Questions missed on Babri Flashcards

1
Q

impeachment of a hearsay declarant

A

-can impeach their credibility by any impeachment means necessary regardless of whether they are available to testify at trial
-doesn’t need chance to explain or deny
-can be rehabilitated if attacked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when is a prior inconsistent statement allowed in for the truth of the matter asserted

A

when previously made under oath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Establishment clause exception to taxpayer standing

A

-allowed but only when CONGRESSIONAL SPENDING (taxing and spending powers). Not exec spending or exec actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the negative implications of the commerce clause

A

generally a federal power but NOT EXCLUSIVELY federal.
states can sometimes do if not INTENTIONALLY protectionist and meets 1 of 3 exceptions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

dormant commerce clause test

A
  1. whether intentionally discriminatory
  2. whether even if neutral passes balancing test (burden test)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

can a judge consider (in like a 403 analysis) whether the evidence makes it more or less likely that the case will be win or lost

A

NOOO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what happens in a criminal case when a judge takes judicial notice of prosecutorial evidence

A

prosecution has met their burden, but it is not conclusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

does the mailbox rule apply to options kx

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

preexisting duty rule

A

does not apply under UCC!!! good faith modifications ok

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

conditional acceptances and battle of the forms

A

a reply adding in a conditional acceptance does not constitute an acceptance but instead a rejection and a counteroffer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

11th am

A

sovereign immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

structural/implicit waiver in 11th Am

A

when they joined union, implicitly agreed to yield to certain fed powers like eminent domain and certain military powers

-federal power is complete in itself AND
-the states implicitly consented to the fed gov exercising that power as part of the Const.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

suits against state officers

A

can sue official (1) for damages personally or (2) to enjoin the official from future conduct that violates the Const or fed law (so, includes unconstitutional state law), even if this will require prospective payment from the state

but cannot sue for retroactive damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

dormant commerce clauses

A

state/local regulations that discriminate against interstate commerce to protect local economic interests are invalid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

dormant CC balancing test

A

if does not discriminate, valid unless burden outweighs promotion of legit local interests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

can the gov require you to take an oath for gov employment not to overthrow the gov?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

can the gov require you to “promise to respect the flag?” as an oath

A

no.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

effect of judge taking judicial notice in crim case

A

Pros has met burden.

Judge should instruct the jury that it may, but is not required to, accept the noticed fact as conclusively proven.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

is thermal imaging a search

A

yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when can the government probably NOTdrug test

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when looking at diversity citizenship for an unincorporated Assoc, do you look at partners only or partners and officers?

A

partners only [could be general and limited tho]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

must a federal court have SMJ over a counter claim?

A

yes girly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

complete diversity

A

Diversity of citizenship refers to when there is no common state citizenship between the plaintiffs and defendants in a suit. In other words, all parties on one side of the controversy are citizens of different states from all parties on the opposing side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the limitation on diversity cases?

A

in diversity claims, plaintiffs generally cannot invoke supplementary jdx.

HOWEVER, there is an exception. applies when there are MULTIPLE plaintiffs and one of them does not meet the amount in controversy requirement. [here, plaintiff can use]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

dealing w mortgage modifications

A

generally first in time, first in right. but if senior mortgage modifies the mortgage, it becomes junior to any junior mortgages that were in existence at the time.

Thus, if the first mortgage debt is larger bc of a modification, the second mortgage gains priority over the increase in debt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

must a junior mortgagee be named as a party to a senior mortgagee’s foreclosure action?

A

YES. Bc it has a right to pay off the sr mortgage to avoid being wiped out by foreclosure.

Failure to join the junior mortgagee results in the preservation of its interest despite the foreclosure and sale.

More senior interests need not be named bc their interests are not affected by foreclosure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

statutory redemption

A

right of a mortgagor to recover the land AFTER foreclosure sale has occurred, usually by paying the FORECLOSURE SALE PRICE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

equitable redemption

A

right of a mortgagor to recover the land by paying the amount OVERDUE on the mortgage, plus any interest, at any time PRIOR to the sale.

If the mortgage contained an acceleration clause, then the FULL BALANCE of the mortgage must be paid to redeem in equity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

priority for allocating mortgage foreclosure sale proceeds

A

-any costs incurred by foreclosure
-sr interests like foreclosing party
-any jr lien holders in order of priority
-mortgagor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

does a disability of a successor toll the SoL for AP purposes

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Fifty-one years ago, an owner conveyed land to a taker for “so long as the land is used solely for residential purposes; otherwise, the interest in land shall revert to the owner and his heirs.” The taker used the land as her personal residence for 20 years, but 31 years ago, she began operating a children’s day camp on the land. The owner knew of this operation, but he took no action. Two years ago, the aged taker decided to get out of the camp business. She closed her business and once
again began to use the land solely as her personal residence. Also two years ago, the owner died, survived by his son and only heir. Now the son is laying claim to the conveyed land. The jurisdiction in which the land is located has a seven-year adverse possession statute and another statute that bars enforcement of possibilities of reverter 55 years after their creation.
May the son validly claim title to the land?

A

No, because the adverse possession period began 31 years ago, and the taker has held the property for more than the requisite seven years.

On the happening of the prohibited event (using the land for other than residential purposes), the taker’s fee simple determinable automatically came to an end, and the owner was entitled to present possession. Not having claimed possession within the applicable seven-year period, and with the taker’s possession being open, notorious, continuous, and adverse, any action by the owner or his heirs is now barred by adverse possession.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

does use of a quitclaim deed charge a purchaser w inquiry notice

A

majority of states say no even tho a quitclaim deed has no covenants for title

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

“Any conveyance of an interest in land, other than a lease for less than one year, shall not be valid against any subsequent purchaser for value, without notice thereof, unless the conveyance is recorded.”

A

Notice statute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

O conveys Blackacre to A on Monday. O conveys Blackacre to B on Tuesday. A records on Wednesday. B records on Thursday.
If both parties paid valuable consideration for the land, and neither knew of the other’s deed, who owns Blackacre?

A

B, under a notice statute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

notice statute

A

PROTECTS A SUBSEQUENT BFP WITH NO NOTICE OF PRIOR CONVEYANCE [CONSTRUCTIVE OR ACTUAL]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

race statute

A

first to record wins, regardless of BFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

race-notice statute

A

a subsequent BFP prevails over a prior grantee only if she records before the grantee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

On February 10, an owner took out a $10,000 mortgage on her land with a bank. On February 15, the owner conveyed the land for $50,000 to a buyer who was not aware of the mortgage. On February 17, the bank recorded its mortgage interest in the land. On February 21, the buyer recorded his deed to the land. Does the buyer hold the land subject to the bank’s mortgage?

A

Yes, in race or race-notice jdx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

when does the best evidence rule not apply

A

when specific content not at issue or can’t be found

40
Q

prior identification rule for hearsay

A

D must be testifying and subject to cross [could include sketches]

41
Q

dying declaration

A

witness must be unavailable

42
Q

public employee for cause DP

A

notice, pretermination opportunity to respond, and subsequent evidentiary hearing

43
Q

3 types of implied easements

A

-necessity
-implied by subdivision plan
-intended easement based on use when dominant and servant parcels severed

44
Q

does the mere existence of a zoning RESTRICTION, not violation, render title unmarketable

A

no

45
Q

estoppel by deed

A

if someone conveys land they dont have, they can’t deny the validity of the conveyance if they later acquire title

46
Q

easement appurtenant transfer

A

runs with the land. so record in original deed. but dont need to record in later deeds.

47
Q

easement appurtenant transfer

A

runs with the land. so record in original deed. but dont need to record in later deeds.

48
Q

springing v shifting exec interest

A

shifting - cuts short 3d party
springing - cuts short grantor

49
Q

lateral rights

A

SL if natural state
L if neg
SL if non-natural state but would’ve been damaged anyways in natural

50
Q

what is “To my son, but if he ever tries to sell it, take it away and give it to X”

A

This is a direct restraint on alienation which is void. Therefore, it is just a fee simple.

51
Q

must a life tenant pay taxes on the property

A

yes

52
Q

ameliorative waste exception

A

DOCTRINE OF CHANGED CONDITIONS.

Generally, a life tenant cannot tear down improvements simply because the life tenant wants to make a more profitable use of the land. But an exception exists when changed conditions have made the destruction of the improvement reasonably necessary. Such as tearing down a house not used on the property that is in unsuitable condition for living.

53
Q

class closing info for vested remainders

To A for life, then to B’s children

A

Once A dies, class CLOSES. So let’s say at the time A dies, B has TWO children, but has one more a year later. Only the TWO alive at A’s death are part of the class. Other child gets boxed out.

54
Q

when is a landlord liable for latent defects

A

A landlord will be liable only if, in the general situation, the landlord knew or had reason to know of the defect or, in the exception, the landlord rents FURNISHED property for a short term.

55
Q

holdover tenant

A

evict or institute new rental situation, generally month to month if residential; reflects terms of previous lease if commercial! [but can’t exceed 1 yr due to SoF]

generally can’t require raised rent UNLESS gave notice of raised rent PRIOR to expiration of old lease

56
Q

merger of easement

A

For there to be a merger which will extinguish an easement, the duration of the servient estate must be equal to or longer than the duration of the dominant estate (and therefore the easement).

E.g., if dominant estate is FSA, servient estate must be FSA.

57
Q

is non-use sufficient for easement abandonment

A

no. and neither is building another driveway apparently

58
Q

difference between prescriptive easement and AP

A

AP requires exclusivity. prescriptive easement does not.

59
Q

doctrine of changed neighborhood conditions

A

For common development scheme

Covenants remain enforceable unless changes inside the neighbhorhood subject to the covenants have made it impossible for them to achieve their original purposes and that enforcement would be inequitable.
ALL LOTS WOULD HAVE TO BE AFFECTED. every single one!!

60
Q

preferred remedy when property damaged after kx signed but prior to closing

A

specific performance on part of the buyer

61
Q

does the seller have an implied right to use the proceeds from the sale to clear title

A

yep. has some time after closing that can do unless time of essence?

62
Q

fixture (residential)

A

so affixed to the land that it becomes part of the realty
two ways become a fixture
1. so incorporated into the realty that they lose their identity
2. removal would cause considerable damage to the prop

63
Q

fixtures for trade purposes

A

Applies to COMMERCIAL TENANTS

Tenant can remove ALL trade fixtures if it is not an integral part of the premises (balcony, deck, I-beam) and the tenant pays for any damages caused by the removal.

Absent an agreement to the contrary, these annexations are removable because it was not the intention of the tenant to make them a permanent part of the premises

64
Q

shelter rule

A

a person who takes from a BFP will prevail against any interest that the transferor-BFP would have prevailed against.

65
Q

fee simple determinable

A

“for so long as”, “until,” “only while,” “during”

66
Q

ARE POSSIBILITIES OF REVERTER ALIENABLE

A

YES

67
Q

sever joint tenancy

A

-one person in two dies
-partition
-unilateral transfer
-in title theory if one JT mortgages their interest

68
Q

general rule for landlords w latent defects

A

no duty to warn unless knew or should have known

69
Q

do you have to give notice to evict a licensee?

A

no can be revoked at any time even if u pay value

70
Q

actual easement abandonment example

A

RR co rips out RR tracks

71
Q

if seller fails to deliver marketable title, does buyer have to go thru w sale

A

no

72
Q

notice jdx

A

words “record first” or “first to record” will NOT be in the statute

73
Q

AP and conveyance

A

just bc u acquire a property by AP doesnt mean you can convey it. have to first sue to quiet title.

74
Q

deed requirements

A

written
signed by grantor
unambiguous description of the land
identification of both parties
words of transfer like “grant”

75
Q

does a void deed render possession HOSTILE for AP purposes?

A

yes

76
Q

what amendment is double jeopardy under

A

5th. attaches when jury empaneled and sworn in

77
Q

A sells Blackacre to B, who fails to record. A sells to C an easement on Blackacre, who promptly records. What result?

A

A owns Blackacre subject to C’s easement.

78
Q

do recording statutes apply to short term leases

A

no. generally less than one year. doesn’t apply to interests implied at law either bc cant record

79
Q

O owns Blackacre. X acquires title to Blackacre through adverse possession (i.e., X entered onto the property and exclusively, openly and continuously possessed it for the statutory period without having O’s permission). O sells Blackacre to A.

A

Even if A is a BFP, X prevails because X acquired title by operation of law, so A is not protected by a recording statute.

80
Q

When does a preliminary hearing on the evidence need to occur outside the presence of the jury?

A

If:

Hearing involves the admissibility of a confession;
D in a criminal case is a witness and so requests; or
Justice so requires

81
Q

once court takes judicial notice, what can be said of the other party

A

they cannot intro any evidence to contradict

82
Q

what kind of liability does 5th am protect against

A

crim, not civil

83
Q

does the former testimony hearsay exception include depos

A

yes.

84
Q

minimum contacts analysis

A

Did D purposefully avail himself of the forum (such that it was foreseeable litigation could occur)?
Did the injuries arise out of that purposeful availment; and
Would exercise of PJ violate notions of fair play and substantial justice?

85
Q

when the original venue is improper, is dismissal or transfer preferred?

A

Transfer. Done in the interest of justice. Dismissal only done in extraordinary circumstances.

86
Q

what law do u apply when the transfer is merely for convenience

A

transferor court

87
Q

for diversity citizenship class action cases, which plaintiffs are considered for diversity

A

only named plaintiffs

88
Q

can federal courts handle divorce cases?

A

no, no jdx over domestic relations cases

89
Q

when is federal venue proper

A

Federal venue is proper in (i) the district in which any defendant resides if all defendants reside in the same state; and (ii) the district in which a substantial part of the events or omissions giving rise to the claim occurred.

90
Q

in which district can u sue a non-Us resident

A

any district

91
Q

If a case filed in state court contains a claim that would arise under federal law, and it is joined with state law claims that do not invoke diversity or supplemental jurisdiction, what portion of the case (if any) can be removed to federal court?

A

f a case filed in state court contains a claim that would arise under federal law, and it is joined with state law claims that do not invoke diversity or supplemental jurisdiction, the entire case can be removed to federal court. The federal court, however, must then sever and remand the state law claims to state court.

92
Q

PJ steps

A
  1. must first fall within state statute (long arm statute)
  2. Constitutional analysis
    —- Does D have such minimum contacts w the forum so jdx does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice? (Contacts, relatedness, fairness)
    Contacts: Purposeful availment and foreseeability
    Relatedness: Does P’s claim arise from or relate to D’s contact w the forum state? [If yes, specific PJ. If no, must meet general PJ]
    Fairness: consider factors
93
Q

general PJ

A

D’s contacts w forum state are so systematic and continuous as to render him at home in that state [domiciled]
OR when served with process in that state

94
Q

fairness factors

A

-burden on D and witnesses
-state’s interest
-P’s interest

95
Q

general reqs for notice

A

-must be reasonably calculated under all circumstances, to apprise interest parties of the action
-must serve w summons and copy of the complaint (process)

96
Q

welfare benefits residency reqs touch on which clause of the Const

A

EP 14th Am (right to travel)

97
Q

may a hate crime statute limit fighting words to those that seek to insult based on race or gender?

A

no that is viewpoint-based