Quick Medication Reference Flashcards

1
Q

Acepromazine pros are?

A

Adding acepromazine to drugs like morphine (which can also cause sedation) will reduce the needed dose of morphine and therefore decrease side effects associated with this drug (decrease in respiratory rate and heart rate). Acepromazine has some anti-emetic effects (will help block vomiting).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acepromazine cons are?

A

Acepromazine can cause hypotension.

Acepromazine should be used cautiously (or not at all) in brachycephalic breeds, as the relaxation of the throat area can increase breathing difficulty associated with the elongated soft palate these breeds usually have.

Large and giant breeds are exceptionally sensitive to acepromazine. Doses should be cut in half for dogs over 30kg, and we NEVER give more than 2 mg ace to any dog, no matter what.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Basic Acepromazine info?

A

Phenothiazine sedative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What’s important to remember about NSAIDs and anaesthesia?

A

NSAIDs can damage the kidneys. Low blood pressure under GA can also damage the kidneys. NSAIDs plus hypotension = super high potential for renal damage. NSAIDs should only be given after the patient has completed general anaesthesia and has normal and stable blood pressure. If, for any reason, the patient is already on NSAIDs prior to anaesthesia (as might be seen with a cruciate repair), you need to ensure that the blood pressure is monitored and kept at renal safe levels for the entire peri-anaesthetic period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Diazepam pros are?

A

cause sedation and muscle relaxation, and decrease anxiety (anxiolytic). They have minimal effect on the cardiovascular or respiratory systems, so are considered quite safe to use in patients that are older or have heart disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Diazepam cons are?

A

Diazepam should be given IV or PO, as it is absorbed very slowly when given IM. The injectable form can be given rectally for control of ongoing seizures when venous access is not available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Basic Diazepam info?

A

is in the group of Benzodiazepines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Basic Atropine info?

A

So, elevating heart rate is beneficial if needed, but can be harmful if it is excessive. For this reason, it is best to use atropine if and only if it is actually needed - for example, if the heart rate has dropped enough to be worrisome. Also remember that atropine will cause the pupils to dilate and may interfere with your interpretation of pupil size during monitoring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Basic Medetomidine info?

A

it is often used for short procedures such as xrays and ear flushes. It is really classified more as a sedative, but does see some mixed use in anaesthesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Basic Alfaxalone info?

A

Neuroactive steroid that produces loss of consciousness with minimal analgesic properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Alfaxalone pros are?

A

Expected recovery (extubation and head lift) after 15 minutes for a single dose of alfaxalone; when used as a CRI for TIVA (total intravenous anaesthesia) can increase slightly. Give slowly to avoid drops in RR, HR, BP. Typically HR, RR, and BP are quite stable with this drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Alfaxalone cons are?

A

Stings if given outside a vein. Alfaxalone will cause hypotension, but only at high doses. Alfaxalone does accumulate in tissues, so as a CRI we expect a longer recovery from a prolonged anaesthetic with this as a sole agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Basic Propofol info?

A

Hypnotic agent that causes loss of consciousness with little to no analgesic properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Propofol pros are?

A

Expected recovery after 2-5 minutes for a single dose, and does not increase when used as a CRI for TIVA. Propofol does not build up in tissues, and is not redistributed to fat, so is safe for use in lean animals such as sighthounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Propofol cons are?

A

However, sight hounds might have a slower recovery if maintained for a long (hours) surgery with propofol TIVA. Preserved version can be toxic for cats at high doses. Damage to feline RBCs can occur (Heinz bodies) with CRIs. Often results in apnea post-induction, so always pre-oxygenate. Causes significant hypotension and can cause bradycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ketamine cons are?

A

Can cause breath holding (apneustic breathing), muscle spasms (give with a benzodiazepine), and will keep eyes open and forward (lubricate). Stings if given outside a vein. Excreted in urine so use cautiously in renal patients. Recovery to extubation approximately 15 minutes, but will take a few hours for full (send them home) recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Basic Ketamine info?

A

Dissociative anaesthetics and NMDA receptor antagonists with excellent analgesic properties (however, for invasive procedures we need an opioid on board as well). Ketamine is typically used for induction and maintenance of anaesthesia for short procedures (sole agent), or induction for longer procedures when used with isoflurane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ketamine pros are?

A

Increases HR and BP, so very useful for patients that are hypotensive prior to anaesthesia. As a personal note, I used ketamine a lot in the emergency clinic for this reason. At a much lower dose in a CRI, ketamine is a potent analgesic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Basic Isoflurane info?

A

They do have some analgesic properties, but require additional analgesics to avoid super high delivery settings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Isoflurane cons are?

A

Induction using these agents (except for sevoflurane) is prolonged and typically involves patient struggling, so is not ideal. Most commonly used inhalant in practice currently, Causes bradypnea, bradycardia and hypotension. These agents are not analgesics! They work by creating an unconscious patient, who is not aware of pain. However, lots of pain will make this patient respond and require higher levels of the inhalant. Long-term exposure of staff to these agents can lead to health problems including miscarriages, liver issues, cancer, and other problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Isoflurane pros are?

A

These agents are popular (especially Isoflurane) because they are relatively inexpensive to use for anaesthetic maintenance and are easy to titrate (adjust to desired depth). Fast adjustment of depth. The newer inhalants (isoflurane, sevoflurane) are very quickly absorbed and eliminated, so depth is really easy to adjust quickly. Ability to induce anaesthesia using a mask. Can be used in patients for whom IV access is impossible or very difficult. Fast recovery. Since these agents are eliminated mostly just by respiration rather than needing to be broken down or filtered out of the body, the recovery from them is faster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Basic Medetomidine info?

A

they stimulate (agonize) specific nerve receptors in the adrenergic (flight/fight) nervous system. Unfortunately, this isn’t very enlightening in their use for sedation, anaesthesia, and analgesia - so knowing this is pretty academic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Medetomidine pros are?

A

Cause sedation, analgesia, and muscle relaxation. Potent analgesic. Reversible (atipamazole)

24
Q

Medetomidine cons are?

A

the effects include: bradycardia,
hypotension, vasoconstriction, typically RR is maintained, but can be decreased, cardiac arrhythmias are common Low and potentially erratic heart rate, variable pulses. If we give atropine (please don’t), we destroy this compensation and dramatically increase stress on the heart, adding to rhythm disturbances and wrecking cardiac output. So, you’ve just gotta cope with the variable low heart rate. Patients given these drugs with or without added opioids will still startle awake. Fully awake.

25
Q

Basic Morphine info?

A

considered “pure agonists”. This means that they will have basically the same effects as each other and “stimulate” the opioid receptors, rather than block them. These effects will increase as you give more of these drugs - they are dose dependant. If you give enough of these three drugs, you will kill the patient due to these effects.

26
Q

Basic Fentanyl info?

A

considered “pure agonists”. This means that they will have basically the same effects as each other and “stimulate” the opioid receptors, rather than block them. These effects will increase as you give more of these drugs - they are dose dependant. If you give enough of these three drugs, you will kill the patient due to these effects.

27
Q

Basic Methadone info?

A

considered “pure agonists”. This means that they will have basically the same effects as each other and “stimulate” the opioid receptors, rather than block them. These effects will increase as you give more of these drugs - they are dose dependant. If you give enough of these three drugs, you will kill the patient due to these effects.

28
Q

Morphine cons are?

A

respiratory depression
decreased heart rate
possible decreased blood pressure

29
Q

Fentanyl cons are?

A

Side effects are sedation, dysphoria, bradypnea, bradycardia. At high doses we might see hypotension. Essential to monitor HR, RR, and End-Tidal Carbon Dioxide (ETCO2) during administration.

30
Q

Methadone cons are?

A

respiratory depression
decreased heart rate
possible decreased blood pressure

31
Q

Morphine pros are?

A

sedation, analgesia

32
Q

Fentanyl pros are?

A

sedation, analgesia Fine-tuning is much easier with this drug than any of the others.

33
Q

Methadone pros are?

A

sedation, analgesia

34
Q

Basic Buprenorphine info?

A

mixed” agonists or agonist-antagonists. This means that they stimulate some of the opioid receptors, but act as blockers or reverse effects at other receptors. These drugs will always decrease the efficacy of a pure agonist if given at the same time. Buprenorphine can be sent home with cats and small dogs and administered via the buccal mucosa - dripped into the cheek pouch and absorbed through the mucus membranes.

35
Q

Basic Butorphanol info?

A

mixed” agonists or agonist-antagonists. This means that they stimulate some of the opioid receptors, but act as blockers or reverse effects at other receptors. These drugs will always decrease the efficacy of a pure agonist if given at the same time.

36
Q

Butorphanol pros are?

A

These drugs are popular because there are fewer undesired effects. So, we’ll see analgesia without the sedation, respiratory depression, or heart rate changes.

37
Q

Buprenorphine pros are?

A

These drugs are popular because there are fewer undesired effects. So, we’ll see analgesia without the sedation, respiratory depression, or heart rate changes.

38
Q

Butorphanol cons are?

A

Unfortunately, they are not as good for analgesia as you can’t adjust the dose for an increase in effect if needed. These drugs exhibit what is called a “ceiling effect” - you can give more and more, but the effect won’t increase. Because of this it is hard to kill your patient using these drugs, but you might not be able to control their pain either.

39
Q

Buprenorphine cons are?

A

Unfortunately, they are not as good for analgesia as you can’t adjust the dose for an increase in effect if needed. These drugs exhibit what is called a “ceiling effect” - you can give more and more, but the effect won’t increase. Because of this it is hard to kill your patient using these drugs, but you might not be able to control their pain either. Note that buprenorphine is NOT absorbed well if given orally (swallowed), nor is it absorbed consistently if given SQ in cats (buprenorphine should always be given IM, IV, or transmucosally in cats; the only exception is the long acting version which can be given SQ).

40
Q

Basic Naloxone info?

A

It is shown as having no effect at any dose! This is because is an opioid receptor antagonist - this means it blocks and reverses the action of the other opioids at the opioid receptors. We use this drug to rescue patients that have been overdosed on opioids. Note that we can also use butorphanol and buprenorphine to rescue patients as these will decrease the effect of the pure agonists.

41
Q

Fentanyl duration?

A

Minutes, best as a CRI or skin patch

42
Q

Propofol duration?

A

2-5 minutes, longer for TIVA.

43
Q

Alfaxalone duration?

A

15 minutes, longer for TIVA.

44
Q

Butorphanol duration?

A

1-2 hours

45
Q

Morphine duration?

A

4-6 hours.

46
Q

Methadone duration?

A

4-6 hours.

47
Q

Buprenorphine duration?

A

4-8 hours (dose dependant)

48
Q

Naloxone duration?

A

Will only work for 1-2 hours, and may need to be repeated if the patient has been given an overdose of a longer lasting opioid like morphine.

49
Q

Basic Lidocaine info?

A

Local anaesthetic, used for nerve blocks and infiltration of small areas.

50
Q

Lidocaine pros are?

A

Can be given as a CRI for 2 purposes:
stabilize irregular (ventricular) heart rhythms (we’ll go into this in great detail)
provide additional analgesia systemically (to the whole patient, not just local)

51
Q

Important to remember about post op drugs?

A

Both tramadol and codeine can be used in dogs for home care. Neither is adequate for severe pain control alone, so they should be combined with a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for orthopedic or other very painful procedures.

52
Q

A pink IV catheter is what size?

A

20G

53
Q

A yellow IV catheter is what size?

A

24G

54
Q

A green IV catheter is what size?

A

18G

55
Q

A blue IV catheter is what size?

A

22G

56
Q

A gray IV catheter is what size?

A

16G