Quiz 1 Flashcards
1
Q
AHA
A
American Hospital Association/organization that published “The Patient Care Partnership” brochure
2
Q
ambulatory
A
another name for outpatient
3
Q
Blood Bank (Immunohematology)
A
laboratory department where type and screen tests are performed
4
Q
C&S
A
culture and sensitivity/type of test performed in the microbiology department
5
Q
certification
A
evidence that an individual has mastered competencies in a technical specialty
6
Q
CEUs
A
units awarded for participating in continuing education activities
7
Q
chemistry
A
laboratory department that typically performs the most tests
8
Q
CLIA ‘88
A
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988
9
Q
CMS
A
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
10
Q
coagulation
A
laboratory department that performs protime tests
11
Q
communication barriers
A
biases that are major obstructions to verbal communication
12
Q
CPT
A
current procedural terminology codes
13
Q
cytogenetics
A
laboratory department that performs tests to identify chromosome deficiencies
14
Q
cytology
A
laboratory department that studies cells to detect malignant and premalignant conditions
15
Q
ethical behavior
A
conforming to a standard of right and wrong conduct
16
Q
ethics
A
a system of moral principles that govern conduct
17
Q
HCWs
A
Healthcare workers
18
Q
hematology
A
the study of blood and blood-forming tissues
19
Q
HIPAA
A
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
20
Q
histology
A
the study of the microscopic structure of the tissue
21
Q
HMOs
A
Health maintenance organizations
22
Q
IACET
A
International Association for Continuing Education and Training
23
Q
ICD-10-PCS
A
International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Procedure Coding System
24
Q
kinesic slip
A
study of nonverbal communication
25
MCOs
Managed Care Organizations
26
Medicaid
federal and state health insurance program for eligible low-income Americans
27
Medicare
federal health insurance program for seniors who are 65 and older
28
microbiology
laboratory department that performs culture and sensitivity (C&S) testing
29
MLS
Medical Laboratory Scientist
30
MLT
medical laboratory technician
31
NAACLS (National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences)
an agency that approves phlebotomy programs
32
nonambulatory
another name for inpatient
33
PHI
Public Health Service, promotes and administers programs for Public Health
34
phlebotomy
Incision into the vein for the purpose of drawing blood
35
PPOs
Preferred Provider Organizations
36
primary care
a patient's main source of routine medical care
37
proxemics
study of an individual's concept of and use of space
38
reference laboratories
large independent laboratories that test specimens from many different facilities
39
secondary care
care by a specialist
40
Serology/Immunology
laboratory department that identifies antigens and antibodies
41
TAT
turnaround time
42
tertiary care
highly specialized care
43
third-party payer
entity that pays for healthcare services on behalf of a patient
44
UA
urinalysis/laboratory department with the same name as the most common test it performs
45
airborne precautions
used to reduce the risk of infection from pathogens in airborne droplet nuclei
46
asepsis
condition of being free of pathogenic microbes
47
aseptic technique
healthcare practice used to reduce the chance of microbial contamination
48
BBP
blood borne pathogen; term applied to infectious microorganisms in blood and other body fluids
49
biohazard
anything harmful to health
50
biosafety
taking precautions when handling biological substances that pose health risks
51
Clostridium difficile
common cause of diarrhea in healthcare settings
52
CDC
Center for Disease Control; federal agency charged with the investigation and control of various diseases
53
chain of infection
used to reduce the risk of infection from direct contact with pathogens
54
contact precautions
used to reduce the risk of infection from direct contact with pathogens
55
droplet precautions
used to reduce the risk of infection from pathogens in droplets
56
engineering controls
devices that isolate a workplace BBP hazard
57
EPA
Environmental Protection Agency; federal agency that regulates the disposal of hazardous waste
58
fomites
inanimate objects that can harbor infectious agents and transmit infections (e.g., toilets, sinks, linens, door knobs, glasses, phlebotomy supplies, etc.)
59
HAI
Healthcare-associated infection; infection acquired in any healthcare setting
60
HBV
hepatitis B virus
61
HCS
OSHA standard regarding hazardous chemicals
62
HIV
human immunodeficiency virus; virus that causes AIDS
63
immune
protected from a specific disease by antibodies
64
infectious/causative agent
pathogen responsible for causing an infection
65
isolation procedures
procedures that separate patients with certain transmissible infections from others
66
microbe
short for microorganism
67
MRSA
methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus; a type of bacteria that is resistant to methicillin
68
neutropenic
having an abnormally low neutrophil count
69
normal flora
nonpathogenic microbes normally on skin and other areas of the body
70
nosocomial infection
infection acquired in a hospital
71
OSHA
Occupational Safety and Health Administration; federal agency that mandates and enforces safe working conditions for employees
72
parenteral
any route other than the digestive tract
73
pathogenic
capable of causing disease
74
pathogens
microorganisms capable of causing disease
75
percutaneous
through the skin
76
permucosal
through mucous membranes
77
PPE
Personal Protective Equipment; protective items worn by an individual
78
Protective/reverse isolation
protects a patient who is highly susceptible to infection
79
reservoir
source of an infectious microorganism
80
SDS
Safety Data Sheet; contains hazardous chemical information
81
standard precautions
precautions to be used in caring for all patients
82
susceptible host
individual with little resistance to an infectious agent
83
transmission-based precautions
precautions that reduce the risk of airborne, droplet, or contact transmission
84
vector transmission
transmission of an infectious agent by an insect, arthropod, or animal
85
vehicle transmission
transmission of an infectious agent through contaminated food, water, drugs, or blood
86
viability
ability of a microbe to survive
87
virulence
degree to which a microbe is capable of causing disease
88
VRE
vancomycin resistant enterococcus; enterococcus bacteria that are resistant to vancomycin
89
work practice controls
practices that reduce the likelihood of BBP exposure
90
ACD
additive used for immunohematology tests such as DNA and HLA typing
91
additive
substance added to a blood collection tube
92
anticoagulants
substances that prevent blood from clotting
93
antiglycolytic agent
antiglycolytic agent
94
antiglycolytic agent
substances used for skin cleaning that inhibit the growth of bacteria
95
bevel
point of a needle that is cut on a slant for ease of skin entry
96
biocide
chemical that kills or inhibits the growth of living organisms
97
blood collection sets
special winged and nonwinged needle sets with attached tubing
98
carry-over/cross-contamination
transfer of additive from one tube to the next
99
clear/discard tube
term for a tube drawn to remove air from the tubing and then thrown away
100
clot activator
coagulation-enhancing substance, such as silica
101
CPD
additive used for collecting units of blood
102
disinfectants
solutions used to kill microorganisms on surfaces and instruments
103
EDTA
anticoagulant that preserves blood cell shape and structure and inhibits platelet clumping
104
ETS
abbreviation for the collection system typically used for routine venipuncture
105
evacuated tubes
tubes with premeasured vacuums and color-coded stoppers
106
gauge
number that is related to the diameter of the needle lumen
107
glycolysis
breakdown or metabolism of glucose by blood cells
108
heparin
anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of thrombin
109
hypodermic needle
type of needle designed to be used when collecting blood with a syringe
110
lumen
internal space of a vessel or tube
111
multisample needles
used to collect several tubes during single venipunctures
112
Order of draw
special sequence in which tubes are filled during a multiple-tube draw
113
potassium oxalate
anticoagulant commonly used with an antiglycolytic agent
114
PPTs
heparinized gel tubes for separation of cells and plasma
115
RST
tube containing thrombin and gel barrier
116
SESIP
OSHA acronym for a sharp that has a safety feature
117
sharps containers
special puncture-resistant leakproof disposable containers
118
sodium citrate
anticoagulant commonly used to preserve coagulation factors
119
sodium fluoride
Most common antiglycolytic agent. preserves glucose for up to three days and prohibits growth of bacteria. Gray stoppers, between five to ten inversions
120
SPS
additive used in blood culture collection
121
SSTs
gel tubes used for separation of cells and serum
122
syringe transfer device
safety device required for syringe blood draws
123
thixotropic gel
synthetic substance used to separate cells from serum or plasma
124
trace element-free tubes
royal-blue-top tubes
125
winged infusion set
blood collection set often called a butterfly
126
accession
record in the order received
127
anchor
secure firmly, as in holding a vein in place by pulling the skin taut with the thumb
128
arm/wrist/ID band
terms for an identification bracelet on a patient's wrist
129
bedside manner
behavior of a healthcare provider toward a patient or as perceived by a patient
130
belonephobia
the persistent, irrational fear of needles
131
cognitive impairment
typically involves trouble concentrating, learning, and making decisions
132
dialysis
procedure in which a patient's blood is artificially filtered
133
DNR/DNAR
Do not resuscitate/Do not attempt resuscitation
134
EMLA
Acronym for a topical skin anesthetic
135
geriatric
relating to old age
136
hospice
type of care for terminally ill patients
137
MR number
medical record number used for patient ID
138
NPO
nothing by mouth
139
palpate
to examine by feel or touch
140
needle sheath
covering or cap of a needle
141
preop/postop
before surgery/after surgery
142
recumbent
lying down
143
reflux
backflow of blood from the tube into the vein during a draw
144
requisition
form on which test orders are entered and sent to the laboratory
145
stasis
slowing or stoppage of normal flow
146
taut
pulled tight or without slack
147
turgid
distended from being filled with blood
148
Tourniquets should:
Be disposable, restrict blood flow and inflate veins
149
apply tourniquet snugly:
3 to 4 inches above intended site
150
The phlebotomist knows when preparing the patient for venipuncture they must determine the patient understands the procedure. This is called:
informed consent
151
the phlebotomist must review the requisition to:
- identify diet restrictions or other circumstances
- verify tests to be collected with time and date of collection
- ensure all the required information is present and complete
152
what is true about cleaning the venipuncture site:
70% isopropyl alcohol is the most common antiseptic to use
153
the phlebotomist should verify the information on each labeled tube with:
the patients wrist band and requistion
154
the phlebotomist knows the order of draw is important to prevent:
transfer of additive to the next tube
155
When should the phlebotomist mix the anticoagulant tubes containing blood specimens?
Immediately after removal from the blood drawing system
156
The gauge of the needle stands for:
the diameter of the lumen
157
the phlebotomist knows when collecting venipuncture specimens from geriatric patients:
- not to rely on nods of agreement when verifying the patient identification
- during the site selection avoid bruised areas
- hold pressure longer as bleeding may take longer
158
the phlebotomist knows that ______ may be more effective with small or difficult veins.
the winged (butterfly) infusion set
159
what are anticoagulants?
substances that prevent blood from clotting
160
the phlebotomist knows that they should mix the anticoagulant tubes ______ to prevent hemolysis.
by gently inverting them back and fourth
161
what are the two main types of infection?
nosocomial/hospital-acquired and communicable
162
what is your first action when blood splatters in your face?
flush site with water and sterile saline for at least 10 mins
163
what is the first thing a phlebotomist should do when an accidental needlestick?
wash the site with soap and water for at least 30 seconds
164
order of draw
1. blood cultures
2. light blue (citrate)
3. gold or tiger top (SST)
4. green (herparin)
5. lavender (EDTA)
6. Grey (oxalate)
165
Blood cultures
Test to determine the presence
| of bacteria in the bloodstream
166
Light blue
```
Used to test the blood’s ability
to clot
special considerations: The tube has to be perfectly full
• 9:1 blood:additive ratio
• May need to draw a blank tube
```
167
Gold
```
Used to separate serum for analysis
• Blood must clot in order for tests to be
accurate (60-90 minutes)
• Analyze what’s in the serum, NOT the
blood cells
• Electrolytes (Sodium, Potassium, Calcium)
• Drug levels
• Glucose
• Markers (BUN, Creatinine, Troponin)
```
168
Green
```
Can do the same tests as the SST
without needing to wait!
• MORE EXPENSIVE
• Used in emergency situations
• ICU and Emergency Room
• Code Situations
• Often samples are sent ON ICE
```
169
plasma
Liquid component of
| anticoagulated blood
170
serum
The liquid component of clotted
| (coagulated) blood
171
Lavender
* EDTA is a cell preservative
* Helps to preserve a cell’s morphology (shape and characteristics)
* Lavender tubes allow us to focus on the formed elements of the blood:
* Erythrocytes (Red Blood Cells)
* Leukocytes (White Blood Cells)
* Platelets
* Blood type ABO
172
grey
Inhibits glycolysis: “freezes” blood metabolically
• Preserves blood close to the state it was “In Vivo”
• Appropriate for clinics, outpatient, and for forensic
• Situations where tubes may sit around for a few days before analysis
• Glucose Tolerance Test
• Blood Alcohol Level
