QUESTIONS 51-100 Flashcards
What is the basic rule regarding visitation?
F - 172
A. Visitors must not infringe on the rights of other residents
B. “Reasonable” restrictions
C. Protection and advocacy programs and family and non relative visitors
D. “Reasonable” Privacy 51
A. Visitors must not infringe on the rights of other residents
The ombudsman has the right to view a resident’s clinical record without the resident’s consent
F - 173
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
Which of the following suffices for "reasonable" access to a telephone where calls can't be overheard? F - 174 A. Staff offices or nursing station B. Telephone jacks in resident rooms C. Cordless telephones D. Both B & C
Telephone jacks in resident rooms
AND
Cordless phones
Which of the following is the rule regarding storage and area for resident personal belongings?
F174
A. Create a home like environment
B. As space permits
C. Must maintain health and safety of residents
D. Both B&C
As space permits
AND
Must maintain health and safety of residents
Which of the following would be true regarding married couples?
F - 175
A. The facility must provide them a room together
B. Only one needs to consent to being roommates
C. The facility must offer a room when it is available
D. Only married couples have the option of choosing to room together
The facility must offer a room when it is available
Which of the following need to be care planned for the resident who has been determined to be safe for the self administration of drugs?
F - 176
A. Who will be responsible for storage and documentation
B. Location of drug administration
C.. Resident has been assessed and determined that the practice is sage
D. All the above
All the above
What is true of a resident who self administers drugs and who made an error in administration.
F- 176
A. Must be factored into facilities medication error rate
B. Calls the facility judgement into question
C. Should not be factored into the facility medication rate.
D. Both B & C
Calls the facility judgement into question
AND
Should not be factored into the facility medication rate
Moving a resident to another legally responsible institution is called what? F - 201-208 A. Discharge or transfer B. Discharge C. Transfer D. Relocation
Transfer
Moving a resident to a non institutional setting when the releasing facility ceases to be responsible for the residents' care is know as what? F - 201-208 A. Discharge or Transfer B. Discharge C. Transfer D. Relocation
Discharge
The facility notice to a resident of transfer or discharge must include all of the following except which one?
F – 201-208
A. How to appeal the transfer to the State
B. Name, address, and phone number of State Ombudsman
C. The reason for the transfer
D. The reason for the transfer must be noted in the clinical record
The reason for the transfer must be noted in the clinical record
Which of the following allows any physician to document?
F - 201-208
A. Resident needs can no longer be met in the facility
B. The facility ceases to operate
C. Health of other individual in the facility would otherwise be endangered
D. Resident has failed to pay facility given reasonable notice
Health of other individual in the facility would otherwise be endangered
What is not one of the exceptions to the 30 day notice requirement prior to transfer?
F 201-208
A. Endangerment to health and safety of others
B. Residents’ health has substantially improved for discharge
C. The resident has not been in the facility for at least 60 days
D. Resident urgent medical needs and must be transferred
The resident has not been in the facility for at least 60 days
A Medi-cal facility is required to provide notice to the resident’s of the bed hold and re-admission policies and procedures prior to transfers.
F - 205
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
A Medi-cal or Medi-cal eligible resident must be allowed re-admission in the first available bed after the 7 day bed hold.
F 201-208
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
Which transfer or discharge scenario requires a 30 day notice?
F - 203
A. Transfer is best for the resident’s welfare
B. Resident has improved and no longer needs facility services
C. Safety of other resident’s are endangered
D. Facility ceases to operate
Facility ceases to operate
Which of the following information is not required to be on the notice of transfer or discharge?
F - 203
A. “Reasonable” information
B. A statement of the right to appeal
C. Name, address, and telephone number of Ombudsman
D. Address and telephone number of Advocacy Protection Programs
“Reasonable” information
What best defines the requirement that a facility must provide sufficient preparation and orientation to residents’ to ensure safe and orderly transfer or discharge from the facility?
F - 204
A. Orientation for transfer or discharge
B. Trial visits to potential new placements
C. Social Services referrals
D. All of the above
All of the above
What is the exception in the requirement that a Medi-cal resident must be re-admitted to the facility upon the first bed availability?
F 206
A. They are only Medi-cal Eligible
B. They need a service the facility cannot provide
C. Both B & D
D. There is no physician willing to admit or follow the patient in the facility
They need a service the facility cannot provide
AND
there is no physician willing to admit or follow the patient in the facility
Once admitted to a facility a resident is serviced according to source of payment.
F 207
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
Which of the following is not true regarding the requirement of the admission policy?
F - 208
A. Cannot be required to waive the right to Medicare and/or Medi-cal benefits
B. A third party cannot be personally liable to pay resident’s stay at the facility
C. A third party who manages a resident’s money can be requested to pay the facility with that money
D. SNF may not solicit for charitable contributions unless they are a non-profit
SNF may not solicit for charitable contributions unless they are a non-profit
What is the best definition of a chemical restraint?
F - 222
A. Behavioral management
B. Required to treat medical symptoms
C. Staff convenience and/or discipline
D. Keep resident from hurting self or others
Staff convenience and/or discipline
Which of the following is the exception regarding the use of restraints?
F - 222
A. They may be used for patient safety
B. Unanticipated aggressive behavior creating imminent danger to self or others
C. Right to refuse restraints
D. Patient can remove restraint easily by self
Unanticipated aggressive behavior creating imminent danger to self or others
What is true of the requirements for the use of side rails?
F - 222
A. Must be medically necessary
B. They are a restraint
C. Only need resident and/or family permission and/or request
D. More injuries and deaths are associated to falls from beds with side rails than without them
Must be medically necessary
An alert resident needing emergency care for a brief time may be restrained for only the time needed to provide the treatment unless what?
F - 222
A. Emergency care is an exception to the rule
B. The resident has refused the treatment
C. Treatment restraints are also an exception to the rule
D. Both A & C
The resident has refused the treatment
Lack of which of the following would reflect negatively on the facility regarding the use of restraints? F - 222 A. Meaningful activities B. Customized resident environment C. Least restrictive measures D. All the above
All the above
Which of the following is not considered by definition to be abuse?
F - 223
A. Must be willful
B. Must result in physical harm, pain or mental anguish
C. Deprivation of services
D. Voluntary seclusion
Voluntary seclusion
The facility may not employ which of the following individuals?
F - 225
A. Accused of abuse
B. Found guilty of abuse by a court of law
C. Found guilty of abuse by a facility
D. Per facility policy and procedure
Found guilty of abuse by a court of law
It is the regulation requirement that facility staff report all abuse allegations to the administrator.
F - 225
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
What is the time frame requirement regarding when the results of an abuse investigation be reported to the appropriate agencies? F - 225 A. 3 Business days B. 5 Days from the verbal report C. 5 Days from the written report D. 5 Working days
5 Working days
What is the best definition of "immediately" when reporting an abuse allegation? F - 225 A. The same day B. Within 24 hours C. Beginning of the next business day D. "Reasonable"
Within 24 hours
Using plastic cutlery and paper ware, bibs, staff talking to each other not acknowledging the resident while in front of the resident would be a violation of what? F - 241 A. Respect B. Privacy C. Dignity D. Right to personal space
Dignity
Dignity, participation in other activities, self-determination, resident groups and accommodation of needs are considered to be under what category? F - 240 A. Quality of Care B. Quality of Life C. Resident Rights D. Free Choice
Quality of Life
Which of the following would not be a violation of quality of life?
F - 241
A..Uncovered catheter bags
B. Signage above the bed with clinical information
C. Resident bibs at meal time per their own choice
D. Only allowing showers 2 times a week when the resident requests four times a week
Resident bibis at meal time per their own choice
A facility must provide a family group under what circumstances? F - 243 A. Absolutely must have one B. If one exists C. No requirement for a family group D. Must have a resident group
If one exists
Providing sinks, faucets, knobs, call bell, and lights at a readable level for the resident would be under what category/regulation? F - 246 A. Equal access B. Life Safety Code C. Accommodation of Needs D. Environmental Safety
Accommodation of Need
A new admission will be admitted to 103B where Mrs. Jones is already a resident in the A bed…what is the right of Mrs. Jones?
F - 247
A. Unopened mail
B. To be notified she is getting a new roommate
C. To give approval for the new admission
D. Same rights as you and I
To be notified she is getting a new roommate
What was the overwhelming result of a CMS study done interviewing residents’s asking what quality of life meant to them?
F - 248
A. Dignity
B. Choice of activities and ones that amount to something
C. A, B & D
D. Independence and positive self image
C. A, B & D
- -Dignity
- -Choice of activities and ones that amount to something
- -Independence and positive self image
Which of the following in general best defines a qualified Activity Director?
F - 249
A. Certified by a recognized accredited body
B. State approved
C. Working in an activity program for 2 years in a healthcare setting
D. Meet the needs of the resident
Certified by a recognized accredited body
Who is in charge of meeting the psychosocial needs of the residents? F - 250 A. Facility B. Social Services C. Social Services and Activities D. All disciplines
Facility
Which of the following is considered medically related Social Services?
F - 250
A. Discharge planning and behavioral management
B. Physical and chemical restraints
C. Legal and finical assistance
D. All the above
All the above
What is the requirement for a Social Worker in a 120 Plus bed facility?
F - 251
A. BA degree in Social work or human services field
B. Must have a degree in Social Work
C. One year of supervised Social work experience in a healthcare setting
D. Both A & C
Both A & C
A facility encouraging a resident and/or family to bring their own furniture, bed spreads and pictures is participating in what? F - 252 A. Homelike environment B. Physical environment C. Psychosocial needs D. Both B & C
Homelike environment
Which of the following is considered to be resident care equipment?
F - 253
A. Pads and positioning devices
B. Feeding tubes and bed pans
C. Denture cups, toothbrushes and eyeglasses
D. All the above
All the above
What is the required temperature range for comfortable and safe levels? F - 257 A. 70 to 80 Degrees B. 71 to 80 Degrees C. 71 to 81 Degrees D. 70 to 81 Degrees
71 to 81 Degrees
A facility must complete a comprehensive assessment within what time frame? F - 273 A. Within 14 days after admission B. After a change of condition C. Both A & D D. Within 21 days after admission
Within 14 days after admission
AND
Within 21 days after admission
Which of the below meet the criteria for a significant change?
F - 274
A. An unplanned 5% weight loss in 30 days
B. Improved ADL function
C. Decline in decision making
D. Both A & C
D. Both A & C
An unplanned 5% weight loss in 30 days
AND
Decline in decision making
Which of the following best defines a significant change? F - 274 A. A decline in two or more areas B. An improvement in two or more areas C. A substantial improvement or decline D. Both A & B
D. Both A & B
A decline in two or more areas
AND/OR
A substantial improvement or decline
A decline or improvement that will not normally resolve itself without staff and or clinical intervention is referring to what? F - 274 A.. No specific reference B. Criteria for significant change C. Just a general statement D. Significant change
Significant change
Comprehensive resident assessments are required to be done within what time frame?
F - 275
A. Annually
B. 366 days after final completion of the most recent CRA
C. Both A & B
D. At least every 15 months
366 days after final completion of the most recent CRA
Quarterly review instruments are to be completed within what time frame?
F - 276
A. Quarterly
B. Every three months
C. Not less than once every three months (Within 92 days)
D. Both A & C
Not less than once every three months (Within 92 days)
