Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Who showed calcium is required for neurotransmitter release

A

Katz and Miledi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the name given to the non-specific region of the brain that is particularly developed in man to receive inputs from multiple regions of multiple modalities

A

Association cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the name given to fibres that project from the cerebellum and link to non cortical areas

A

Projection fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which areas of the brain are linked by association fibres

A

Regions within the same same hemisphere - e.g. longitudinal fasciculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the key roles of the cerebellum

A

Maintaining muscle tone Motor coordination Motor error checking and learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Gap junctions allow for _______________ between cells in structure called electrical synpases

A

Rapid communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Because the squid was cold blooded did the giant axon require inncubation

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is the synapse an example of an adhesion molecules

A

Adhesion proteins between neurones, pre and post synaptic neurons bound together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does light result in a signal being detected by the optic nerve

A

Light causes hyperpolarisation of the rod cell which leads to the ceasing of glutamate release and no inhibition of the bipolar cell thus an EPSP is generated in the bipolar cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What cells absorb the CSF

A

Arachnoid villi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Do neuropeptides only activated GPCRs

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CN I (NAME)

A

Olfactory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define an action potential

A

Fixed size change in membrane potential from negative to positive that is all or nothing and travels along the axis of a neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What route brings motor information out of the spinal cord

A

Ventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GABA is the most …

A

Important inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the nucleus ruber

A

Motor coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What structures make up the mesencephalon

A

Cerebral peduncles Tectum Sustantia nigra Nucleus ruber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where is the cerebellum located

A

Underneath the occipital lobe on the root of the fourth ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are muscle spindles

A

Proprioreceptors located in skeletal muscle near tendons which detect strech of musxle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name the primary brain vesicles

A

Prosencephalon Mesencephalon Rhombencephalon Spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What role do the opiate receptors in the periaqueductal grey have

A

Regualtion of pain sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the function of the PNS myelin protein components

A

P0 - is adhesion molecule for compaction of the myelin layers PMP-22 - is involved in the spacing between the layers of wrapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three types of unencapsulated nerve endings

A

Free nerve endings, tactile discs, hair receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the cause of cataracts

A

Caused by low ocular pressue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the pineal gland

A

Unpaired structure consisting of an endocrine gland that makes and secretes melatonin and serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where is ACh found within the brain

A

Basal forebrain and hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the four types of sensory information transmitted by sensory receptors

A

Modality Intensity Duration Location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the role of the Canal of Schlemm

A

Drains aqueous humour from anterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is miosis

A

Constriction of the pupil of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define the autonomic nervous system

A

The efferent division of the visceral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Typical values of intra and extrcellular K+ and Na+

A

Na i - 15mM Na o - 140 mN K i - 100 mM K o - 5 mM`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the main role of the horizontal cells

A

Enhance contrast and sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What aspects are lateralised to the right hemisphere

A

Creativity Artistic Spatial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define multiple sclerosis

A

Conditions that lead to the degredation of CNS myelin followed by periods of relapse and remission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do peripheral nerves contain

A

ONLY axons NO dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the 3 meninges of the brain

A

Pia Arachnoid layer Dura mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What types of receptor are the opiate receptors

A

GPCRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the two main photoreceptive pigements

A

Rhodopsin Photopsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of disease is MS

A

Primary demyelination disease - axon sparing only the myelin is degraded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What macroglia myelinate in the CNS how is this achieved

A

Oligodendrocytes Send out processes so can myelinate multiple axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What equation is uses to calculate equillibrium potentials

A

Nernst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the difference between temporal and spatial summation

A

Temporal summation is the result of multiple action potentials adding up in time where the size of the post synaptic potential depends on the amount of action potentials received. Spatial summation occurs when multiple presynaptic neurons bring action potentials to the synpase at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are ON bioplar cells

A

Glutamate inhibits Hyperpolarised in the dark light causes loss of inhibition Metabotrophic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is lens accommodation

A

Ciliary muscle contraction to decrease lens size, relaxation of the suspensory ligaments to release radial tension causing the lens to form a more spherical shape with a higher refractive power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which areas of the brain are linked by commissural fibres

A

Regions in different hemispheres - e.g. corpus callosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

TRUE OR FALSE Neuropeptides are synthesised in the cell body and stored in secretory granuels whereas other neurotransmitters are synthesised at the synaptic vesicles and packaged into synaptic vesicles

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does the prosencephalon give rise to

A

Telencephalon Optic vesicles Diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where are tactile discs found and what modalities do they detect

A

Stratum basale of the epidermis Sense light, touch, texture, edges and shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Recall the catecholamine synthesis pathway

A

Tyrosine L-Dihydroxyphenylalanine (L-Dopa) Dopamine Noradrenaline Adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are OFF bipolar cells

A

Glutamate excites Depolarised in the dark Light causes loss of excitation Ionotrophic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What do AChE inhibitors do

A

Prevent ACh breakdown Nerve gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How can Gullian Barre be treated

A

Intravenous Igs - attack and destory autoimmune antibodies Plasmapheresis - separation of blood plasma cells to remove harmful antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which vesicles give rise to the hindbrain

A

Metencephalon Myelencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Does the dorsal root contain sensory neuronal cell bodies

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the role of the thalamus

A

Processing and relay centre Senesory information is passed on to higher brain centres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the role of cerebrosides in myelin formation

A

Aid in the compaction of myelin Knockout mice exhibit peeling of the layers leading to vacuoles and paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Name the 3 divisions of the ANS

A

Sympathetic Parasympathetic Enteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How many neurons in the brain

A

10^10-10^12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In the spinal cord where do neuronal cells bodies occur

A

Grey matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

CN V (NAME)

A

Trigeminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Define graded potentials

A

Localised changes in membrane potential of any variable size that does not travel over long distances and that usually occurs in the dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are names given to spinal nerve branches

A

Rami

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the four types of encapsulated nerve endings

A

Tactile corpuscles, Krause end bulbs, lamellated corpuscles, ruffini corpuscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where do most motor neurones cross

A

Medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is meant by the term, postsynaptic density

A

Region where neurotransmitter binds to the postsynaptic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which regions of the brain contain NA neurones

A

Locus coeruleus, thalamus and hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the primary roles of the medulla oblongata

A

CV and resp patterning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are symptoms of Parkinsons

A

Shuffling gate Stooped shoulders Slurred monotonous speech Akinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What region of damage is brocas aphasia linked to

A

Left frontal lobe damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which enzymes metabolises catecholamines in the cytoplasm

A

Catechol-O-Methyltransferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What enzyme that converts glutamate to GABA

A

Glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is an inhibitory graded potential

A

Hyperpolarising graded potential caused by influx of Cl- into the cell shifting Vm more negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the four layers of the cerebellum

A

Molecular Purkinje Granular White matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How is Guillian Barre similar and different to MS

A

Primary demyelination PNS myelin damaged Develops after bacterial/viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the role of the iris

A

Regulates light levels by pupillary constrictior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the 6 lobes of the cerebrum

A

Frontal lobe Parietal lobe Occipital lobe Central lobe Temporal lobe Limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is Dales principle and is it always correct

A

Only one type of NT present in the pre sy term NO peptide containing neurons usually have amino acid/amine neurotransmitters (or a co transmitter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

In both divisions of the ANS what is the NT and receptor of the ganglionic neurone

A

Acetlycholine N2 NAChR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is convergence of the eyes

A

When the eyes move close together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Do nerves contain swellings

A

Yes - swellings are called ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Is the AMPA involved in fast transmission via glutamate and is often independent from the NMDA receptor

A

NO first part part correct but coexists with NMDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What role did BF skinner play in early neuroscience

A

Developed operant conditioning (positive and negative reinforcement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Describe saltatory conduction

A

Action potentials generated the Nodes of Ranvier due to localisation of Na+ ion channels. Depolarisation at one Node is suffiicent to induce depolarisation at the next node, AP jumps from node to node without decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the equilibrium potentials for Na and K

A

Na - +62mV K - -80mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Where are the free nerve endings found and what modalities do they detect

A

Epithelia and connective tissue Sense pain and heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the role of the pigment epithelium

A

Maintenance of the rod and cone cells and stimulation of retinal regeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Describe emmetropia

A

When the eye is in a relaxed state focussed on an object 6m away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the names of the six layers of the cortex

A

Molecular External granular External pyramidal Internal granular Internal pyramidal Fusiform layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the two main protein components of CNS myelin

A

Myelin basic protein Proteolipid protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are some of the MS risk factors

A

Immunological factors Enviro factors Vit D linked Genetic predisposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Name some molecules that have effects of DA

A

L-dopa increases DA production Amphetamines increase DA release Cocain blocks DA reuptake D2 receptor agonists treat parkinsons MAO-B inhibitors prevent DA metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

At what Vm are the Na+ channels open and clased

A

Closed -65mV Open -40mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Name the secondary brain vesicles

A

Telencephalon Optic vesicles Diencephalon Metencephalon Mylencephalon Spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is meant by duplicity theory

A

Cant have a high sensitivity and high resolution in a single receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Four types of retinal neurones

A

Bipolar, ganglion, horizontal and amacrine cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the role of the ciliary body

A

Specialised region of muscle that secretes aqueous humour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Name the endogenous opiate compounds

A

Endorophin, encephalin, dynorphin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Describe the state of the rod cell in the dark

A

Depolirised and inhibits ganglion cells

99
Q

What role to do the opiate receptors in the amygdala have

A

Emotional response to pain

100
Q

What is the mechanism for ACh synthesis

A

Choline + ACoA –> ACh + CoA ENZYME: Acetyltransferase

101
Q

CN X (NAME)

A

Vagus

102
Q

MS treatments methods

A

Steroids Interferons to damp down the response Immunosupressants Vit D

103
Q

Symptoms of Wernickes aphasia

A

Inappropriate or contrived words whilst grammar and syntax is still conserved

104
Q

Which components of the eye make up the tunica vasculosa

A

Choroid, ciliary body, iris

105
Q

Can damage to the frontal lobe can cause changes in personality?

A

Yes

106
Q

Describe the pathology of PD

A

Diminished SNc Decreased dopamine synthesis and connection Less inhibition of inhibitory effects of striatum More inhibition of motor activity by striatum - nigrostriatcal pathway

107
Q

Tetraethylammonium is a _________________—

A

Non specific K+ ion channel blocker

108
Q

What type of aphasia is Broca’s

A

Expressive

109
Q

Who showed how axons grow in their work on frogs/toads

A

Harrison

110
Q

What structures make up the diencephalon

A

Thalamus Hypothalamus Pineal gland

111
Q

CN II (NAME)

A

Optic

112
Q

What are the three tunics of the eye (from outer to inner)

A

Tunica fibrosa Tunica vasculosa Tunica interna

113
Q

Is the glutamate the most important excitatory NT the PNS

A

NO it is in the CNS

114
Q

What order are bipolar cells

A

!st

115
Q

What is the roles of the hypothalamus

A

Controlling centre Hunger Thirst Arousal Body temperature

116
Q

Are Na+ ion channels more localised in axons or dendrites

A

Axons

117
Q

CN VIII (NAME)

A

Vestibulocochlear / Auditory vestibular

118
Q

What are two ways action potentials can travel

A

Orthodomically Antodromically

119
Q

How many pairs of peripheral nerves

A

43

120
Q

Which demographics show an increased risk

A

Caucasian Women

121
Q

Where is a lumbar puncture carried out

A

Between the 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae

122
Q

Name and locate each of the brain ventricles

A

Lateral ventricles - within the cerebral hemisphere 3rd ventricle - centre of the diencephalon 4th ventricle - within the pons/medulla

123
Q

The diencephalon is part of which region of the brain and what does it do

A

Part of the forebrain and links the cerebrum to the midbrain

124
Q

What are diffuse neurotransmitters

A

Neurotransmitters that have widespread, non-specific effects over large regions of the brain

125
Q

How many spinal nerves? How many pairs?

A

31 5 pairs

126
Q

What is an example of a specialized astrocytes

A

Retinal Muller cells Radial Bergman glia in the cerebellum

127
Q

What gene is mutated in shiverer mouse

A

MBP - problems in synthesis

128
Q

Why aren’t all neurones myelinated

A

Metabolic and volume costs of myelination

129
Q

Which type of spinal column deals with sensory information

A

Ascending columns

130
Q

What aspects are catecholamines associated with

A

Mood movement attention and visceral fucntion

131
Q

What are the factors which influence conduction velocity along an axons

A

Axon diameter (Resistance is inversely proportional to the inverse of the CSA) Myelination (saltatory conduction)

132
Q

Do rod cells contact ganglion cells directyl

A

No they are connected via horzontal and amacrine cells

133
Q

Name some effects of diffuse NTS

A

Dopamine Adrenaline (Nora) ACh 5-HT

134
Q

T/F?? Hodgkin, Huxley and Katz were involved in studying the giant squid axon and determination of ion flow potentials

A

T by JZ young also involved

135
Q

Main components of the brainstem

A

Fibre tracts Housekeeping nuclei

136
Q

What is an en passant synpase

A

Synapse made along the length of the axon

137
Q

Do all Schwann cells wrapped around an axons actually myelinate

A

No

138
Q

Put these in order from axon –> fassicle –> nerve Peri/epi/endo neurium

A

Endo Peri Epi

139
Q

How are sensory receptors classified

A

Modality, origin and distribution

140
Q

Name other CNS myelin proteins

A

MOG MAG Clyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase Carbonic anhydrase

141
Q

What are three methods of transmission termination

A

Reuptake Breakdown Diffusion

142
Q

On which model organism did Nichole le Dourain work on

A

The chicken

143
Q

What type of glial cells are involved in the formation of the blood bran barrier

A

Astrocytes cause the induction of very tight junctions between the endothelial cells

144
Q

Describe the sclera

A

White of the eye

145
Q

What is periodicity and how does it vary throughout the nervous system

A

Distance between layers of protein and layers lipids Is less in the CNS

146
Q

Where is the aqueous humour found

A

Anterior and posterior chambers

147
Q

Which type of glial cell are derived from circulating monocytes and have phagocytic properties

A

Microglia - short spikey processes

148
Q

Where are the hair receptors found and what modalities do they detect

A

Around hair follicle, sense hair movement

149
Q

CN XII (NAME)

A

Hypoglossal

150
Q

Ho does the NMDA receptor act as a biological AND-hate

A

Voltage dependent magnesium block that sits in the channel preventing the passage of Ca2+ through unless glutamate has bound to the receptor and depolarisation of the membrane has occured

151
Q

Major roles of astrocytes

A

Forming the blood-brain barrier Spatial buffering - functional syncytium removing K+ to prevent damage to neurons Neurotransmitter uptake - responsible for uptake of GABA and enzyme for GABA–>Glutamate Glucose metabolism - Neurones prefer 3C molecules store some as glycogen but can convert some to lactate for neuronal cells

152
Q

Which regions make up the forbrain

A

Hemispheres, diencephalon

153
Q

What is the role of ependyma

A

Create the epithelial lining of the ventricles and spinal canal and choroid epithelium producing the CSF

154
Q

What is EPSP shunting

A

EPSPs can be shunted by an inhibitory synapse closer to the cell body, this causes the dissipation and no change in Vm in the stom. Thus dendrites closer to the stoma have a greater influence on action potential generation

155
Q

Where is the vitreous humour found

A

Between lens and retina

156
Q

Is myelin metabolically active

A

Yes- undergoing lipid synthesis

157
Q

Outline stages of neural tube formation

A

Formation of the neural plate Neural fold rises up Neural fold fuses around the neural groovee

158
Q

What has to happen before a voltage gated ion channel can participate in another action potential

A

Channel inactivation –> Channel de-inactivation (consisting of activation gate closure and inactivation gate reopening)

159
Q

What is the name given to the region where neurotransmitters are released from secretory vesicles/granules

A

Active zone

160
Q

What are interneurones and why are they important

A

Connect sensory and motor neurones and are important in reflexes

161
Q

Difference between pre and post gang neurons

A

Post gang unmyelinated Pre always myelinated

162
Q

Why is lidocaine used as local anesthetic

A

Lidocaine blocks voltage gated Na+ channels preventing depolarisation occurs , therfore no action potential can occur

163
Q

What is hydrocephalus

A

Abnormal accumulation of CSF causing raised intercranial pressure

164
Q

What is the cause of Glaucoma

A

Caused by high ocular pressure

165
Q

Main NTs of the ANS

A

Acetylcholine and noradrenaline

166
Q

Do mice with PLP knockout have same phenotype as the jimpy mouse

A

No, not toxic PLP produced leads to RUMPSHAKER phenotype

167
Q

Which regions of the brain contain DA nuerons

A

Top brainstem Frontal lobe Striatum Substantia nigra Ventral tegmental area

168
Q

Recall enxymes associated with catcehcolamine synthesis

A

Tyrosine hydroxylase Dop decarboxylase Dopamine-beta hydroxylase Phentolamine N-methyltransferase

169
Q

CN XI (NAME)

A

Spinal accessory

170
Q

CN VII (NAME)

A

Facial

171
Q

Why is inhibition important

A

Dendrites with excitation inputs but inhibitory synapses can knock down excitation

172
Q

At rest the membrane is permemable to ____ and not very permeable to _____

A

K Na

173
Q

What is unusual about swear gland innervation

A

Sympathetic but postganglioic uses acetly choline

174
Q

What is the pyramidal tract

A

Carries mainly motor information from the cerebral cortex which crosses the medulla

175
Q

CN IX (NAME)

A

Glossopharyngeal

176
Q

What is the consensual light reflex

A

Changes in light intensity in one eye causes an effect in both eyes

177
Q

What is the effect of increasing membrane permeability to Cl-

A

Little/no effect on the Vm but does make it harder for the Vm to change

178
Q

CN VI (NAME)

A

Abducens

179
Q

Which components of the eye make up the tunica interna

A

Retinal, optic nerve (CNII)

180
Q

What three factors leads to the the establishement of the resting potential

A

Selectively permeable membrane Unequal distrubution of ions and physical forces

181
Q

Describe the pathology of MS

A

No definite cause, autoimmune, leading to destruction of oligodendrocytes in the CNS through macrophage and protease activity

182
Q

Name some example molecules that make up the lipid composition of myelin

A

Cerebrosides, sulfatides, sphingomyelin

183
Q

What are common symptoms of Broca aphasia

A

Poor grammar, syntax error and incorrect word structure

184
Q

What is meant by quantal release

A

Vesicles are usually of a certain size Allows you to calculate the number of vesicles and amount of neurotransmitter that caused a specific size of response

185
Q

The olives are found in the ________________ where to they project to

A

Medulla oblongata Cerebellum

186
Q

What specilaised regions are part of the tunica fibrosa

A

Sclerea Cornea

187
Q

What is meant by tonic and phasic responses

A

Phasic -Short burst Tonic - Continuously firing, slowly adapting

188
Q

What is an excitatory graded potentials

A

Depolarising graded potential caused by NT arrival at postsynaptic membrane resulting in opening of a ligand gated ion channels allowing Na+ in to the neuron

189
Q

There dura splits into two what are the names

A

Endosteal and menningeal

190
Q

CN III (NAME)

A

Oculomotor

191
Q

State the equation for ionic driving force

A

IDF proportional to (Vm - Eion)

192
Q

What disease is associated with defects P0 or PMP-22

A

Carcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome Loss of muscle tisue and touch sensation

193
Q

Where is the mechanism for ACh brekadown

A

ACh –> Chloine + Acetate ENZYME: Acetylcholinesterase

194
Q

Does glutamate act as an exitatory NT during photoreception

A

No release from a depolarised rod cells causes an IPSP in the bipolar cell

195
Q

What macroglia myelinate in the PNS how is this achieved

A

Schwann cells Myelinate individual axons by flattening down and wrapping around the axons with swellings as the Nodes of Ranvier

196
Q

What are the main types of synapse

A

Axodendritic Dendrodendritic Axoaxonic Axosomatic

197
Q

During which age is MS usually onset at?

A

20-40

198
Q

What are three subtypes of macroglia

A

Astrocytes Schwann cells Oligodendrocytes

199
Q

How many more glial cells than neurones

A

10x

200
Q

What is the term given for crossing over of pathways

A

Decussation

201
Q

Are spinal nerves sensory or motor

A

They’re mixed

202
Q

In what regions does the CSF flow

A

Ventricles, central-canal and sub arachnoid space

203
Q

List the 5 sets of spinal nerves

A

Cervical Thoracic Lumbar Sacral Coccygeal

204
Q

What are the protein components of PNS myelin

A

P0 MBP PMP-22

205
Q

What can be used to prevent some neural tube defects

A

Folic acid

206
Q

How does the pons connect to the cerebllum

A

Via the cerebral peduncles

207
Q

Name some examples of toxins that interfere with ACh release

A

Botulinum toxin and black widow spider venom

208
Q

What type of aphasia is Wernickes aphasia

A

Receptive

209
Q

What type of cells produce CSF

A

Choroid plexus

210
Q

What does the rhombencephalon give rise to

A

Metencephalon Myelencephalon

211
Q

What structures are contained within the tectum and what are they involved in

A

Superior (visual reflexes) and inferior (auditory reflexes) colliculi

212
Q

What aspects are lateralised to the left hemisphere

A

Analysis Calculation Speech

213
Q

What are the three ways which nerves can fire action potentials

A

Consistently - same rate Slowly adapting - rate decreasing Rapidly adapting - fire a few times and then stop

214
Q

What does the lymbic system consist of

A

Hippocampus Amygdala Thalamus Hypothalamus

215
Q

Are ganglion cells 1st or 2nd order

A

2nd

216
Q

What role do the opitate receptors in the brainstem (medulla) have?

A

Depression of respiration and cough reflex

217
Q

What is a subdural haematoma

A

Where blood vessels have ruptured and blood has collected between the dura and arachnoid layer

218
Q

Name an agonist and an antagonist of the opiate receptors

A

Ag - Morphine Antag - Naloxone

219
Q

Which myelin components contribute to the intraperiod line and the major period line

A

Intra - protein - light banding Major - lipid - dark

220
Q

What type of control centre is found in the pons

A

Respiratory

221
Q

What are the three regions of the brainstem

A

Medulla oblongata Pons Mesencephalon

222
Q

Four divisions of the human brain

A

Cerebrum Diencephalon Brainstem Cerebellum

223
Q

What is the crtieria for a neurotransmitter

A

Present in pre sy terminal Released in repsonse to stimuli Interact with post sy receptors Rapid removal

224
Q

Name the structures which make up the basal ganglia

A

Nucleus accumbens Globus palidus Striatum (putamen and caudate nucleus) Substantia nigra Sub-thalamic nucleus

225
Q

What are the two main sub-types of astrocytes and where are they found

A

Protoplasmic - in the grey matter and contain few IF Fibrous - in the white matter contain lots of IF

226
Q

What are four types of retinal ganglion cells

A

W X Y Melanopsin RGCs

227
Q

Explain the pathology of the jimpy mouse mutation

A

Mutation of PLP PLP produced incorrectly and is toxic to oligodendrocytes –> profound loss of macroglia

228
Q

Which MAOenzyme metabolises NA and serotonin in the outer mitochondrial membrane

A

MAO-A MAO-B –> Metabolises dopamine

229
Q

What secondary vesicles give rise to the forebrain

A

Telencephalon Diencephalon

230
Q

CN IV (NAME)

A

Trochlear

231
Q

Explain the phototransduction pathway

A

Light activates rhodopsin This activates transducin (transducin GDP-transucing GTP) Activated transducin activates phosphodiesterase Activated PDE catalyses the conversion of cGMP to GMP Increased GMP causes closure of the Na+ ion channels This decreases the intracellular levels of Na+ and Ca2+ Decreased Ca2+ activates recoverin Recoverin activates guanylyl cyclase which causes GMP -> cGMP a re opens the Na+ channels

232
Q

What are the problems of long term L-dopa treatment

A

Chronic L-dopa syndrome - induced dyskinesia Sudden and severe immobility Req peripheral domaine decraboxylase to treat side effects

233
Q

What is the role of the substantia nigra

A

Control of voluntary movement

234
Q

Are majority of axons myelinated or unmyelinated

A

Un-myelinated

235
Q

Who demonstrated impriting in chicks

A

Lorenz

236
Q

Describe the process that leads to transmission of the action potential at a synapse

A

Action potential arrives at the presynaptic terminal Depolarisation causes opening of voltage gated Ca2+ channels due to positive Vm Calcium causes vesicle fusion and NT release Small volume of the cleft causes concentration of NT to rise to the mM range

237
Q

What three things occur when an object is brought closer to the eye

A

Convergence Miosis Lens accomodation

238
Q

How do action potentials vary from graded potenital

A

Change in Vm doesnt spread very far from site of stimulation with effect decreasing with distance can be either excitatory or inhibtory

239
Q

How is choline taken back into the neurone

A

Choline transporter

240
Q

Is the lens living

A

Yes

241
Q

List some distinguishing features of Rod cells

A

High convergence and sensitivitiy, low accuity and fuction best at low light intensities

242
Q

What is autoinhibition

A

Where neurones interact with their own receptors creating a short discrete release period and a tight signal

243
Q

What route brings sensory information into the spinal cord

A

Dorsal

244
Q

From which germ layers is the NS derived from

A

Ectoderm