delivered and body is stuck. Do McRoberts
  maneuver and prepare to apply suprapubic pressure.
• After delivery check clavicles and upper extremities for
  injury

Question 59

You’re discharging someone with mild preeclampsia near term, what do you teach them?

Answer 59

• Teach about Nutrition: low sodium diet, and drink a lot of water at least 48-64 oz daily

Question 60

A mom says, “my baby keeps crossing their eyes or one eye keeps moving a lot.” What do you say?

Answer 60

• This is called Strabismus which goes away and is normal due to their lack of muscle control in the eyes

Question 61

A patient that delivered a couple hours ago soaked 10 perineal pads and looks pale. What do you do first?

Answer 61

• Massage the fundus

Question 62

You’re starting a patient on magnesium sulfate, what is the normal loading dose?

Answer 62

• 4g, maintenance dose is 2g
• monitor RR, DTRs, BP every 15-30mins, check I&Os, don’t
  lie supine, lie on side

Question 63

NGN? A patient comes in and you suspect they have genital herpes. What drug do you use to treat?

Answer 63

• Acyclovir
• There could be lesions on genitals and into perineum and
  rectal area, but no fever

Question 64

A patient that’s third trimester comes in, you take vitals and she says she feels faint and dizzy what do you do?

Answer 64

• Sit her down if standing or get her off of her back if laying down and retake BP.

Question 65

A patient is coming in for chorionic villus sampling, what do we need to watch for?

Answer 65

• check blood Rh. Give Rhogam to any patient who is Rh negative
• can also assess for rupture of membranes, signs of bleeding or infection

Question 66

You’re Triaging with four couplets today, which do you see first?
A. A patient getting ready to go home after tubal ligation
B. A client with a blood pressure of 138/80
C. A patient that had her baby 24hrs ago with limiting bleeding
D. A patient that had a C-section 4hrs ago and is in excruciating pain

Answer 66

D. A patient that had a C-section 4hrs ago and is in excruciating pain

Question 67

The doctor wants to rupture the patient at minus 3 station. What do you do?

Answer 67

• Have them hold off and not do it because baby is way too high and ballotable so they will most likely have a cord prolapse
• In the case that they insist. Make sure the OR is ready

Question 68

A multiple gestation patient is coming in with their third baby. What are the most important things to check on this patient?

Answer 68

• She will most likely deliver fast so check vitals on mom and assess fetal HR, and perform a cervical exam to see the baby’s progress

Question 69

You are monitoring a baby and their temperature is 97 degrees Fahrenheit, what are we thinking?

Answer 69

• Cold stress (causes hypoglycemia, hypothermia, Respiratory distress)
• Monitor blood sugars and for respiratory distress seen by
  nasal flaring or substernal retractions

Question 70

How often do we expect an infant to breastfeed in the first 24hours?

Answer 70

• Every 2-4hrs for at least 15-20mins
• today its cluster feeding on demand, but if a baby hasn’t fed
  in 6hrs there’s a big problem. So it’s a mixture of both.

Question 71

NGN: A client comes into the clinic, what are some signs that they have Diabetes Mellitus?

Answer 71

• Frequency urinating, high sugars and ketones in the urine, increased thirst, hyperglycemia
• Check BG, check urine, Draw HbA1c

Question 72

When you have a patient who is undergoing an induction of labor, when do you stop the Pitocin?

Answer 72

• When contractions are 1.5-2mins apart and last 90secs and the fundus is firm to palpation. Turn off Pitocin.

Question 73

What is a contraction stress test for?

Answer 73

• To see how the baby is tolerating contractions, which can show us any uteroplacental insufficiency
• We want to see a negative result

Question 74

What is an early deceleration?

Answer 74

• It is a good sign. It starts and ends with the contraction aka
  mirrors it and occurs from head compression

Question 75

What is the number one sign that methergine is working?

Answer 75

A firm fundus

Question 76

You’re educating an older person at risk of osteoporosis. What can we tell them to do to prevent this?

Answer 76

• Weight bearing exercise, walking, calcium

Question 77

A patient delivered via c -section and got spinal anesthesia. What do we need to watch out for?

Answer 77

• Watch respirations on baby

Question 78

At one day postpartum where do we expect to find the fundus?

Answer 78

• 1cm below umbilicus

Question 79

You’re on the antepartum unit, what patient will you see first? - A patient who is term with cough and fever
- A patient who is early in their pregnancy with nausea and
vomiting
- A patient who could be pregnant and has vaginal spotting -
A preterm patient with painless vaginal bleeding

Answer 79

A preterm patient with painless vaginal bleeding?

Question 80

A patient is within 12hrs of delivery. Upon assessment we find that the fundus is at umbilicus and is firm, the episiotomy site looks goods, she’s saturating a pad every 30 mins, DTR is 4+. What should you treat first?

Answer 80

• The DTRs.

This could mean blood pressure issues due to preeclampsia. They are at risk for hemorrhage. The pads aren’t good either but treat blood pressure first because the fundus is firm and we don’t want them to start having a seizure

Question 81

What is the first thing to do for a baby with spina bifida?

Answer 81

• Place them prone

Question 82

How much of the nipple should go in the baby’s mouth when breastfeeding?

Answer 82

• The whole nipple and part of the areola

Question 83

What is one medication that can interfere with oral contraception?

Answer 83

• Anticonvulsants and antibiotics

Question 84

What is the number one thing to do to prevent TSS?

Answer 84

• Proper hygiene, remember to take it out, don’t use super
  absorbent tampons because they’re in for longer

Question 85

What is reflex when you touch the infant’s cheek and they turn their head and open their mouth?

Answer 85

• Rooting

Question 86

A teenager with PID comes into the clinic and needs medication but is afraid to tell her parents because they think she’s a virgin. How does the nurse respond?

Answer 86

• Let’s talk about that. Say anything that encourages open communication.

Question 87

A nurse is admitting a client who has a diagnosis of preterm labor. The nurse anticipates a prescription by the provider for which of the following medications? (Select all that apply).
A. Prostaglandin E2
B. Indomethacin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Methylergonovine
E. Oxytocin

Answer 87

B. Indomethacin
Indomethacin is correct. Indomethacin is used to relax uterine smooth muscles and suppress uterine activity in clients who have a diagnosis of preterm labor.

C. Magnesium sulfate
Magnesium sulfate is correct. Magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic and stops contractions in clients experiencing preterm labor.