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Foundations of PT 2 > Quiz 1: Lecture 1-8 + Labs > Flashcards

Quiz 1: Lecture 1-8 + Labs Flashcards

1
Q

What is cranial nerve I? How do you test it?

A

Olfactory n.

Function: Smell

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2
Q

What is cranial nerve II? How do you test it?

A

Optic

Function: Vision

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3
Q

What is cranial nerve III? How do you test it?

A

Oculomotor n.

Function: Eye movements

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4
Q

What is cranial nerve IV? How do you test it?

A

Trochlear n.

Function: Eye movements

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5
Q

What is cranial nerve V? How do you test it?

A

Trigeminal n.

Sensation of face, muscles of mastication

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6
Q

What is cranial nerve VI? How do you test it?

A

Abducens n.

Function: Eye movements

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7
Q

What is cranial nerve VII? How do you test it?

A

Facial n.

Function: Facial expressions, taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue

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8
Q

What is cranial nerve VIII? How do you test it?

A

Vestibulocochlear n.

Function: Hearing and Balance

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9
Q

What is cranial nerve IX? How do you test it?

A

Glossopharyngeal n.

Function: Sensation to posterior 1/3 of tongue

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10
Q

What is cranial nerve X? How do you test it?

A

Vagus n.

Function: Phonation (speech), swallowing

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11
Q

What is cranial nerve XI? How do you test it?

A

Spinal Accessory n.

Function: Motor innervation to trapezius and SCM

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12
Q

What is cranial nerve XII? How do you test it?

A

Hypoglossal n.

Function: Tongue movement

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13
Q

What are the elements of patient client management?

A
  • Examination
  • Eval
  • Diagnosis
  • Prognosis
  • Intervention
  • Outcomes
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14
Q

4 avenues for PT decision making?

A
  • Refer out
  • Consult
  • Co-manage
  • Retain
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15
Q

What is the time frame for short term goal? long term goal?

A

STG: <4 weeks
LTG: >4 weeks

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16
Q

Differentiate between activity and participation in the ICF model

A

Activity: Activities of Daily Living… (ex: brushing teeth, combing hair, getting dressed, walking)

Participation: Extracurriculars… (ex: attending grandson’s football game, etc.)

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17
Q

What does the EXAMINATION part of patient management consist of?

A
  • Objective info + History
  • Tests and Measures
  • Systems review (cardiovascular, pulmonary, neuro, musculoskeletal)
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18
Q

What does the EVALUATION part of patient management consist of?

A
  • Measures the patient’s response to the test and measures
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19
Q

SMART stands for…

A

Specific, Measurable, Accurate, Realistic, Timely

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20
Q

What are the 5 subcategories of the ICF Model?

A
  • Body function + structure
  • Activity
  • Participation
  • Environmental factors
  • Personal factors
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21
Q

Describe the L2 Myotome

A

Hip Flexion

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22
Q

Describe the L3 Myotome

A

Knee Extension

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23
Q

Describe the L4 Myotome

A

Ankle Dorsiflexion

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24
Q

Describe the L5 Myotome

A

Big toe extension

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25
Q

Describe the S1 Myotome

A

Ankle Plantarflexion

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26
Q

Describe the L2 Dermatome

A

Medial Thigh sensation

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27
Q

Describe the L3 Dermatome

A

Medial Knee sensation

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28
Q

Describe the L4 Dermatome

A

Medial/Anterior lower leg, medial foot, medial great toe sensation

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29
Q

Describe the L5 Dermatome

A

Lateral Calf, Webspace between toe 1 and 2

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30
Q

Describe the S1 Dermatome

A

Lateral Foot

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31
Q

The quad reflex (knee jerk) corresponds with which nerve root?

A

L3-4

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32
Q

The achilles reflex (ankle jerk) corresponds with which nerve root?

A

S1-2

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33
Q

Describe the C4 Myotome

A

Shoulder shrug/elevation (upper traps, levator scap)

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34
Q

Describe the C5 Myotome

A

Shoulder abduction @90 (deltoids)

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35
Q

Describe the C6 Myotome

A

Elbow flexion + Wrist extension (biceps brachii, brachioradialis, wrist extensor muscles)

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36
Q

Describe the C7 Myotome

A

Elbow extension + Wrist flexion (triceps and wrist flexors)

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37
Q

Describe the C8 Myotome

A

Finger flexion (FDS, FDP, FPL, Lumbricals)

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38
Q

Describe the T1 Myotome

A

Finger abduction (dorsal interossei muscles)

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39
Q

Describe the C4 Dermatome

A

Upper trap sensation

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40
Q

Describe the C5 Dermatome

A

Lateral upper arm sensation

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41
Q

Describe the C6 Dermatome

A

Lateral lower arm + lateral thumb sensation

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42
Q

Describe the C7 Dermatome

A

Middle finger (top and bottom) sensation

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43
Q

Describe the C8 Dermatome

A

Ring finger, medial lower arm (forearm) sensation

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44
Q

Describe the T1 Dermatome

A

Middle upper arm sensation

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45
Q

Describe the T2 Dermatome

A

Underneath armpit sensation

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46
Q

Which nerve root corresponds with the biceps tendon reflex?

A

C5-6

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47
Q

Which nerve root corresponds with the brachioradialis tendon reflex?

A

C6

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48
Q

Which nerve root corresponds with the triceps tendon?

A

C6-7

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49
Q

What are the categories of a PT diagnosis?

A
  • Musculoskeletal
  • Cardiopulmonary
  • Neuromuscular
  • Integumentary
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50
Q

What are some examples of a PT diagnosis?

A
  • Gait abnormality
  • Decreased aerobic capacity
  • Abnormal posture
  • Muscle weakness
  • Neck pain with mobility defecits
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51
Q

Differentiate between a sign and symptom

A

Sign: Observable findings detected upon exam (objective)
(ex: vomiting or elevated BP)

Symptom: Reported perceptions of the client (subjective)
(ex: feeling nauseous)

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52
Q

What are constitutional symptoms?

A

Symptoms that tend to impact the entire body

ex: fever, diahhrea, fatigue, dizziness

53
Q

What is a red flag? provide examples

A

“warning”

Features of a clinical exam that are associated with a high risk of serious disorders
(ex: infection, inflammation, cancer, fracture)

54
Q

What is a yellow flag? provide examples

A

“caution”

signals the clinician to slow the process down

55
Q

What is a CLINICAL YELLOW flag (different from normal yellow flags)?

A

Psychological distress

56
Q

When should you screen for systemic disease (potential red flags)?

A

> 40 years old, history of cancer, recent trauma or infection, prescence of bilateral symptoms

57
Q

T or F? Having one red flag means you must stop treatment immediately

A

False, having one red flag is not the end of the world

58
Q

List the sensitivity of tissue from most to least sensitive

A
  • Periosteum
  • Joint Capsule
  • Subchondral bone
  • Tendons and Ligaments
  • Muscle
  • Cortical bone
  • Synovium
  • Articular cartilage
59
Q

What are the 3 categories of neurophysiological pain?

A
  • Nociceptive
  • Peripheral neuropathic
  • Nociplastic
60
Q

What is nociceptive pain?❗️❗️

A

Pain resulting from the activation of nociceptors in response to actual or potential tissue damage

(ex: cut, burn, etc.)

61
Q

What is nociceptive pain?❗️❗️

A

Pain resulting from the activation of nociceptors in response to actual or potential tissue damage

(ex: cut, burn, etc.)

62
Q

What is peripheral neuropathic pain?❗️❗️

A

Pain that is caused by damage or dysfunction in the PNS

(ex: diabetes, nerve injury, shingles)

63
Q

What is nociplastic pain?❗️❗️

A

Pain that arises from altered nociceptive function without clear evidence of actual tissue damage… can sometimes lead to chronic pain

Also known as “central sensitization”

(ex: fibromyalgia, chronic fatigue syndrome)

64
Q

What is peripheral neuropathic pain?

A

Pain that is caused by damage or dysfunction in the PNS

(ex: diabetes, nerve injury, shingles)

65
Q

What is nociplastic pain?

A

Pain that arises from altered nociceptive function without clear evidence of actual tissue damage… can sometimes lead to chronic pain

(ex: fibromyalgia, chronic fatigue syndrome)

66
Q

What are A delta fibers?

A

Responsible for fast, sharp, and localized pain transmission (Myelinated)

(ex: touching a hot stove)

67
Q

What are C fibers?

A

Responsible for slow pain transmission (Unmyelinated)

(ex: the pain following the initial stimulus from touching a hot stove)

68
Q

What is acute pain?

A

Short term pain that often comes as a response to injury or illness

69
Q

What is chronic pain?

A

Long lasting pain that may impact day to day life

70
Q

Differentiate between fear avoidance and pain persistence

A

Fear avoidance: When the fear of pain is holding the patient back rather than the pain itself

Pain persistence: When the patient powers through the pain

71
Q

What is gate control theory?

A

Distracting pain signals going to the brain through other stimulus

(ex: rubbing your head after you hit it against something)

72
Q

What are two pain assessment tools?

A

NPRS and VAS

73
Q

List some forms of nonpharmacological methods to ease pain

A
  • Thermotherapy
  • Cryotherapy
  • Aquatics
  • Exercise
74
Q

What is the SINSS Model?

A

A way of assessing the Severity, Irritability, Nature, Stage and Stability of pain

75
Q

Ranges for “Severity” out of 10

A

Minimal severity: 0-3
Moderate severity: 4-7
Maximal severity: 8-10

76
Q

What are the “Irritability” ratios (aggravating to easing factors)

A

Minimal irritability: 2:1
Moderate irritability: 1:1
Maximal irritability: 1:2

77
Q

What does “Nature” mean in the SINSS Model?

A

The type of pain (specific condition, classification, pathology)

78
Q

Describe the acute stage? subacute stage? chronic stage?

A

Acute: Symptom duration less than 3 weeks, recent onset

Subacute: Symptom duration more than 3 weeks, less than 6 weeks

Chronic: Symptom duration is greater than 6 weeks

79
Q

Describe the romberg test

A

patient balances with feet directly next to each other, arms crossed

Normal: 30-60secs
Fall Risk: <20secs

80
Q

Describe the sharpened romberg test

A

Patient is in a tandem stance, arms crossed

Normal: 30-60secs

81
Q

Describe the single leg stance

A

Patient stands stationary on one leg

Normal: 30secs
Fall Risk: <5secs

82
Q

Describe the TUG test

A

“Timed up and go” test

Patient stands up from chair, walks 3 meters, returns back to chair as quick as possible

Normal: <10secs
Fall Risk: >13.5secs

83
Q

How long should a patient be able to sustain pertubations?

A

30 seconds

84
Q

A plumb line should go through which structures?

A

Ear, in front of acromion, greater trochanter, in front of knee, in front of lateral malleolus

85
Q

What is the ankle strategy for balance?

A

Activates muscles from distal to proximal to maintain balance

86
Q

What is the hip strategy for balance?

A

Activates muscles from proximal to distal to maintain balance

87
Q

Describe the sensory orientation of an unstable surface

A

10% somatosensory
60% vestibular
30% visual

88
Q

Describe the sensory orientation of a firm surface

A

70% somatosensory
20% vestibular
10% visual

89
Q

Describe the functional reach test

A

Is a DYNAMIC stability test

Fall Risk: <7inches

90
Q

How to conduct a Modified Clinical Test of Sensory Interaction on Balance (Modified CTSIB)

A

4 ways

  • Firm surface, eyes open
  • Firm surface, eyes closed
  • Complaint surface, eyes open
  • Complaint surface, eyes closed

30secs x 3 trials, average out the results

91
Q

What is dexterity?

A

Ability for skillful use of the fingers during motor tasks

92
Q

What is agility?

A

The ability to rapidly and smoothly stop, initiate or change/stop a movement while maintaining postural control

93
Q

What does fixation mean?

A

Holding a limb in the same position

94
Q

List a few diagnoses a PT can and cannot make?

A

Cannot: Myocardial infarction, diabetic neuropathy

Can: Cardiac pump dysfunction, absent sensation, gastroc weakness

95
Q

Differentiate between objective and subjective info

A

Objective: Something that is a fact

Subjective: Something that is based off an individual’s perception

96
Q

Differentiate between a sign and symptom

A

Sign: Objective findings that are based on facts from an exam/measure

Symptom: Subjective findings that are based on an individual’s perception (their opinion)

97
Q

What does a red flag mean? yellow?

A

Red: Warning (may warrant a referral)

Yellow: Caution

98
Q

T or F? pH of surrounding tissue influences nociceptor sensitivity

A

True

99
Q

What are three different balance strategies?

A

Ankle, Hip, Stepping strategies

100
Q

What is the ankle strategy for balance?

A

Using ankle plantar flexors and dorsiflexors to maintain balance

101
Q

What is the hip strategy for balance?

A

The use of hip flexion or extension to maintain balance

102
Q

What is the stepping strategy for balance?

A

When displacement occurs beyond the limits of stability and patient must step to maintain balance

103
Q

What information goes in the health
conditions category of the ICF model?

a) PT diagnosis
b) Impairments
c) Medical diagnosis
d) Tests and measures

A

Medical diagnosis

104
Q

Which of the following would fit best into
the participation category of the ICF?

a) Cannot drive, cannot perform work tasks, cannot attend social
functions, can perform yard work

b) Cannot get dressed, cannot make dinner, can shower, can walk dog

c) Decreased range of motion, decreased strength

d) Has support from family members, not internally motivated

A

a) Cannot drive, cannot perform work tasks, cannot attend social
functions, can perform yard work

105
Q

Which of the following is not a PT
diagnosis?

a) Impaired biceps strength

b) Decreased aerobic capacity

c) Torn ACL ligament

d) Cardiac pump dysfunction

e) Decreased Hip IR ROM

A

c) Torn ACL ligament

106
Q

Which of the following is not a red flag?

a) Night pain
b) History of smoking
c) Bilateral symptoms
d) Changes in muscle tone or joint ROM in neurologic populations

A

b) history of smoking

107
Q

What is the correct order of most sensitive
to least sensitive tissue?

a) Periosteum > cortical bone > joint capsule > synovium > articular cartilage

b) Articular cartilage > synovium > cortical bone > joint capsule > periosteum

c) Periosteum > synovium > joint capsule > cortical bone > articular cartilage

d) Periosteum > joint capsule > cortical bone > synovium > articular cartilage

A

d) Periosteum > joint capsule > cortical bone > synovium > articular cartilage

108
Q

Pain that is diffuse across the body, not localized
to any one location, cannot be reproduced
biomechanically, and does not subside in the
absence of movement is most likely to be
classified as?

a) Peripheral neuropathic
b) Nociceptive
c) Nociplastic
d) Referred pain

A

c) Nociplastic

109
Q

You burn your hand on a hot stove, how
would the pain sensation be relayed initially?

a) Dorsal column of the spinal cord
b) C fibers
c) Spinothalamic tract
d) A-delta fibers

A

d) A delta fibers

110
Q

After the afferent fibers synapse on the dorsal
horn of the spinal cord what locations in the brain is pain information relayed to next?

a) Midbrain and cerebellum
b) Hypothalamus
c) Thalamus and brainstem
d) Cerebral cortex and medulla

A

c) Thalamus and brainstem

111
Q

A patient comes to you with c/o knee pain that
has been consistent for 8 weeks. This would be
best categorized as?

a) Acute pain
b) Subacute pain
c) Chronic pain
d) Acute on chronic exacerbation

A

c) Chronic pain

112
Q

The functional reach test would be a test
of which type of balance?

a) Stability
b) Dynamic
c) Static
d) Step strategy

A

b) Dynamic

113
Q

What are the types of muscle tone?

A
  • Normal
  • Hypotonia
  • Hypertonia
114
Q

What is hypertonia rigidity?

A

Stiffness of muscles in both directions (during passive movement)

  • Constant overactivity of a muscle
  • Not velocity dependent, present at rest (similar to parkinson’s disease)
115
Q

What is hypertonia spasticity?

A

Stiffness of muscles in one direction

  • Usually more apparent in one direction than another
  • Velocity dependent (faster the movement, faster the muscle response)
  • Clonus may sometimes happen
116
Q

What is clonus?

A

When a muscle experiences a quick stretch, then is followed by involuntary rhythmic response

117
Q

What is dystonia?

A
  • A movement disorder characterized by involuntary muscle contractions (twisting movements)
  • Common in individuals with cognitive disabilites
  • Becomes worse when the individual moves
118
Q

You are examining a patient who presents with
abnormal twisting movements of their UE as they
reach for a light dumbbell rested on the treatment
table. Which form of hypertonia would this be
categorized as?

a) Clonus
b) Spasticity
c) Rigidity
d) Dystonia
e) Atonia

A

d) Dystonia

119
Q

What are the three main features associated
with spasticity?

a) Hyper-reflexive, non-velocity dependent, clonus
b) Hypo-reflexive, velocity dependent, unidirectional
c) Hyper-reflexive, velocity dependent, clonus
d) Hypo-reflexive, non-velocity dependent, abnormal posture at rest

A

c) Hyper-reflexive, velocity dependent, clonus

120
Q

You are assessing a patients R UE for tone abnormalities, and
while moving the shoulder through flexion-extension range of
motion, you discover a large resistance to passive flexion. What
tone abnormality should this be categorized as?

a) Spasticity
b) Dystonia
c) Rigidity

A

c) Rigidity

121
Q

T or F? A pendulum motion can be a great way to test passive motion

A

True

122
Q

You are testing the ability of your patient to
pronate and supinate the wrist. They are able to
alternate between the two positions slowly with
both hands. How would you regress the test to
accurately measure their coordination?

a) Ask them to complete the motion with eyes closed
b) Have them speed up
c) Ask them to do asymmetric motions
d) Have them complete the test with one side at a time

A

d) Have them complete the test with one side at a time

123
Q

What are the 3 types of hypertonia?

A

Spasticity, rigidity, dystonia

124
Q

What are the 4 components/steps of muscle tone assessment?

A

Observation, palpating, active motion, passive motion

125
Q

Which type of hypertonia may have clonus?

A

Spasticity

126
Q

What is spasticity (hypertonia)?

A

Increased muscle tone that is velocity dependent (resistance increases when speed increases)

127
Q

What is rigidity (hypertonia)?

A

A constant increase in muscle tone that does not depend on velocity of movement (resistance remains the same through the movement)

128
Q

What is dystonia (hypertonia)?

A

Involuntary muscle contractions that lead to abnormal twisting movements

Foundations of PT 2 (4 decks)

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