-OB EXAM 2- Flashcards

1
Q

A postpartum woman reports mood swings, tearfulness, and difficulty sleeping. Which intervention is most appropriate?

A) Prescribe antidepressants.
B) Encourage rest and provide reassurance.
C) Refer to a psychiatrist immediately.
D) Recommend stopping breastfeeding.

A

Answer: B) Encourage rest and provide reassurance.
Rationale: Postpartum blues are self-limiting and typically resolve within 2 weeks. Rest and support are key interventions.

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2
Q

A postpartum woman diagnosed with postpartum depression is prescribed sertraline. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

A) “You will feel better within 1-2 days.”
B) “This medication is contraindicated during breastfeeding.”
C) “It may take several weeks to see improvement in symptoms.”
D) “Avoid taking the medication with dairy products.”

A

Answer: C) “It may take several weeks to see improvement in symptoms.”
Rationale: SSRIs like sertraline take 4-6 weeks to show effects.

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3
Q

Which symptom differentiates postpartum psychosis from postpartum depression?

A) Insomnia
B) Feelings of hopelessness
C) Hallucinations
D) Poor appetite

A

Answer: C) Hallucinations
Rationale: Hallucinations are a hallmark symptom of postpartum psychosis and require immediate intervention.

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4
Q

A postpartum patient presents with a fever of 39°C, tachycardia, and hypotension. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

A) Start IV fluids and administer broad-spectrum antibiotics.
B) Monitor blood pressure every 4 hours.
C) Administer antipyretics for the fever.
D) Prepare the patient for discharge.

A

Answer: A) Start IV fluids and administer broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Rationale: Early antibiotic administration and fluid resuscitation are critical in managing sepsis

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5
Q

What is a common risk factor for maternal sepsis?

A) Obesity
B) Cesarean delivery
C) Retained products of conception
D) All of the above

A

Answer: D) All of the above
Rationale: Obesity, surgical deliveries, and retained placental fragments increase the risk of infection and sepsis

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6
Q

Which characteristic is commonly seen in small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborns?

A) Proportional growth
B) Wide skull sutures and thin umbilical cord
C) Redundant subcutaneous fat stores
D) Large body with poor motor skills

A

Answer: B) Wide skull sutures and thin umbilical cord
Rationale: SGA newborns exhibit growth restrictions, decreased fat, and wide sutures

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7
Q

A preterm infant exhibits nasal flaring, grunting, and retractions. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

A) Monitor glucose levels.
B) Administer surfactant therapy.
C) Begin oral feedings.
D) Encourage kangaroo care.

A

Answer: B) Administer surfactant therapy.
Rationale: These are signs of respiratory distress syndrome, and surfactant is critical for alveolar function

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7
Q

A large-for-gestational-age (LGA) infant is born to a mother with poorly controlled gestational diabetes. What complication should the nurse monitor for?

A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hyperbilirubinemia
C) Birth trauma
D) All of the above

A

Answer: D) All of the above
Rationale: LGA infants are at risk for hypoglycemia, jaundice, and birth injuries due to macrosomia​.

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8
Q

A newborn has jaundice with a total bilirubin level of 18 mg/dL at 48 hours of life. What type of jaundice is most likely?

A) Physiologic jaundice
B) Breastfeeding jaundice
C) Pathologic jaundice
D) Hemolytic jaundice

A

Answer: C) Pathologic jaundice
Rationale: Bilirubin levels >17 mg/dL within the first 24-48 hours suggest pathologic jaundice and require immediate treatment​

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8
Q

What nursing intervention is essential for maintaining thermal regulation in preterm infants?

A) Encourage breastfeeding frequently.
B) Place the infant under a radiant warmer.
C) Perform frequent heel sticks.
D) Limit stimulation in the NICU.

A

Answer: B) Place the infant under a radiant warmer.
Rationale: Preterm infants are at risk for hypothermia due to inadequate subcutaneous fat and immature thermoregulation

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9
Q

A laboring patient is in the second stage of labor. Which assessment finding indicates progression toward delivery?

A) Cervical dilation of 5 cm
B) The fetus is at +2 station
C) Regular contractions every 10 minutes
D) The cervix is posterior and firm

A

Answer: B) The fetus is at +2 station
Rationale: A +2 station indicates the fetus has descended closer to the perineum, a sign of imminent delivery.

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10
Q

A postpartum patient has heavy lochia rubra with large clots. What is the nurse’s first action?

A) Call the healthcare provider
B) Administer oxytocin
C) Perform fundal massage
D) Increase IV fluids

A

Answer: C) Perform fundal massage
Rationale: Heavy bleeding and clots suggest uterine atony. Fundal massage is the first intervention to promote uterine contraction and reduce bleeding.

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10
Q

During the third stage of labor, what is the nurse’s priority intervention?

A) Assess fundal height and firmness
B) Encourage frequent position changes
C) Monitor for fetal heart rate variability
D) Prepare the patient for an epidural

A

Answer: A) Assess fundal height and firmness
Rationale: During the third stage of labor (delivery of the placenta), monitoring for hemorrhage is critical by assessing uterine tone.

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11
Q

What is a hallmark sign of uterine subinvolution during postpartum assessment?

A) Firm and midline fundus
B) Persistent lochia rubra and elevated fundal height
C) Decreased lochia and normal fundal position
D) Pain-free uterine cramping

A

Answer: B) Persistent lochia rubra and elevated fundal height
Rationale: Subinvolution involves delayed uterine involution, presenting as prolonged bleeding and an elevated fundus.

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11
Q

The nurse assesses a newborn with yellowish discoloration on the palms and soles but no other symptoms. What should the nurse suspect?

A) Pathologic jaundice
B) Carotenemia
C) Physiologic jaundice
D) Hemolytic disease

A

Answer: B) Carotenemia
Rationale: Yellow discoloration limited to palms and soles without scleral involvement is commonly due to carotenemia.

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12
Q

Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the cheek?

A) Moro reflex
B) Babinski reflex
C) Rooting reflex
D) Grasp reflex

A

Answer: C) Rooting reflex
Rationale: The rooting reflex prompts the newborn to turn their head toward the stimulus, aiding in feeding.

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13
Q

A term newborn is diagnosed with meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS). What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

A) Administer surfactant therapy
B) Perform deep suctioning below the vocal cords
C) Place the newborn in an incubator
D) Monitor glucose levels

A

B) Perform deep suctioning below the vocal cords
Rationale: Immediate suctioning is critical to clear meconium and prevent respiratory complications in MAS​

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14
Q

A newborn of a diabetic mother is jittery with a blood glucose level of 35 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s priority action?

A) Administer IV glucose
B) Initiate breastfeeding
C) Place the newborn under a radiant warmer
D) Monitor glucose every hour

A

Answer: B) Initiate breastfeeding
Rationale: Feeding is the first-line treatment for mild neonatal hypoglycemia; IV glucose is reserved for severe cases​

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15
Q

A breastfeeding newborn has lost 8% of birth weight by day 3. What is the nurse’s best intervention?

A) Reassure the parents that this is normal
B) Advise formula supplementation
C) Encourage more frequent feedings
D) Schedule immediate follow-up testing

A

Answer: C) Encourage more frequent feedings
Rationale: Weight loss up to 10% is normal in the first week. Frequent breastfeeding helps the infant regain weight.

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15
Q

A postpartum patient is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, and the fundus is boggy and midline. What is the nurse’s next step?

A) Insert a Foley catheter
B) Perform a bimanual uterine massage
C) Administer Methergine IM
D) Prepare for surgical intervention

A

Answer: B) Perform a bimanual uterine massage
Rationale: A boggy uterus indicates uterine atony, the most common cause of PPH. Massage stimulates uterine contractions to reduce bleeding.

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15
Q

The provider prescribes Hemabate (carboprost) for a patient experiencing postpartum hemorrhage. Which condition in the patient’s history would prompt the nurse to question this order?

A) Hypertension
B) Asthma
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Hypothyroidism

A

Answer: B) Asthma
Rationale: Hemabate can cause bronchoconstriction and is contraindicated in patients with asthma.

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15
Q

A preterm infant is diagnosed with RDS. The nurse anticipates administering which medication?

A) Surfactant via endotracheal tube
B) Epinephrine IM
C) Intravenous magnesium sulfate
D) Inhaled corticosteroids

A

Answer: A) Surfactant via endotracheal tube
Rationale: RDS is caused by surfactant deficiency in preterm infants, and surfactant replacement is the primary treatment.

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15
Q

A nurse is monitoring a preterm infant on mechanical ventilation for RDS. Which finding indicates improvement?

A) Decreased oxygen requirements
B) Increased work of breathing
C) Persistent apnea
D) Cyanosis on exertion

A

Answer: A) Decreased oxygen requirements
Rationale: Improved oxygenation indicates better lung compliance and reduced severity of RDS.

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16
Q

A nurse is caring for a preterm infant who is under a radiant warmer. What is the priority nursing assessment?

A) Monitor skin integrity
B) Assess core body temperature
C) Evaluate feeding tolerance
D) Monitor oxygen saturation

A

Answer: B) Assess core body temperature
Rationale: Preterm infants are at high risk for hypothermia, and maintaining a neutral thermal environment is critical.

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17
Q

A newborn with NAS exhibits sneezing, irritability, and high-pitched crying. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

A) Provide frequent skin-to-skin contact
B) Administer morphine as prescribed
C) Offer glucose water between feedings
D) Place the infant under phototherapy

A

Answer: B) Administer morphine as prescribed
Rationale: Morphine is used to manage severe withdrawal symptoms in NAS, ensuring comfort and stability.

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18
Q

What is the best method to prevent heat loss via conduction in a newborn?

A) Drying the newborn thoroughly after birth
B) Placing a warmed blanket on the scale before weighing the infant
C) Using a radiant warmer during procedures
D) Keeping the infant away from drafts

A

Answer: B) Placing a warmed blanket on the scale before weighing the infant
Rationale: Warming surfaces that come into contact with the newborn prevents heat loss through conduction.

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19
Q

A newborn with jaundice has a total bilirubin level of 20 mg/dL. The provider orders phototherapy. Which intervention is most critical for the nurse to perform?

A) Keep the newborn dressed to prevent hypothermia
B) Monitor bilirubin levels every 24 hours
C) Ensure the infant’s eyes are covered with protective patches
D) Limit feedings to prevent fluid overload

A

Answer: C) Ensure the infant’s eyes are covered with protective patches
Rationale: Phototherapy can damage the retina, so eye protection is essential during treatment.

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20
Q

Which nursing intervention is critical in managing a post-term newborn?

A) Perform heel sticks for blood glucose monitoring
B) Administer vitamin K immediately after birth
C) Delay initial feeding to reduce aspiration risk
D) Encourage early ambulation

A

Answer: A) Perform heel sticks for blood glucose monitoring
Rationale: Post-term infants are at risk for hypoglycemia due to depleted glycogen stores.

20
Q

A postpartum patient with a midline episiotomy reports perineal pain and swelling. What is the nurse’s best action?

A) Apply a warm compress
B) Perform a sterile perineal exam
C) Apply an ice pack to the area
D) Administer stool softeners

A

Answer: C) Apply an ice pack to the area
Rationale: Ice reduces pain and swelling during the first 24 hours postpartum.

21
Q

A late preterm newborn at 36 weeks gestation is being prepared for discharge. What is the priority teaching for the parents?

A) “Your baby’s immune system is fully developed, so vaccines can be delayed.”
B) “Monitor for jaundice and schedule follow-up within 48 hours.”
C) “Late preterm newborns do not require additional feeding support.”
D) “Your baby’s risk for hypoglycemia decreases significantly after discharge.”

A

Answer: B) “Monitor for jaundice and schedule follow-up within 48 hours.”
Rationale: Late preterm newborns are at higher risk for jaundice and require close monitoring and follow-up care.

21
Q

What is a distinguishing feature of post-term newborns during physical assessment?

A) Plump body with abundant vernix
B) Dry, cracked skin with long fingernails
C) Lanugo covering most of the body
D) Soft, flexible ear cartilage

A

Answer: B) Dry, cracked skin with long fingernails
Rationale: Post-term newborns often exhibit dry, peeling skin and long fingernails due to extended time in utero.

22
Q

Which newborn is at the highest risk of developing necrotizing enterocolitis?

A) A term newborn delivered by cesarean section
B) A preterm infant receiving enteral feeds
C) A newborn of a diabetic mother
D) A post-term infant with meconium-stained fluid

A

Answer: B) A preterm infant receiving enteral feeds
Rationale: Preterm infants with immature gastrointestinal systems are at greater risk, especially when receiving enteral feeds.

22
Q

During a maternal sepsis assessment, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute and a MAP of 60 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s priority action?

A) Perform a sterile pelvic exam
B) Start IV fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics
C) Obtain blood cultures and monitor vital signs every hour
D) Administer acetaminophen to reduce fever

A

Answer: B) Start IV fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics
Rationale: Early fluid resuscitation and antibiotics are critical in managing sepsis during the “golden hour”​

23
Q

What is the primary difference between conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin?

A) Unconjugated bilirubin is water-soluble.
B) Conjugated bilirubin can cross the blood-brain barrier.
C) Conjugated bilirubin is excreted in the urine and stool.
D) Unconjugated bilirubin is excreted through the kidneys.

A

Answer: C) Conjugated bilirubin is excreted in the urine and stool.
Rationale: Conjugated bilirubin is water-soluble and excreted through bile into the gastrointestinal system.

23
Q

A newborn of a diabetic mother presents with macrosomia and respiratory distress. What is the priority nursing action?

A) Administer a bolus of dextrose
B) Prepare for an immediate cesarean section
C) Monitor glucose and respiratory status closely
D) Encourage early skin-to-skin contact

A

Answer: C) Monitor glucose and respiratory status closely
Rationale: IDMs are at risk for hypoglycemia and respiratory distress, requiring close monitoring and intervention.

24
Q

Which finding is commonly associated with newborns of diabetic mothers?

A) Small for gestational age
B) Hypoglycemia and polycythemia
C) Hypercalcemia and jaundice
D) Bradycardia and hypothermia

A

Answer: B) Hypoglycemia and polycythemia
Rationale: Hypoglycemia results from hyperinsulinemia, and polycythemia is a compensatory response to chronic hypoxia in utero.

25
Q

A nurse is evaluating pain in a preterm newborn using a pain scale. Which finding is most indicative of pain?

A) Relaxed posture and steady respirations
B) Crying with increased heart rate and facial grimacing
C) Sleepy demeanor with normal oxygen saturation
D) Frequent yawning and sneezing

A

Answer: B) Crying with increased heart rate and facial grimacing
Rationale: These are classic signs of pain in newborns, commonly assessed using neonatal pain scales like the Finnegan scale.

26
Q

A nurse is teaching parents about pain management strategies for their newborn undergoing a circumcision. What should be included?

A) Administer acetaminophen prior to the procedure.
B) Swaddle the infant tightly during the procedure.
C) Offer a pacifier dipped in sucrose solution.
D) Avoid feeding the infant 2 hours prior to the procedure.

A

Answer: C) Offer a pacifier dipped in sucrose solution.
Rationale: Sucrose has analgesic properties and is effective in reducing procedural pain in newborns.

27
Q

What is the primary function of the ductus venosus in fetal circulation?

A) Shunting oxygenated blood away from the liver to the inferior vena cava
B) Allowing blood to bypass the lungs and flow directly to the left atrium
C) Delivering oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to the placenta
D) Transporting deoxygenated blood to the umbilical arteries

A

Answer: A) Shunting oxygenated blood away from the liver to the inferior vena cava
Rationale: The ductus venosus directs oxygenated blood from the placenta to the heart, bypassing the liver.

28
Q

A postpartum patient reports tearfulness, irritability, and difficulty sleeping but denies thoughts of harming herself or her baby. What is the best nursing intervention?

A) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
B) Provide reassurance and educate the patient about postpartum blues.
C) Initiate antidepressant therapy.
D) Arrange for psychiatric evaluation.

A

Answer: B) Provide reassurance and educate the patient about postpartum blues.
Rationale: Postpartum blues typically resolve within two weeks and require reassurance and education about self-care and rest​

29
Q

A new mother experiences delusions about her baby being possessed. What is the nurse’s priority action?

A) Provide reassurance and promote bonding.
B) Refer the patient for outpatient therapy.
C) Place the patient on suicide precautions.
D) Ensure immediate psychiatric evaluation.

A

Answer: D) Ensure immediate psychiatric evaluation.
Rationale: Postpartum psychosis is a psychiatric emergency that requires immediate intervention to ensure safety for both the mother and baby

29
Q

A postpartum patient is prescribed sertraline for postpartum depression. What teaching should the nurse provide?

A) “This medication will relieve symptoms within 24 hours.”
B) “Avoid breastfeeding while taking this medication.”
C) “It may take 4-6 weeks to notice an improvement in symptoms.”
D) “Take this medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.”

A

Answer: C) “It may take 4-6 weeks to notice an improvement in symptoms.”
Rationale: Antidepressants like sertraline often take several weeks to reach therapeutic levels

30
Q

A postpartum patient presents with a fever of 38.5°C, tachycardia, and foul-smelling lochia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

A) Administer acetaminophen for fever.
B) Perform a sterile pelvic exam.
C) Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics and IV fluids.
D) Encourage ambulation to reduce the risk of thrombosis.

A

Answer: C) Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics and IV fluids.
Rationale: Maternal sepsis requires immediate administration of antibiotics and fluids to prevent progression to septic shock

31
Q

What risk factor places a postpartum woman at the greatest risk for maternal sepsis?

A) Vaginal delivery
B) Cesarean section with prolonged labor
C) Early rupture of membranes
D) A history of gestational diabetes

A

Answer: B) Cesarean section with prolonged labor
Rationale: Prolonged labor increases the risk of infections, particularly in cesarean deliveries, which are associated with higher maternal sepsis rates​

31
Q

What is the most common complication in large-for-gestational-age (LGA) infants?

A) Polycythemia
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Respiratory distress
D) Hyperbilirubinemia

A

Answer: B) Hypoglycemia
Rationale: LGA infants are prone to hypoglycemia due to hyperinsulinemia caused by maternal diabetes​

31
Q

A nurse assesses a newborn with a birth weight of 2,300 grams. The baby has loose skin, thin umbilical cord, and a sunken abdomen. What is the priority nursing intervention?

A) Place the infant under a radiant warmer.
B) Initiate frequent, early feedings.
C) Perform heel-stick glucose testing every 3 hours.
D) Administer oxygen therapy.

A

Answer: B) Initiate frequent, early feedings.
Rationale: Small-for-gestational-age (SGA) infants are at high risk for hypoglycemia due to inadequate glycogen stores. Frequent feedings help stabilize glucose levels

31
Q

A newborn with a total bilirubin level of 18 mg/dL at 48 hours of life is prescribed phototherapy. What is the priority nursing intervention?

A) Cover the infant’s eyes and genitalia during therapy.
B) Delay feedings to prevent diarrhea.
C) Turn off the phototherapy lights during parental visits.
D) Monitor bilirubin levels every 48 hours.

A

Answer: A) Cover the infant’s eyes and genitalia during therapy.
Rationale: Protecting sensitive areas from light exposure is crucial during phototherapy to prevent complications​

31
Q

A preterm infant develops nasal flaring, retractions, and grunting within hours of birth. What is the priority nursing action?

A) Administer surfactant therapy.
B) Place the infant in an incubator.
C) Monitor oxygen saturation hourly.
D) Start kangaroo care.

A

Answer: A) Administer surfactant therapy.
Rationale: Surfactant therapy addresses alveolar collapse and improves oxygenation in preterm infants with RDS​

32
Q

A nurse is caring for a newborn with NAS who exhibits high-pitched crying, irritability, and poor feeding. What is the most appropriate nonpharmacologic intervention?

A) Place the infant in a quiet, dimly lit environment.
B) Delay feedings until symptoms subside.
C) Administer oral sucrose for comfort.
D) Initiate phototherapy.

A

Answer: A) Place the infant in a quiet, dimly lit environment.
Rationale: Minimizing environmental stimulation helps soothe newborns with NAS and reduces symptom severity

33
Q

The patient is fully dilated and begins to bear down. What is the nurse’s priority action during this stage?

A) Administer IV fluids to prevent dehydration.
B) Coach the patient on effective pushing techniques.
C) Perform a vaginal examination every 30 minutes.
D) Encourage frequent position changes.

A

Answer: B) Coach the patient on effective pushing techniques.
Rationale: Guiding the patient on how to push effectively maximizes the use of contractions and promotes delivery

33
Q

During the active phase of the first stage of labor, the nurse observes frequent, moderate-intensity contractions every 3-5 minutes. What is the best action?

A) Monitor for signs of fetal distress using continuous electronic fetal monitoring.
B) Assist the patient to void every 4-6 hours.
C) Encourage the patient to push during each contraction.
D) Increase oral fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

A

Answer: A) Monitor for signs of fetal distress using continuous electronic fetal monitoring.
Rationale: Continuous monitoring is crucial during the active phase to ensure fetal well-being as labor progresses​

34
Q

A woman in the latent phase of the first stage of labor is experiencing mild contractions every 8-10 minutes lasting 30 seconds. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

A) Encourage frequent ambulation.
B) Offer an epidural for pain relief.
C) Monitor fetal heart rate every 5 minutes.
D) Administer IV oxytocin.

A

Answer: A) Encourage frequent ambulation.
Rationale: In the latent phase, promoting ambulation helps enhance labor progress and comfort. Epidurals and oxytocin are not typically needed at this stage unless medically indicated.

35
Q

The fetal heart rate shows decelerations during pushing in the second stage of labor. What should the nurse do first?

A) Reassess fetal heart rate after delivery.
B) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C) Encourage the patient to push with each contraction.
D) Reposition the patient to improve uteroplacental blood flow.

A

Answer: D) Reposition the patient to improve uteroplacental blood flow.
Rationale: Maternal position changes can alleviate cord compression or improve blood flow to the fetus, addressing decelerations.

36
Q

After the delivery of the newborn, the placenta has not been expelled within 30 minutes. What is the nurse’s priority action?

A) Administer oxytocin as prescribed.
B) Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
C) Perform fundal massage to expel the placenta.
D) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

A

Answer: A) Administer oxytocin as prescribed.
Rationale: Oxytocin promotes uterine contractions, aiding in the expulsion of the placenta during the third stage of labor

37
Q

The nurse notes excessive bleeding after the placenta is delivered. What is the first nursing intervention?

A) Call for immediate surgical intervention.
B) Apply an abdominal binder.
C) Massage the fundus to promote uterine contraction.
D) Administer oral iron supplements.

A

Answer: C) Massage the fundus to promote uterine contraction.
Rationale: Fundal massage is the first step to address postpartum bleeding caused by uterine atony

38
Q

During the fourth stage of labor, the nurse assesses the patient’s vital signs and finds a heart rate of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg. What is the priority nursing action?

A) Reassess vital signs in 30 minutes.
B) Increase the rate of IV fluids and notify the provider.
C) Document the findings as normal postpartum changes.
D) Administer antihypertensive medication.

A

Answer: B) Increase the rate of IV fluids and notify the provider.
Rationale: Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of hypovolemic shock, requiring prompt intervention to prevent further complications

39
Q

A postpartum patient reports chills and shakes during the fourth stage of labor. What is the best nursing intervention?

A) Administer acetaminophen for fever.
B) Assess for signs of infection.
C) Provide warm blankets and reassure the patient.
D) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

A

Answer: C) Provide warm blankets and reassure the patient.
Rationale: Shaking and chills are common physiological responses during the fourth stage of labor, often resolving with comfort measures​

40
Q

When does transit tachypena
in a newborn resolve?

A

72 hours

41
Q

When does neonate abstinence syndrome occur?

A

72 hours

42
Q

When does physiological jaundice occur?

A

Day three or four

43
Q

Nursing management for phototherapy…

A

Cover eyes and genitals turn every two hours, assess temperature every 3 to 4 hours, monitor eyes and nose, feed every 2 to 3 hours, and monitor a patient stool.

44
Q

Sepsis criterion and symptoms…

A

Blood count greater than 17,000 in patients. Also, give gentamycin and amplicillian for 90% of OB sepsis

45
Q

What medicine should be given for a patient with postpartum depression?

A

Zoloft

46
Q

Three things a post term baby may have?

A

Dry cracked wrinkly skin, meconium aspiration, and a lot of hair.

47
Q

Perinatal Asphyxia

A

Academia due to delayed pulmonary oxygen leading to metabolic acidosis

48
Q

Birthweights: SGA, AGA, LGA

A

S: less than 2500 (5.7lb)
A: 2500 or more (5.8lb)
L: 4000g or more (8.8lb)

49
Q

Very low birth weight

A

1500g 3.5lb

50
Q

Extremely low birth weight

A

1000 or 2.3lb