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Year 4 MBChB > QUESTIONS KNOWLEDGE > Flashcards

QUESTIONS KNOWLEDGE Flashcards

1
Q

What ECG change is seen in hypothermia?

A

J waves

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2
Q

What additional sound is heard on auscultation in LVF?

A

3rd heart sound

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3
Q

What disorder are associated with mitral regurg?

A

Collagen disorders

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4
Q

What is Quinkes sign?

A

Nailed pulsation

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5
Q

What is Quinkes sign seen n?

A

Aortic regurgitation

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6
Q

What is trifascular block?

A

RBBB + 1st degree heart block + LV strain

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7
Q

What is c-ANCA used for?

A

Wegenetz (GPA)

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8
Q

What are Call-Exner bodies seen in?

A

Granulosa cell tumour

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9
Q

What are transitional cells seen in (ovarian)?

A

Brenner tumour

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10
Q

What are endocervical looking cells seen in (ovarian)?

A

Mucinous cystadenoma

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11
Q

When can amniocentesis be done from?

A

15 weeks

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12
Q

When can CVS be done?

A

11-13+6 weeks

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13
Q

What is cotton wool calcification seen in?

A

Paget’s and chrondrosarcoma

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14
Q

What does supraspinatus do?

A

Initiates abduction

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15
Q

What does teres minor do?

A

Adduct and laterally rotate

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16
Q

What does infraspinatus do?

A

Lateral rotation

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17
Q

What does subscapularis do?

A

Adduct and medially rotate

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18
Q

What type of pulse is seen in aortic regurgitation?

A

Collapsing

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19
Q

What type of pulse is seen in aortic stenosis?

A

Slow rising pulse

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20
Q

What is given in a high risk injury for tetanus (with a clear and complete vaccination history)?

A

IM immunoglobulin

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21
Q

What is given in a high risk injury for tetanus (with an unclear and incomplete vaccination history)?

A

IM immunoglobulin + booster

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22
Q

How is tetanus managed?

A

Supportive + metronidazole

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23
Q

What is tetanus caused by?

A

Tetanospasmin exotoxin released from bacteria prevents GABA release

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24
Q

What immunisations are given at 2 months?

A

6 in 1 (DTaP, IPV polio, HiB, Hep B), rotavirus, PCV + men B

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25
Q

What immunisations are given at 3 months?

A

6 in 1, rotavirus

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26
Q

What immunisations are given at 4 months?

A

6 in 1, PCV + men B

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27
Q

What immunisations are given at 12-13 months?

A

HiB+men C, MMR, PCV + men B

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28
Q

What immunisations are given at 3yrs and 4 months?

A

DTaP/IPV booster, MMR

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29
Q

What immunisations are given at 12-13 years in females?

A

HPV

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30
Q

What immunisations are given at 14 years?

A

Td/IPV booster, Men ACWY

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31
Q

Which vaccines are live?

A 
BCG
measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
influenza (intranasal)
oral rotavirus
oral polio
yellow fever
oral typhoid
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32
Q

Where does a branchial cyst originate from?

A

Second pharyngeal arch

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33
Q

What does the gallbladder do to bile?

A

Stores and concentrates it

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34
Q

What do you do for bone pain in cancer patients?

A

Radiotherapy, IV bisphosphonates

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35
Q

What heart defects do you get in Turners?

A

Coarctation of aorta and other aorta stuff

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36
Q

What do Leydig cells?

A

Produces testosterone

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37
Q

What do Sertoli cells do?

A

Produces androgen binding protein

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38
Q

How do you diagnose Sickle cell?

A

Hb electrophoresis

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39
Q

What dose of ferrous sulphate do you give to correct and iron deficiency?

A

600mg

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40
Q

What does of ferrous sulphate do you give as prophylaxis for iron deficiency?

A

100mg

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41
Q

What is a phase 1 study for?

A

To determine half-life

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42
Q

What is a phase 2 study for?

A

Drug dose

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43
Q

What is a phase 3 study for?

A

Side effects (common)

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44
Q

What is a case-control study for?

A

Aetiological factors

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45
Q

When do you x-ray a scaphoid fracture?

A

14 days after

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46
Q

What is the presentation of CJD?

A

Urinary incontinence + gait + memory

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47
Q

What is the first line management of a gastric MALT lymphoma?

A

eradicate H pylori

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48
Q

What causes a metabolic ketoacidosis (normal/low BG)?

A

Alcohol

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49
Q

What is a Hill-Sachs lesions seen in?

A

Glenohumeral dislocaition

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50
Q

When can you get pregnant after stopping methotrexate?

A

3 months

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51
Q

What is the management of pneumocystis jiroveci?

A

Co-trimoxazole

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52
Q

What CD4 count corresponds to pneumocystis jiroveci?

A

CD4 < 200

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53
Q

What drugs cause erythema nodosum?

A

COCP, penicillins, sulphonamides (trimethoprim)

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54
Q

What is a dinner fork deformity?

A

Colles

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55
Q

What do you give for magic mushroom overdose?

A

Activated charcoal

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56
Q

What is the management of dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Oral dapsone

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57
Q

What Ig is seen in acute disease?

A

IgM

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58
Q

What Ig is seen in chronic disease?

A

IgG

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59
Q

What would cause the following presentation: refractory PUD,, watery diarrhoea, weight loss?

A

Gastrinoma

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60
Q

How is gastrinoma?

A

Octreotide

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61
Q

Which bacteria antibody is a serological marker for Crohn’s?

A

Anti-s cervisiae

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62
Q

How is haemachromatosis inherited?

A

Autosomal recessive

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63
Q

How is Marfan’s inherited?

A

Autosomal dominant

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64
Q

How is OI inherited?

A

Autosomal dominant

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65
Q

How is achondroplasia inherited?

A

Autosomal dominant

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66
Q

What is the most common brain tumour in kids?

A

Medulloblastoma

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67
Q

What is the membrane attack complex composed of?

A

C5, 6, 7, 8, 9

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68
Q

What does C3b do?

A

Opsonisation

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69
Q

What are side effects of amiodarone?

A

Thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposition, pulmonary fibrosis, liver cirrhosis, slate grey appearance

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70
Q

What do you do for retained products after day 1?

A

Exam under anaesthesia

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71
Q

What do you do for blood matching for a lap chole?

A

Group & save

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72
Q

What do you do for blood matching for a total gastrectomy?

A

X-match 2-6 units

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73
Q

What do you do for blood matching for a C section?

A

G & S

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74
Q

Which drugs exhibit first order kinetics?

A

Phenytoin, alcohol, high dose aspirin, heparin

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75
Q

What do you do for late decelerations on a CTG?

A

Fetal blood sampling; ph < 7.2 = deliver

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76
Q

What type of CBT do you use for anorexia?

A

Family based therapy

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77
Q

What is the tumour marker for breast ca?

A

CA 15-3

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78
Q

What do you monitor is extremes of weight and on LMWH?

A

Anti-Xa

79
Q

What is used to prevent attacks in Menieres?

A

Betahistine

80
Q

How is osteomyelitis diagnosed?

A

MRI

81
Q

What is stage 1 ovarian ca?

A

Confined to ovary

82
Q

What is stage 2 ovarian ca?

A

Within pelvis

83
Q

What is stage 3 ovarian ca?

A

Within abdomen

84
Q

What is stage 4 ovarian ca?

A

Distant metastases

85
Q

What is the management of constipation of children?

A

Advice on diet + movicol

86
Q

Which is painful, scleritis or episcleritis?

A

Scleritis

87
Q

What is SAAG for?

A

Determines if ascites is caused by portal hypertension

88
Q

How can IVDUs with endocarditis present?

A

Discitis

89
Q

How do you investigate the C-spine?

A

CT

90
Q

What is croup caused by?

A

Parainfluenza virus

91
Q

What haem thing is nephrotic syndrome associated with?

A

Hypercoaguable state due to loss of antithrombin III

92
Q

What is the presentation of pellagra?

A

Dermatitis, dementia/delusions, diarrhoea

93
Q

What can CLL transform to?

A

high grade lymphoma

94
Q

How do you calculate breakthrough dose?

A

1/6th daily morphine dose

95
Q

How do you manage HOCM?

A

Implantable defibrillator

96
Q

What signs will a raised ICP cause?

A

Hypertension + bradycardia

97
Q

What are the conditions of doing a urease breath test?

A

No antibiotics in 4 weeks, no PPI in 2 weeks

98
Q

What is used for diffuse axonal injury?

A

MRI

99
Q

What happens to iodine uptake in graves?

A

Increased

100
Q

What do you give pregnant women who’ve had a previous VTE?

A

LMWH antenatally and 6 weeks postnatally

101
Q

When should clopidogrel be stopped before surgery?

A

7 days

102
Q

What is a marker of early labour?

A

High fibrinonectin

103
Q

When should warfarin be stopped before surgery?

A

5 days

104
Q

Which vitamins are fat soluble?

A

ADEK

105
Q

How long should you be seizure free before driving with no diagnosis?

A

6 months

106
Q

How long should you be seizure free before driving with a diagnosis?

A

12 months

107
Q

When does diffuse proliferative GN?

A

Post-strep, SLE

108
Q

What do you give a pregnant women less than ten days after chickenpox exposure who is non-immune?

A

VZIG

109
Q

What do you do for someone who is less than 55 and has a stroke?

A

AI and thrombophilia

110
Q

When does gestational hypertension occur?

A

> 20 weeks gestation

111
Q

From which day postpartum can you get pregnant if not breastfeeding?

A

Day 21

112
Q

What is contraindicated in less than six weeks postpartum?

A

COCP

113
Q

What is the adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis?

A

0.5ml in 1 in 1,000 IM

114
Q

What is the adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis?

A

10ml of 1 in 10,000 IV

115
Q

How is AF lasting more than 48 hours managed?

A

Anticoagulate + rate control for 3 weeks then electrically cardiovert

116
Q

What is N meningitides?

A

Gram -ve diplococci

117
Q

What risk do SSRIs in the first trimester cause?

A

Small risk of congenital heart disease

118
Q

What is Rovsings sign positive in?

A

Appendicitis

119
Q

Is it safe for women with Hep B to breastfeed?

A

Yes

120
Q

What is tamoxifen a RF for?

A

Endometrial cancer

121
Q

What does loss of haustrations on ba enema indicate?

A

UC

122
Q

What are features of rubella?

A

SNHL, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis

123
Q

How is croup managed?

A

Dexamethasone

124
Q

What is the gene translocation in Burkitts?

A

c-myc

125
Q

What is the TEL-JAK2 mutation seen in?

A

Myelofibrosis

126
Q

What is common post-viral gastroenteritis?

A

Transient lactose intolerance

127
Q

What is factor V leiden?

A

Activated protein C deficiency

128
Q

What can be used to differentiate between seizure and pseudo seizure?

A

Prolactin

129
Q

When does bow legs usually resolve by?

A

4 years

130
Q

What do you give for status epilepticus?

A

IV lorazepam 4mg –> phenytoin –> GA

131
Q

What do you give for neutropenic sepsis?

A

IV taz and pip

132
Q

What does wasting of the hypothenar eminence indicate?

A

Ulnar nerve damage

133
Q

What is used for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

India ink staining

134
Q

What do exercise induced desaturations indicate?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

135
Q

What is neonatal hypotonia associated with?

A

Downs, prader willi

136
Q

What is a Colles fracture?

A

Distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement

137
Q

What is a Smiths fracture?

A

Distal radius fracture with volar displacement

138
Q

What is the pharmacological management of postural hypotension?

A

Fludrocortisone

139
Q

How do NSAIDs impact lithium levels?

A

Increase them

140
Q

How do you manage no ACS + Hb > 70?

A

Oral iron

141
Q

What do you give post breast cancer surgery?

A

Radiotherapy

142
Q

What is whirlpool sign seen in?

A

Ovarian torsion

143
Q

How is primary PPH managed?

A

IV syntocinon, ergometrine, syntocinon infusion, carboprost, mifopristol

144
Q

What is the commonest cause of blood stained nipple discharge?

A

Intraductal papilloma

145
Q

What a gastrograffin enema good for?

A

Anastomotic leak

146
Q

What is Plummer-Vinson?

A

Post-cricoid web due to iron deficiency

147
Q

What does laxative abuse cause?

A

Melanosis coli

148
Q

What ECG change is seen in hypothermia?

A

J waves

149
Q

What ECG change is seen in hypocalcaemia?

A

U wave

150
Q

What is the investigation of choice for pericarditis?

A

Echo

151
Q

What would you look for in an ECG of a long standing diabetic with autonomic neuropathy?

A

Bradycardia (type 1 HB)

152
Q

What do you give for someone with heart failure who’s already on an ACEi and diuretic?

A

B blocker

153
Q

What would you give someone who’s on an ACEI and gets hyperkalaemia (HF)?

A

Isosorbide mononitrate

154
Q

What do you do if you give someone fluids and they rapidly deteriorate?

A

Stop fluids and give Iv frusemide

155
Q

How do you monitor someones progression after being treated for pneumonia?

A

CRP

156
Q

What do dot and blot haemorrhages indicate?

A

Diabetic retinopathy

157
Q

What do you give to people who won’t tolerate a colonoscopy?

A

CT colonography

158
Q

What is hyoscine hydrobromine for?

A

Travel sickness

159
Q

What is hyoscine butyl bromide for?

A

Abdo cramps

160
Q

What is the MOA of cyclising?

A

Antihstamine

161
Q

What is the mechanism of ondansetron?

A

5Ht receptor antagonist

162
Q

What is the MOA of domperidone/prochlorperazine?

A

Antidopamine

163
Q

What are the features of Plummer Vinson?

A

Dysphagia and anaemia

164
Q

What juice should be avoided if on a statin?

A

Grapefruit

165
Q

What type of mouth disease do people with Crohn’s have?

A

Aphthous ulcers, angular chelitis

166
Q

What is Dukes A?

A

Confined to mucosa

167
Q

What is Dukes B?

A

Tumour spread to serosa, no LN

168
Q

What is Dukes C?

A

Same as B with nodes (C1 local, C2 distant)

169
Q

What is Dukes D?

A

Widespread mets

170
Q

How much water is absorbed in small intestine?

A

90%

171
Q

How is ascites managed?

A

Spironolactone

172
Q

What is the anatomy of a femoral hernia?

A

Inferolateral to pubic tubercle

173
Q

What is the anatomy of a direct inguinal hernia?

A

Superomedial to pubic tubercle

174
Q

What is the anatomy of an indirect inguinal hernia?

A

Superolateral to pubic tubercle

175
Q

What type of insulin is given once a day?

A

Basal (lantus)

176
Q

Which diabetic drug is weight neutral?

A

DPP4 inhibitors

177
Q

What is the cause of polyuria in diabetes?

A

Osmotic effect of glucose

178
Q

How does acarbose work?

A

Binds to glucose

179
Q

What is the most common type of renal stone?

A

Calcium oxalate

180
Q

How do you diagnose RAS?

A

Angiography

181
Q

What passes through the cell membrane most readily?

A

Cations

182
Q

Which nerve supplies biceps reflex?

A

C5

183
Q

Which nerve supplies knee reflex?

A

L4

184
Q

Which nerve supplies ankle reflex?

A

S1

185
Q

which nerve can be damaged by doing an IM injection in the butt?

A

Sciatic nerve

186
Q

Which column is first to go in diabetic neuropathy?

A

Dorsal

187
Q

Alzheimers has what NTM defect?

A

Low 5-hydroxytryptamine

188
Q

Headache after sex

A

Benign coital cephalgia

189
Q

What is section 2 of MHA?

A

short term detention

190
Q

What is section 3 of MHA?

A

CTO

191
Q

What is section 5.2 of MHA?

A

Emergency certification

192
Q

What is section 5.4 of MAH?

A

Similar to emergency but senior nurse can detain for up to 6 hours

193
Q

How do you manage psychosis in a diabetic patient?

A

Typical antipsychotics

Year 4 MBChB (3 decks)

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