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Phlebotomy > Quiz 1 > Flashcards

Quiz 1 Flashcards

1
Q

AHA

A

American Hospital Association/organization that published “The Patient Care Partnership” brochure

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2
Q

ambulatory

A

another name for outpatient

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3
Q

Blood Bank (Immunohematology)

A

laboratory department where type and screen tests are performed

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4
Q

C&S

A

culture and sensitivity/type of test performed in the microbiology department

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5
Q

certification

A

evidence that an individual has mastered competencies in a technical specialty

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6
Q

CEUs

A

units awarded for participating in continuing education activities

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7
Q

chemistry

A

laboratory department that typically performs the most tests

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8
Q

CLIA ‘88

A

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988

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9
Q

CMS

A

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

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10
Q

coagulation

A

laboratory department that performs protime tests

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11
Q

communication barriers

A

biases that are major obstructions to verbal communication

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12
Q

CPT

A

current procedural terminology codes

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13
Q

cytogenetics

A

laboratory department that performs tests to identify chromosome deficiencies

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14
Q

cytology

A

laboratory department that studies cells to detect malignant and premalignant conditions

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15
Q

ethical behavior

A

conforming to a standard of right and wrong conduct

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16
Q

ethics

A

a system of moral principles that govern conduct

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17
Q

HCWs

A

Healthcare workers

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18
Q

hematology

A

the study of blood and blood-forming tissues

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19
Q

HIPAA

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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20
Q

histology

A

the study of the microscopic structure of the tissue

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21
Q

HMOs

A

Health maintenance organizations

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22
Q

IACET

A

International Association for Continuing Education and Training

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23
Q

ICD-10-PCS

A

International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Procedure Coding System

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24
Q

kinesic slip

A

study of nonverbal communication

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25
Q

MCOs

A

Managed Care Organizations

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26
Q

Medicaid

A

federal and state health insurance program for eligible low-income Americans

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27
Q

Medicare

A

federal health insurance program for seniors who are 65 and older

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28
Q

microbiology

A

laboratory department that performs culture and sensitivity (C&S) testing

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29
Q

MLS

A

Medical Laboratory Scientist

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30
Q

MLT

A

medical laboratory technician

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31
Q

NAACLS (National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences)

A

an agency that approves phlebotomy programs

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32
Q

nonambulatory

A

another name for inpatient

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33
Q

PHI

A

Public Health Service, promotes and administers programs for Public Health

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34
Q

phlebotomy

A

Incision into the vein for the purpose of drawing blood

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35
Q

PPOs

A

Preferred Provider Organizations

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36
Q

primary care

A

a patient’s main source of routine medical care

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37
Q

proxemics

A

study of an individual’s concept of and use of space

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38
Q

reference laboratories

A

large independent laboratories that test specimens from many different facilities

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39
Q

secondary care

A

care by a specialist

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40
Q

Serology/Immunology

A

laboratory department that identifies antigens and antibodies

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41
Q

TAT

A

turnaround time

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42
Q

tertiary care

A

highly specialized care

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43
Q

third-party payer

A

entity that pays for healthcare services on behalf of a patient

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44
Q

UA

A

urinalysis/laboratory department with the same name as the most common test it performs

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45
Q

airborne precautions

A

used to reduce the risk of infection from pathogens in airborne droplet nuclei

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46
Q

asepsis

A

condition of being free of pathogenic microbes

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47
Q

aseptic technique

A

healthcare practice used to reduce the chance of microbial contamination

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48
Q

BBP

A

blood borne pathogen; term applied to infectious microorganisms in blood and other body fluids

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49
Q

biohazard

A

anything harmful to health

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50
Q

biosafety

A

taking precautions when handling biological substances that pose health risks

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51
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

common cause of diarrhea in healthcare settings

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52
Q

CDC

A

Center for Disease Control; federal agency charged with the investigation and control of various diseases

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53
Q

chain of infection

A

used to reduce the risk of infection from direct contact with pathogens

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54
Q

contact precautions

A

used to reduce the risk of infection from direct contact with pathogens

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55
Q

droplet precautions

A

used to reduce the risk of infection from pathogens in droplets

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56
Q

engineering controls

A

devices that isolate a workplace BBP hazard

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57
Q

EPA

A

Environmental Protection Agency; federal agency that regulates the disposal of hazardous waste

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58
Q

fomites

A

inanimate objects that can harbor infectious agents and transmit infections (e.g., toilets, sinks, linens, door knobs, glasses, phlebotomy supplies, etc.)

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59
Q

HAI

A

Healthcare-associated infection; infection acquired in any healthcare setting

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60
Q

HBV

A

hepatitis B virus

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61
Q

HCS

A

OSHA standard regarding hazardous chemicals

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62
Q

HIV

A

human immunodeficiency virus; virus that causes AIDS

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63
Q

immune

A

protected from a specific disease by antibodies

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64
Q

infectious/causative agent

A

pathogen responsible for causing an infection

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65
Q

isolation procedures

A

procedures that separate patients with certain transmissible infections from others

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66
Q

microbe

A

short for microorganism

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67
Q

MRSA

A

methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus; a type of bacteria that is resistant to methicillin

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68
Q

neutropenic

A

having an abnormally low neutrophil count

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69
Q

normal flora

A

nonpathogenic microbes normally on skin and other areas of the body

70
Q

nosocomial infection

A

infection acquired in a hospital

71
Q

OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration; federal agency that mandates and enforces safe working conditions for employees

72
Q

parenteral

A

any route other than the digestive tract

73
Q

pathogenic

A

capable of causing disease

74
Q

pathogens

A

microorganisms capable of causing disease

75
Q

percutaneous

A

through the skin

76
Q

permucosal

A

through mucous membranes

77
Q

PPE

A

Personal Protective Equipment; protective items worn by an individual

78
Q

Protective/reverse isolation

A

protects a patient who is highly susceptible to infection

79
Q

reservoir

A

source of an infectious microorganism

80
Q

SDS

A

Safety Data Sheet; contains hazardous chemical information

81
Q

standard precautions

A

precautions to be used in caring for all patients

82
Q

susceptible host

A

individual with little resistance to an infectious agent

83
Q

transmission-based precautions

A

precautions that reduce the risk of airborne, droplet, or contact transmission

84
Q

vector transmission

A

transmission of an infectious agent by an insect, arthropod, or animal

85
Q

vehicle transmission

A

transmission of an infectious agent through contaminated food, water, drugs, or blood

86
Q

viability

A

ability of a microbe to survive

87
Q

virulence

A

degree to which a microbe is capable of causing disease

88
Q

VRE

A

vancomycin resistant enterococcus; enterococcus bacteria that are resistant to vancomycin

89
Q

work practice controls

A

practices that reduce the likelihood of BBP exposure

90
Q

ACD

A

additive used for immunohematology tests such as DNA and HLA typing

91
Q

additive

A

substance added to a blood collection tube

92
Q

anticoagulants

A

substances that prevent blood from clotting

93
Q

antiglycolytic agent

A

antiglycolytic agent

94
Q

antiglycolytic agent

A

substances used for skin cleaning that inhibit the growth of bacteria

95
Q

bevel

A

point of a needle that is cut on a slant for ease of skin entry

96
Q

biocide

A

chemical that kills or inhibits the growth of living organisms

97
Q

blood collection sets

A

special winged and nonwinged needle sets with attached tubing

98
Q

carry-over/cross-contamination

A

transfer of additive from one tube to the next

99
Q

clear/discard tube

A

term for a tube drawn to remove air from the tubing and then thrown away

100
Q

clot activator

A

coagulation-enhancing substance, such as silica

101
Q

CPD

A

additive used for collecting units of blood

102
Q

disinfectants

A

solutions used to kill microorganisms on surfaces and instruments

103
Q

EDTA

A

anticoagulant that preserves blood cell shape and structure and inhibits platelet clumping

104
Q

ETS

A

abbreviation for the collection system typically used for routine venipuncture

105
Q

evacuated tubes

A

tubes with premeasured vacuums and color-coded stoppers

106
Q

gauge

A

number that is related to the diameter of the needle lumen

107
Q

glycolysis

A

breakdown or metabolism of glucose by blood cells

108
Q

heparin

A

anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of thrombin

109
Q

hypodermic needle

A

type of needle designed to be used when collecting blood with a syringe

110
Q

lumen

A

internal space of a vessel or tube

111
Q

multisample needles

A

used to collect several tubes during single venipunctures

112
Q

Order of draw

A

special sequence in which tubes are filled during a multiple-tube draw

113
Q

potassium oxalate

A

anticoagulant commonly used with an antiglycolytic agent

114
Q

PPTs

A

heparinized gel tubes for separation of cells and plasma

115
Q

RST

A

tube containing thrombin and gel barrier

116
Q

SESIP

A

OSHA acronym for a sharp that has a safety feature

117
Q

sharps containers

A

special puncture-resistant leakproof disposable containers

118
Q

sodium citrate

A

anticoagulant commonly used to preserve coagulation factors

119
Q

sodium fluoride

A

Most common antiglycolytic agent. preserves glucose for up to three days and prohibits growth of bacteria. Gray stoppers, between five to ten inversions

120
Q

SPS

A

additive used in blood culture collection

121
Q

SSTs

A

gel tubes used for separation of cells and serum

122
Q

syringe transfer device

A

safety device required for syringe blood draws

123
Q

thixotropic gel

A

synthetic substance used to separate cells from serum or plasma

124
Q

trace element-free tubes

A

royal-blue-top tubes

125
Q

winged infusion set

A

blood collection set often called a butterfly

126
Q

accession

A

record in the order received

127
Q

anchor

A

secure firmly, as in holding a vein in place by pulling the skin taut with the thumb

128
Q

arm/wrist/ID band

A

terms for an identification bracelet on a patient’s wrist

129
Q

bedside manner

A

behavior of a healthcare provider toward a patient or as perceived by a patient

130
Q

belonephobia

A

the persistent, irrational fear of needles

131
Q

cognitive impairment

A

typically involves trouble concentrating, learning, and making decisions

132
Q

dialysis

A

procedure in which a patient’s blood is artificially filtered

133
Q

DNR/DNAR

A

Do not resuscitate/Do not attempt resuscitation

134
Q

EMLA

A

Acronym for a topical skin anesthetic

135
Q

geriatric

A

relating to old age

136
Q

hospice

A

type of care for terminally ill patients

137
Q

MR number

A

medical record number used for patient ID

138
Q

NPO

A

nothing by mouth

139
Q

palpate

A

to examine by feel or touch

140
Q

needle sheath

A

covering or cap of a needle

141
Q

preop/postop

A

before surgery/after surgery

142
Q

recumbent

A

lying down

143
Q

reflux

A

backflow of blood from the tube into the vein during a draw

144
Q

requisition

A

form on which test orders are entered and sent to the laboratory

145
Q

stasis

A

slowing or stoppage of normal flow

146
Q

taut

A

pulled tight or without slack

147
Q

turgid

A

distended from being filled with blood

148
Q

Tourniquets should:

A

Be disposable, restrict blood flow and inflate veins

149
Q

apply tourniquet snugly:

A

3 to 4 inches above intended site

150
Q

The phlebotomist knows when preparing the patient for venipuncture they must determine the patient understands the procedure. This is called:

A

informed consent

151
Q

the phlebotomist must review the requisition to:

A
  • identify diet restrictions or other circumstances
  • verify tests to be collected with time and date of collection
  • ensure all the required information is present and complete
152
Q

what is true about cleaning the venipuncture site:

A

70% isopropyl alcohol is the most common antiseptic to use

153
Q

the phlebotomist should verify the information on each labeled tube with:

A

the patients wrist band and requistion

154
Q

the phlebotomist knows the order of draw is important to prevent:

A

transfer of additive to the next tube

155
Q

When should the phlebotomist mix the anticoagulant tubes containing blood specimens?

A

Immediately after removal from the blood drawing system

156
Q

The gauge of the needle stands for:

A

the diameter of the lumen

157
Q

the phlebotomist knows when collecting venipuncture specimens from geriatric patients:

A
  • not to rely on nods of agreement when verifying the patient identification
  • during the site selection avoid bruised areas
  • hold pressure longer as bleeding may take longer
158
Q

the phlebotomist knows that ______ may be more effective with small or difficult veins.

A

the winged (butterfly) infusion set

159
Q

what are anticoagulants?

A

substances that prevent blood from clotting

160
Q

the phlebotomist knows that they should mix the anticoagulant tubes ______ to prevent hemolysis.

A

by gently inverting them back and fourth

161
Q

what are the two main types of infection?

A

nosocomial/hospital-acquired and communicable

162
Q

what is your first action when blood splatters in your face?

A

flush site with water and sterile saline for at least 10 mins

163
Q

what is the first thing a phlebotomist should do when an accidental needlestick?

A

wash the site with soap and water for at least 30 seconds

164
Q

order of draw

A
  1. blood cultures
  2. light blue (citrate)
  3. gold or tiger top (SST)
  4. green (herparin)
  5. lavender (EDTA)
  6. Grey (oxalate)
165
Q

Blood cultures

A

Test to determine the presence

of bacteria in the bloodstream

166
Q

Light blue

A 
Used to test the blood’s ability 
to clot
special considerations: The tube has to be perfectly full
• 9:1 blood:additive ratio
• May need to draw a blank tube
167
Q

Gold

A 
Used to separate serum for analysis
• Blood must clot in order for tests to be 
accurate (60-90 minutes)
• Analyze what’s in the serum, NOT the 
blood cells
• Electrolytes (Sodium, Potassium, Calcium)
• Drug levels
• Glucose
• Markers (BUN, Creatinine, Troponin)
168
Q

Green

A 
Can do the same tests as the SST 
without needing to wait!
• MORE EXPENSIVE
• Used in emergency situations
• ICU and Emergency Room 
• Code Situations
• Often samples are sent ON ICE
169
Q

plasma

A

Liquid component of

anticoagulated blood

170
Q

serum

A

The liquid component of clotted

(coagulated) blood

171
Q

Lavender

A
  • EDTA is a cell preservative
  • Helps to preserve a cell’s morphology (shape and characteristics)
  • Lavender tubes allow us to focus on the formed elements of the blood:
  • Erythrocytes (Red Blood Cells)
  • Leukocytes (White Blood Cells)
  • Platelets
  • Blood type ABO
172
Q

grey

A

Inhibits glycolysis: “freezes” blood metabolically
• Preserves blood close to the state it was “In Vivo”
• Appropriate for clinics, outpatient, and for forensic
• Situations where tubes may sit around for a few days before analysis
• Glucose Tolerance Test
• Blood Alcohol Level

Phlebotomy (5 decks)

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