Quiz 1 Flashcards

1
Q

A client in her second trimester is receiving prenatal counseling about folic acid. Why is folic acid crucial during pregnancy?
A. To prevent neural tube defects.
B. To prevent gestational diabetes.
C. To enhance fetal respiratory development.
D. To reduce the risk of anemia in the mother.

A

Answer: A
Rationale: Folic acid is essential in preventing neural tube defects (NTDs) like spina bifida. It is most effective if taken before conception and during the first trimester.

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2
Q

Which of the following clients would be most at risk for maternal mortality in the U.S.?
A. A 35-year-old African American woman with hypertension
B. A 25-year-old Caucasian woman with a previous history of cesarean section
C. A 30-year-old woman who has recently immigrated from Europe
D. A 28-year-old woman with gestational diabetes

A

Answer: A
Rationale: African American women in the U.S. experience higher rates of maternal mortality. Risk factors such as hypertension increase this risk further.

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3
Q

When educating a patient on combined oral contraceptives (COCs), which of the following statements indicates that more education is needed?
A. “I should take my pill at the same time every day.”
B. “If I miss a dose, I should double up the next day.”
C. “The pill will protect me against sexually transmitted infections.”
D. “I should avoid smoking while taking the pill.”

A

Answer: C
Rationale: COCs do not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs); only barrier methods like condoms provide this protection.

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4
Q

A 22-year-old client is seeking contraception advice. She has a history of smoking and is concerned about the effectiveness of various birth control options. Which method is the safest for her?
A. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs)
B. Intrauterine device (IUD)
C. Transdermal patch
D. Vaginal ring

A

Answer: B
Rationale: Due to her smoking history, estrogen-containing methods (like COCs, the patch, or the ring) pose an increased risk of cardiovascular issues. The IUD is safer and highly effective.

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5
Q

A nurse is explaining the function of the ductus arteriosus in fetal circulation. What is its role?
A. To bypass the lungs by connecting the pulmonary artery to the aorta.
B. To connect the right atrium to the left atrium.
C. To transport blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava.
D. To supply oxygenated blood directly to the brain.

A

Answer: A
Rationale: The ductus arteriosus allows blood to bypass the non-functioning fetal lungs by connecting the pulmonary artery to the aorta.

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6
Q

Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the endometrium during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)

A

Answer: C
Rationale: Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation to maintain the endometrial lining, supporting potential implantation.

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7
Q

During prenatal genetic counseling, a couple learns they both carry an autosomal recessive gene for cystic fibrosis. What is the likelihood that their child will have cystic fibrosis?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%

A

Answer: B
Rationale: With autosomal recessive inheritance, there is a 25% chance the child will inherit both defective genes and have the disorder.

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8
Q

What is a priority nursing intervention for a client who has chosen an intrauterine device (IUD) as her contraceptive method?
A. Teach the client to check for IUD strings monthly.
B. Instruct the client to take it out every month.
C. Educate the client on daily dosing.
D. Inform the client that pregnancy tests are not needed with an IUD.

A

Answer: A
Rationale: Checking the IUD strings monthly ensures it is correctly positioned and helps identify if it has been expelled.

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9
Q

What are teratogens, and why are they important to understand in pregnancy care?
A. Substances that can cause fetal malformations or birth defects
B. Only medications that may affect the mother
C. Foods that are high-risk during pregnancy
D. Natural components in prenatal vitamins

A

Answer: A
Rationale: Teratogens are substances, like certain drugs and environmental factors, that can cause birth defects or developmental issues if the fetus is exposed.

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10
Q

A client in her first trimester has a positive test for Trisomy 21. What genetic condition does this indicate?
A. Trisomy 13
B. Trisomy 18
C. Down syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome

A

Answer: C
Rationale: Trisomy 21, or an extra copy of chromosome 21, results in Down syndrome.

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11
Q

In family-centered maternity care, what is a key nursing goal?
A. Encourage fathers to avoid participating in the birthing process.
B. Include family members in decision-making and care.
C. Ensure visitors are restricted after birth.
D. Focus on solely the mother’s needs.

A

Answer: B
Rationale: Family-centered care involves integrating family members into the care and decision-making process to provide support to the mother and newborn.

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12
Q

What role does the hormone estrogen play during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?
A. Stimulates ovulation
B. Maintains the endometrial lining after ovulation
C. Promotes growth of the follicle in the ovary
D. Signals the corpus luteum to produce progesterone

A

Answer: C
Rationale: Estrogen levels rise during the follicular phase, helping develop the ovarian follicle and preparing for ovulation.

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13
Q

A client at 10 weeks of pregnancy is exposed to a known teratogen. The nurse understands that this is concerning because exposure to teratogens is particularly dangerous during which phase?
A. Postpartum phase
B. Pre-embryonic phase
C. Fetal phase
D.Embryonic phase

A

Answer: D
Rationale: The embryonic phase (weeks 3-8) is when organs are forming, making it the most vulnerable period for teratogenic effects.

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14
Q

When explaining cultural humility in maternity care, which action by the nurse best demonstrates this principle?
A. Using medical jargon to explain procedures
B. Educating the patient solely on the hospital’s birthing practices
C. Assuming the patient has similar views on childbirth
D. Asking the patient about her cultural beliefs regarding childbirth

A

Answer: D
Rationale: Cultural humility involves recognizing and respecting a patient’s beliefs and being open to understanding diverse cultural practices in care.

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15
Q

Which form of birth control would the nurse suggest as the most effective for a patient seeking long-term contraception?
A. Condoms
B. Intrauterine device (IUD)
C. Combined oral contraceptive pills
D. Withdrawal method

A

Answer: B
Rationale: IUDs are one of the most effective forms of long-term contraception, providing over 99% effectiveness.

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16
Q

A nurse is educating a patient on the primary level of prevention. Which intervention would the nurse include as an example of this?
A. Blood pressure screening during pregnancy
B. Educating on nutrition and exercise before conception
C. Managing diabetes complications postpartum
D. Providing physical therapy after a childbirth injury

A

Answer: B
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs, such as through health education on lifestyle factors before pregnancy.

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17
Q

Which fetal shunt connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, allowing blood to bypass the lungs?
A. Foramen ovale
B. Ductus arteriosus
C. Ductus venosus
D. Umbilical vein

A

Answer: B
Rationale: The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, allowing blood to bypass the fetal lungs.

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17
Q

A nurse explains that a child with Turner syndrome has which chromosomal abnormality?
A. Extra X chromosome in males (XXY)
B. Missing X chromosome in females
C. Trisomy 18
D. Trisomy 13

A

Answer: B
Rationale: Turner syndrome involves a missing X chromosome, commonly seen as XO in females, leading to various developmental issues.

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18
Q

In which phase of the menstrual cycle does a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH) trigger ovulation?
A. Follicular phase
B. Ovulation
C. Luteal phase
D. Menstrual phase

A

Answer: B
Rationale: LH surge triggers ovulation, releasing the egg from the follicle into the fallopian tube.

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19
Q

Why is the corpus luteum important during the luteal phase?
A. It produces estrogen.
B. It produces progesterone to maintain the endometrium.
C. It releases FSH.
D. It triggers ovulation.

A

Answer: B
Rationale: The corpus luteum produces progesterone to maintain the endometrial lining, preparing for potential implantation.

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20
Q

Which form of prevention is focused on reducing complications after an illness has occurred?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Quaternary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention

A

Answer: D
Rationale: Tertiary prevention reduces the impact of an ongoing illness by managing symptoms and reducing complications.

21
Q

What key function does amniotic fluid serve in fetal development?
A. Transports oxygen to the fetus
B. Acts as a nutrient source for the fetus
C. Cushions the fetus and maintains a stable temperature
D. Provides antibodies to the fetus

A

Answer: C
Rationale: Amniotic fluid cushions the fetus, allowing for movement and providing a stable temperature environment.

22
Q

What risk does polyhydramnios in pregnancy pose to the mother and fetus?
A. Increased risk of preterm birth
B. Increased risk of preeclampsia and maternal hypertension
C. Decreased risk of fetal anomalies
D. No risks associated

A

Answer: A
Rationale: Polyhydramnios, or excessive amniotic fluid, can lead to preterm birth and other complications.

23
Q

A patient with a family history of Huntington’s disease asks about her risk of inheriting it. What is the inheritance pattern?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked recessive
D. Mitochondrial inheritance

A

Answer: B
Rationale: Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant condition, meaning only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to inherit the disease.

24
Q

What is the role of the ductus venosus in fetal circulation?
A. Connects the right and left atria
B. Connects the pulmonary artery and aorta
C. Bypasses the liver by shunting blood to the inferior vena cava
D. Supplies oxygenated blood to the brain

A

Answer: C
Rationale: The ductus venosus bypasses the liver, directing oxygenated blood from the placenta to the inferior vena cava.

25
Q

Which of the following statements best describes informed consent?
A. Understanding the risks, benefits, and alternatives to a procedure or treatment
B. Asking the physician for details about a procedure
C. Deciding which family members will be present during childbirth
D. Agreeing to sign documents for hospital admission

A

Answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent means the patient understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives to make an informed decision.

26
Q

A client asks how long after fertilization implantation occurs. How should the nurse respond?
A. 2–3 days
B. 6–10 days
C. 1–2 weeks
D. 14–16 days

A

Answer: B
Rationale: Implantation generally occurs 6-10 days after fertilization, when the embryo attaches to the uterine lining.

27
Q

A nurse is educating a patient on the primary level of prevention. Which intervention would the nurse include as an example of this?
A. Blood pressure screening during pregnancy
B. Educating on nutrition and exercise before conception
C. Managing diabetes complications postpartum
D. Providing physical therapy after a childbirth injury

A

Answer: B
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs, such as through health education on lifestyle factors before pregnancy.

28
Q

What key function does amniotic fluid serve in fetal development?
A. Transports oxygen to the fetus
B. Acts as a nutrient source for the fetus
C. Cushions the fetus and maintains a stable temperature
D. Provides antibodies to the fetus

A

Answer: C
Rationale: Amniotic fluid cushions the fetus, allowing for movement and providing a stable temperature environment.

29
Q

What risk does polyhydramnios in pregnancy pose to the mother and fetus?
A. Increased risk of preterm birth
B. Increased risk of preeclampsia and maternal hypertension
C. Decreased risk of fetal anomalies
D. No risks associated

A

Answer: A
Rationale: Polyhydramnios, or excessive amniotic fluid, can lead to preterm birth and other complications.

30
Q

A patient with a family history of Huntington’s disease asks about her risk of inheriting it. What is the inheritance pattern?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked recessive
D. Mitochondrial inheritance

A

Answer: B
Rationale: Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant condition, meaning only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to inherit the disease.

31
Q

What is the role of the ductus venosus in fetal circulation?
A. Connects the right and left atria
B. Connects the pulmonary artery and aorta
C. Bypasses the liver by shunting blood to the inferior vena cava
D. Supplies oxygenated blood to the brain

A

Answer: C
Rationale: The ductus venosus bypasses the liver, directing oxygenated blood from the placenta to the inferior vena cava.

32
Q

A nurse is counseling a client on the warning signs of oral contraceptives (OCs). Which signs should be included?

A

Answer: Abdominal pain, chest pain, severe leg pain, eye problems, severe headaches.

Rationale: These symptoms can indicate serious conditions like DVT, PE, liver/gallbladder disease, stroke, or HTN.

33
Q

A client using a basal body temperature method for contraception needs to avoid intercourse during which phase?

A

Answer: Ovulation phase.

Rationale: Body temperature rises after ovulation, so intercourse should be avoided in this fertile window.

34
Q

Which contraceptive method has the highest effectiveness rate?

A

Answer: Male or female sterilization, intrauterine contraception, and implants.

Rationale: These are among the most effective contraception methods when used properly.

35
Q

A client using a hormonal IUD is counseled to check for signs of which complications?

A

Answer: P.A.I.N.S. – Period irregularities, Abdominal pain, Infection, Not feeling well, and String issues.

Rationale: These signs can indicate complications such as IUD displacement or infection.

36
Q

Which contraceptive method relies on identifying fertile days through cervical mucus observation?

A

Answer: Cervical mucus ovulation method.

Rationale: This fertility awareness method tracks changes in cervical mucus to identify fertile windows.

37
Q

A client with hypertension asks about contraceptive options. Which type should the nurse caution against?

A

Answer: Combined oral contraceptives (COCs).

Rationale: COCs can increase blood pressure and are generally contraindicated in hypertensive clients.

38
Q

At what stage of fetal development does the heart begin to beat?

A

Answer: 5-6 weeks gestation.
Rationale: The heart begins to beat early in the embryonic stage, providing blood flow essential for organ development.

39
Q

What is the primary function of Wharton’s jelly in the umbilical cord?

A

Answer: To protect the umbilical vessels when compressed.

Rationale: Wharton’s jelly is a protective substance that prevents compression and ensures blood flow between mother and fetus.

40
Q

How long does it typically take for the foramen ovale to functionally close after birth?

A

Answer: 1-2 hours.

Rationale: The foramen ovale closes shortly after birth as oxygenated blood flow changes with the first breath, redirecting blood through the lungs.

41
Q

Which hormone, produced by the trophoblast cells, confirms pregnancy?

A

Answer: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
Rationale: hCG is secreted by trophoblasts after implantation, supporting the corpus luteum to maintain early pregnancy.

42
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the placenta?

A

Answer: Directly providing antibodies to the fetus.

Rationale: While the placenta transfers some antibodies from mother to fetus, it doesn’t produce them; maternal antibodies cross the placental barrier.

43
Q

Which of the following is true about fetal circulation?

A

Answer: Lungs are fluid-filled and collapsed, relying on the placenta for oxygenation.

Rationale: In fetal circulation, the placenta oxygenates the blood, as the lungs are non-functional until birth.

44
Q

Which hormone does the placenta produce to support maternal physiology during pregnancy?

A

Answer: Estrogen.

Rationale: Estrogen, along with other hormones, is produced by the placenta to help sustain pregnancy by maintaining the endometrium and supporting fetal growth.

45
Q

Which prenatal screening test is most accurate for detecting Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) in women over 35?

A

Answer: Cell-free DNA testing.

Rationale: Cell-free DNA testing, conducted from maternal blood, has a high accuracy rate (99.7%) for detecting Trisomy 21 in women over 35.

46
Q

A pregnant client is at 10 weeks’ gestation and wants early genetic screening. Which test would be recommended?

A

Answer: Chorionic villi sampling (CVS).
Rationale: CVS is done between 10-12 weeks for early genetic diagnosis but carries a higher miscarriage risk than amniocentesis.

47
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Answer: X-linked recessive.

Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive disorder, primarily affects males, with females typically as carriers.

48
Q

A newborn screening test for which autosomal recessive disorder checks for dysfunctional exocrine glands?

A

Answer: Cystic fibrosis.

Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is identified in newborn screenings and is characterized by dysfunction in exocrine glands affecting respiratory and digestive systems.

49
Q

A prenatal test involving maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) is primarily used to detect which condition?

A

Answer: Neural tube defects.
Rationale: MSAFP, part of the quad screen, is primarily used to screen for neural tube defects and some chromosomal abnormalities.

50
Q

Which condition involves an extra X chromosome in males and often presents with infertility and mild intellectual disabilities?

A

Answer: Klinefelter syndrome (XXY).

Rationale: Klinefelter syndrome, where males have an additional X chromosome, can lead to infertility and developmental challenges.

51
Q

Which prenatal diagnostic test is done later in pregnancy (15-20 weeks) and has a lower risk of miscarriage?

A

Answer: Amniocentesis.

Rationale: Amniocentesis, typically performed at 15-20 weeks, is safer with a lower risk of miscarriage compared to earlier diagnostic tests like CVS.