Quiz 1: Intro, Balance, & Posture Flashcards

1
Q

What is balance?

A

an even weight distribution that allows an object to remain upright and in a state of equilibrium.

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2
Q

What is equilibrium?

A

state of zero acceleration with no change in speed or direction (very still)

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3
Q

What is static balance?

A

the center of gravity is maintained within its base of support

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4
Q

What is dynamic balance?

A

postural control is maintained when moving outside the body’s base of support

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5
Q

Possible deficits in balance and stability can result from: (5)

A
  • postural weakness
  • joint tightness/contracture
  • decreased strength
  • impaired motor coordination
  • pain impairments
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6
Q

Where is the body’s center of gravity located at?

A

slightly anterior to the S2 (sacral segment 2)

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7
Q

What is stability?

A

the ability to counter forces that destabilize equilibrium

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8
Q

What is center of gravity?

A

the point at which the body’s mass and weight are equally balanced or equally distributed in all directions

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9
Q

True or False:
Changing the body’s center of gravity impacts stability.

A

True

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10
Q

What kind of a postural change can alter the body’s center of gravity?

A

kyphotic/lordotic/scoliotic

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11
Q

True or False:
Lowering the center of gravity decreases balance.

A

False, lowering the c.o.g. increases balance because it’s more stable.

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12
Q

Widening the stance _________ balance

A

increases

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13
Q

Narrowing the stance _______ balance

A

decreases

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14
Q

Shifting body weight to one foot also ________ balance

A

decreases

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15
Q

On what type of surface is balance most optimal on? Least optimal on?

A

Most: Hard surface
Least: Soft surface

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16
Q

True or False:
Increasing an objects weight increases balance.

A

True

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17
Q

True or False:
Increasing the friction between a body and its contact surface enhances balance.

A

True

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18
Q

When resisting an oncoming force, where should you place the body’s center of gravity?

A

Towards the oncoming force to increase stability (lean forward if the object is coming at you from the anterior side)

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19
Q

What are some activities to increase balance? (5)

A
  • wide BOS —> narrow BOS
  • tandem stance (1 foot in front of other)
  • single leg stance (flamingo)
  • change surfaces
  • dynamic activities (reaching/throwing/etc) to increase difficulty
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20
Q

What are some balance mobility tests? (5)

A
  • Berg Balance scale
  • Tenetti (balance/gait)
  • TUG test (timed up and go)
  • Functional Reach Test (yard stick)
  • Balance Evaluation Systems Test (BESTest) (look @ what’s affected? eyes? ankle? etc.)
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21
Q

What is the BERG balance scale?

A

functional scale to objectively measure a patient’s balance in order to document progression though out plan of care.
- 14 tasks total
- Total: ___/ 56

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22
Q

What are the tests of the BERG balance?

A
  • sit to stand
  • stand unsupported
  • sit unsupported
  • stand to sit
  • transfers
  • stand unsupported w/ eyes closed
  • stand unsupported w/ feet together
  • reach forward
  • pick up object from floor
  • turn over shoulder w/ feet planted
  • turn 360 degrees
  • steps
  • tandem stance
  • single leg stance
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23
Q

True or False:
The nervous system simplifies motor control by creating strategies or synergies.

A

True

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24
Q

What types of patterns can be quickly and automatically accessed by the CNS?

A

Flexible and repeatable

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25
Q

True or False:
Nervous system uses these pre-programmed strategies to ensure maintenance of balance.

A

True

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26
Q

What is the order of “landmarks” on the body needed to increase stability?

A

1st: ankle (distal to proximal)
2nd: hip/trunk
3rd: stepping

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27
Q

What are the movement strategies of the ankle?

A
  • used in response to small perturbations or LOB
  • EX: body sway forward and toes dig into floor, ankle/calf/posterior leg contract to prevent forward falling
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28
Q

What are the movement strategies of the hip/trunk?

A
  • used if perturbation is too large
  • EX: bend at waist or arch back to keep center of gravity over base of support
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29
Q

What are the movement strategies of stepping?

A
  • used if ankle/hip strategies are insufficient
  • EX: COG moves past BOS and requires forward or backward step
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30
Q

Balance disturbances at the joint/ankle activate the ____________ or __________

A

plantar flexors or dorsiflexors

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31
Q

ANKLE:
- an ANTERIOR ANKLE LEAN from a standing position results in:
1. Eccentric contraction of the….
2. Concentric contraction of the….
(works the gastroc)

A
  1. Eccentric contraction of the plantar flexors to control momentum followed by a static (isometric) contraction to stop momentum
  2. Concentric contraction of the plantar flexors to restore standing posture
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32
Q

ANKLE:
- a POSTERIOR ANKLE LEAN from a standing position results in:
1. Eccentric contraction of the….
2. Concentric contraction of the….
(works the TA)

A
  1. Eccentric contraction of the dorsiflexors, to slow momentum, followed by a static (isometric) contraction to stop momentum
  2. Concentric contraction of the dorsiflexors to restore standing posture.
33
Q

Balance disturbances at the hip activate the _________, ___________, and ____________

A

hip flexors, hip extensors, and hip abductors

34
Q

TRUNK:
- an ANTERIOR TRUNK LEAN from a standing position results in:
1. Eccentric contraction of the….
2. Concentric contraction of the….

A
  1. Eccentric contraction of the erector spinae and hip extensors, followed by a static (isometric) contraction to stop momentum
  2. Concentric contraction of the erector spinae and hip extensors to restore standing posture.
35
Q

TRUNK:
- a LATERAL TRUNK LEAN from a standing position results in:
1. Eccentric contraction of the….
2. Concentric contraction of the….

A
  1. Eccentric contraction of the glute medius, and glute mini, followed by a static (isometric) contraction to stop momentum
  2. Concentric contraction of the glute med and glute mini to restore erect standing posture
36
Q

TRUNK:
- a POSTERIOR TRUNK LEAN from a standing position results in:
1. Eccentric contraction of the….
2. Concentric contraction of the….

A
  1. Eccentric contraction of the trunk flexors, followed by a static (isometric) contraction to stop momentum
  2. Concentric contraction of the trunk flexors to restore standing posture
37
Q

Why is core stability essential?

A

Core stability is essential to maintaining structural integrity of the trunk.

38
Q

What are the 4 primary core muscles?

A
  • rectus abdominis
  • transverse abdominis
  • internal and external obliques
  • erector spinae
39
Q

What are the 2 secondary core muscles?

A
  • latissimus dorsi/teres major
  • illiopsoas
40
Q

True or False:
The transverse abdominis compresses abdominal contents, and stabilizes the core musculature, thus reducing compressive forces along the spine

A

True

41
Q

What does the quadratus lumborum do?

A

provides pelvic elevation and lateral trunk flexion

42
Q

What does the rectus abdominus do?

A

flexion of the trunk

43
Q

What does the erector spinae do?

A

extends the trunk

44
Q

What does the illiopsoas do?

A

flexes the hip

45
Q

What does the latissimus dorsi/teres major do?

A

extends the shoulder and depresses the scapula

46
Q

What does the diaphragm do?

A

separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity, a primary muscle for inspiration

47
Q

True or False:
You should begin with isolated exercises to correct muscle imbalances before progressing to the basic complex movement patterns

A

True

48
Q

What does single-leg stance and stepping involve?

A

involves weight transference over the stance leg, while preserving optimal alignment among the hip, knee, and foot.

49
Q

Squatting and lifting objects from the floor…..

A

increase stress on the anterior cruciate ligament

50
Q

Gluteus maximus engagement during knee and hip flexion prevents….

A

excessive internal tibial rotation and knee abduction

51
Q

Quadriceps dominance during a squat as opposed to hip dominance predisposes….

A

the knee to the risk of injury

52
Q

What is posture?

A

body position relative to the center of gravity and line of gravity

53
Q

What is line of gravity?

A

line passing vertically through the spinal column, the center of gravity and the base of support

54
Q

True or False:
Posture is static only.

A

False, it is BOTH static and dynamic

55
Q

How is standing posture assessed?

A

anatomical position

56
Q

To have correct posture it requires: (3)

A
  • normal ROM across all joints
  • balanced agnonist/antagonist muscle relation
  • strong postural muscle stabilization
57
Q

What are the key postural stabilization muscles? (8)

A
  • cervical extensors (lay down head push pillow)
  • shoulder external rotators (theraband robbers)
  • scapular retractors (rows)
  • trunk extensors (RDLs)
  • trunk flexors (crunches)
  • hip extensors (donkey kicks)
  • knee extensors (knee extension)
  • ankle plantar flexors (calf raises)
58
Q

What are some causes of postural imbalance?

A
  • obesity
  • pregnancy
  • decreased joint flexibility
  • muscle weakness
  • standing and walking in elevated heels (constantly)
59
Q

Muscle actions within a kinetic chain:
1. Agonist muscles cause the action to ____
2. Antagonist muscles ________
3. Synergist muscles________
4. Stabilizer muscles _________

A
  1. occur
  2. oppose agonist action
  3. assists the agonist
  4. co-contract to protect and maintain joint positioning
60
Q

True or False:
With joint contractures, antagonist muscles prevent agonist muscles, restricting full ROM
Ex: tight knee flexors restrict knee extensors from fully contracting to reach terminal knee extension

A

True

61
Q

True or False:
Stretching the agonist muscle does not fully restore normal ROM, without concurrent strengthening of the agonist muscles.

A

True, they must do BOTH

62
Q

What are the 4 standard postural deviations?

A
  • Kyphosis (hunch over)
  • Scoliosis (S shaped spine)
  • Flat-back (sway back, posterior pelvic tilt/hip extension/lower back flattened)
  • Lordosis (leaned back)
63
Q

What is a winged scapula?

A

the medial border of the scapula moves away from the thoracic wall and projects outward

64
Q

What does a winged scap result from?

A

weak serratus anterior

65
Q

What are some exercises for a winged scapula?

A
  • serratus push up
  • lat pulldown
  • lateral raise
  • rear fly
  • unilateral shoulder extension
66
Q

Does scoliosis typically occur in left handed or right handed people?

A

Right handed

67
Q

What is structural scoliosis?

A

a fixed and irreversible change in spinal alignment resulting in a lateral curvature of the spine with fixed rotation of the vertebrae
(cannot be altered through positioning, exercise or manipulation)

68
Q

What is nonstructual scoliosis?

A

deviations in spinal alignment in which the vertebrae can be realigned through positioning instruction and exercise

69
Q

What is genu valgum?

A

knock knee appearance
- hip external rot/knee hyperextension/pronated foot

70
Q

What is genu varum?

A

bow legged appearance
- hip internal rotation/knee hyperextension/pronated foot

71
Q

What is genurecurvatum?

A

knee hyperextension
- caused by tight soleus

72
Q

What tibial torsion?

A

pigeon toed fr
- caused by a inward rotation of tibia

73
Q

What is pronation and supination of the foot?

A

Pronation: eversion walk on medial side
Supination: inversion walk on lateral side

74
Q

True or False:
If identified early, pronation or supination of the foot can be remedied with corrective shoes and exercise

A

True

75
Q

What is pes planus?

A

flat footed
- can be acquired
- common in kids
- treatment includes corrective exercises and orthotics (shoe inserts)

76
Q

What is pes cavus?

A

high arch
- characterized by high arch
- usually congenital
- can be treated with orthotics
- surgery for severe cases

77
Q

True or False
Reduced dorsiflexion results from tight plantar flexors and vice versa

A

True

78
Q

How far from the spine should the medial border of the scapula be?

A

2-2.5 inches