QUESTIONS 51-100 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the basic rule regarding visitation?
F - 172
A. Visitors must not infringe on the rights of other residents
B. “Reasonable” restrictions
C. Protection and advocacy programs and family and non relative visitors
D. “Reasonable” Privacy 51

A

A. Visitors must not infringe on the rights of other residents

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2
Q

The ombudsman has the right to view a resident’s clinical record without the resident’s consent
F - 173
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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3
Q
Which of the following suffices for "reasonable" access to a telephone where calls can't be overheard?
F - 174
A. Staff offices or nursing station
B. Telephone jacks in resident rooms
C. Cordless telephones
D. Both B & C
A

Telephone jacks in resident rooms
AND
Cordless phones

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4
Q

Which of the following is the rule regarding storage and area for resident personal belongings?
F174
A. Create a home like environment
B. As space permits
C. Must maintain health and safety of residents
D. Both B&C

A

As space permits
AND
Must maintain health and safety of residents

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5
Q

Which of the following would be true regarding married couples?
F - 175
A. The facility must provide them a room together
B. Only one needs to consent to being roommates
C. The facility must offer a room when it is available
D. Only married couples have the option of choosing to room together

A

The facility must offer a room when it is available

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6
Q

Which of the following need to be care planned for the resident who has been determined to be safe for the self administration of drugs?
F - 176
A. Who will be responsible for storage and documentation
B. Location of drug administration
C.. Resident has been assessed and determined that the practice is sage
D. All the above

A

All the above

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7
Q

What is true of a resident who self administers drugs and who made an error in administration.
F- 176
A. Must be factored into facilities medication error rate
B. Calls the facility judgement into question
C. Should not be factored into the facility medication rate.
D. Both B & C

A

Calls the facility judgement into question
AND
Should not be factored into the facility medication rate

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8
Q
Moving a resident to another legally responsible institution is called what?
F - 201-208
A. Discharge or transfer
B. Discharge
C. Transfer
D. Relocation
A

Transfer

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9
Q
Moving a resident to a non institutional setting when the releasing facility ceases to be responsible for the residents' care is know as what?
F - 201-208
A. Discharge or Transfer
B. Discharge
C. Transfer
D. Relocation
A

Discharge

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10
Q

The facility notice to a resident of transfer or discharge must include all of the following except which one?
F – 201-208
A. How to appeal the transfer to the State
B. Name, address, and phone number of State Ombudsman
C. The reason for the transfer
D. The reason for the transfer must be noted in the clinical record

A

The reason for the transfer must be noted in the clinical record

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11
Q

Which of the following allows any physician to document?
F - 201-208
A. Resident needs can no longer be met in the facility
B. The facility ceases to operate
C. Health of other individual in the facility would otherwise be endangered
D. Resident has failed to pay facility given reasonable notice

A

Health of other individual in the facility would otherwise be endangered

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12
Q

What is not one of the exceptions to the 30 day notice requirement prior to transfer?
F 201-208
A. Endangerment to health and safety of others
B. Residents’ health has substantially improved for discharge
C. The resident has not been in the facility for at least 60 days
D. Resident urgent medical needs and must be transferred

A

The resident has not been in the facility for at least 60 days

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13
Q

A Medi-cal facility is required to provide notice to the resident’s of the bed hold and re-admission policies and procedures prior to transfers.
F - 205
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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14
Q

A Medi-cal or Medi-cal eligible resident must be allowed re-admission in the first available bed after the 7 day bed hold.
F 201-208
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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15
Q

Which transfer or discharge scenario requires a 30 day notice?
F - 203
A. Transfer is best for the resident’s welfare
B. Resident has improved and no longer needs facility services
C. Safety of other resident’s are endangered
D. Facility ceases to operate

A

Facility ceases to operate

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16
Q

Which of the following information is not required to be on the notice of transfer or discharge?
F - 203
A. “Reasonable” information
B. A statement of the right to appeal
C. Name, address, and telephone number of Ombudsman
D. Address and telephone number of Advocacy Protection Programs

A

“Reasonable” information

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17
Q

What best defines the requirement that a facility must provide sufficient preparation and orientation to residents’ to ensure safe and orderly transfer or discharge from the facility?
F - 204
A. Orientation for transfer or discharge
B. Trial visits to potential new placements
C. Social Services referrals
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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18
Q

What is the exception in the requirement that a Medi-cal resident must be re-admitted to the facility upon the first bed availability?
F 206
A. They are only Medi-cal Eligible
B. They need a service the facility cannot provide
C. Both B & D
D. There is no physician willing to admit or follow the patient in the facility

A

They need a service the facility cannot provide
AND
there is no physician willing to admit or follow the patient in the facility

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19
Q

Once admitted to a facility a resident is serviced according to source of payment.
F 207
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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20
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the requirement of the admission policy?
F - 208
A. Cannot be required to waive the right to Medicare and/or Medi-cal benefits
B. A third party cannot be personally liable to pay resident’s stay at the facility
C. A third party who manages a resident’s money can be requested to pay the facility with that money
D. SNF may not solicit for charitable contributions unless they are a non-profit

A

SNF may not solicit for charitable contributions unless they are a non-profit

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21
Q

What is the best definition of a chemical restraint?
F - 222
A. Behavioral management
B. Required to treat medical symptoms
C. Staff convenience and/or discipline
D. Keep resident from hurting self or others

A

Staff convenience and/or discipline

22
Q

Which of the following is the exception regarding the use of restraints?
F - 222
A. They may be used for patient safety
B. Unanticipated aggressive behavior creating imminent danger to self or others
C. Right to refuse restraints
D. Patient can remove restraint easily by self

A

Unanticipated aggressive behavior creating imminent danger to self or others

23
Q

What is true of the requirements for the use of side rails?
F - 222
A. Must be medically necessary
B. They are a restraint
C. Only need resident and/or family permission and/or request
D. More injuries and deaths are associated to falls from beds with side rails than without them

A

Must be medically necessary

24
Q

An alert resident needing emergency care for a brief time may be restrained for only the time needed to provide the treatment unless what?
F - 222
A. Emergency care is an exception to the rule
B. The resident has refused the treatment
C. Treatment restraints are also an exception to the rule
D. Both A & C

A

The resident has refused the treatment

25
Q
Lack of which of the following would reflect negatively on the facility regarding the use of restraints?
F - 222
A. Meaningful activities 
B. Customized resident environment
C. Least restrictive measures
D. All the above
A

All the above

26
Q

Which of the following is not considered by definition to be abuse?
F - 223
A. Must be willful
B. Must result in physical harm, pain or mental anguish
C. Deprivation of services
D. Voluntary seclusion

A

Voluntary seclusion

27
Q

The facility may not employ which of the following individuals?
F - 225
A. Accused of abuse
B. Found guilty of abuse by a court of law
C. Found guilty of abuse by a facility
D. Per facility policy and procedure

A

Found guilty of abuse by a court of law

28
Q

It is the regulation requirement that facility staff report all abuse allegations to the administrator.
F - 225
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

29
Q
What is the time frame requirement regarding when the results of an abuse investigation be reported to the appropriate agencies?
F - 225
A. 3 Business days
B. 5 Days from the verbal report
C. 5 Days from the written report
D. 5 Working days
A

5 Working days

30
Q
What is the best definition of "immediately" when reporting an abuse allegation?
F - 225
A. The same day
B. Within 24 hours
C. Beginning of the next business day
D. "Reasonable"
A

Within 24 hours

31
Q
Using plastic cutlery and paper ware, bibs, staff talking to each other not acknowledging the resident while in front of the resident would be a violation of what?
F - 241
A. Respect
B. Privacy
C. Dignity
D. Right to personal space
A

Dignity

32
Q
Dignity, participation in other activities, self-determination, resident groups and accommodation of needs are considered to be under what category?
F - 240
A. Quality of Care
B. Quality of Life
C. Resident Rights
D. Free Choice
A

Quality of Life

33
Q

Which of the following would not be a violation of quality of life?
F - 241
A..Uncovered catheter bags
B. Signage above the bed with clinical information
C. Resident bibs at meal time per their own choice
D. Only allowing showers 2 times a week when the resident requests four times a week

A

Resident bibis at meal time per their own choice

34
Q
A facility must provide a family group under what circumstances?
F - 243
A. Absolutely must have one
B. If one exists
C. No requirement for a family group
D. Must have a resident group
A

If one exists

35
Q
Providing sinks, faucets, knobs, call bell, and lights at a readable level for the resident would be under what category/regulation?
F - 246
A. Equal access
B. Life Safety Code
C. Accommodation of Needs
D. Environmental Safety
A

Accommodation of Need

36
Q

A new admission will be admitted to 103B where Mrs. Jones is already a resident in the A bed…what is the right of Mrs. Jones?
F - 247
A. Unopened mail
B. To be notified she is getting a new roommate
C. To give approval for the new admission
D. Same rights as you and I

A

To be notified she is getting a new roommate

37
Q

What was the overwhelming result of a CMS study done interviewing residents’s asking what quality of life meant to them?
F - 248
A. Dignity
B. Choice of activities and ones that amount to something
C. A, B & D
D. Independence and positive self image

A

C. A, B & D

  • -Dignity
  • -Choice of activities and ones that amount to something
  • -Independence and positive self image
38
Q

Which of the following in general best defines a qualified Activity Director?
F - 249
A. Certified by a recognized accredited body
B. State approved
C. Working in an activity program for 2 years in a healthcare setting
D. Meet the needs of the resident

A

Certified by a recognized accredited body

39
Q
Who is in charge of meeting the psychosocial needs of the residents?
F - 250
A. Facility
B. Social Services
C. Social Services and Activities
D. All disciplines
A

Facility

40
Q

Which of the following is considered medically related Social Services?
F - 250
A. Discharge planning and behavioral management
B. Physical and chemical restraints
C. Legal and finical assistance
D. All the above

A

All the above

41
Q

What is the requirement for a Social Worker in a 120 Plus bed facility?
F - 251
A. BA degree in Social work or human services field
B. Must have a degree in Social Work
C. One year of supervised Social work experience in a healthcare setting
D. Both A & C

A

Both A & C

42
Q
A facility encouraging a resident and/or family to bring their own furniture, bed spreads and pictures is participating in what?
F - 252
A. Homelike environment
B. Physical environment 
C. Psychosocial needs
D. Both B & C
A

Homelike environment

43
Q

Which of the following is considered to be resident care equipment?
F - 253
A. Pads and positioning devices
B. Feeding tubes and bed pans
C. Denture cups, toothbrushes and eyeglasses
D. All the above

A

All the above

44
Q
What is the required temperature range for comfortable and safe levels?
F - 257
A. 70 to 80 Degrees
B. 71 to 80 Degrees
C. 71 to 81 Degrees
D. 70 to 81 Degrees
A

71 to 81 Degrees

45
Q
A facility must complete a comprehensive assessment within what time frame?
F - 273
A. Within 14 days after admission
B. After a change of condition
C. Both A & D
D. Within 21 days after admission
A

Within 14 days after admission
AND
Within 21 days after admission

46
Q

Which of the below meet the criteria for a significant change?
F - 274
A. An unplanned 5% weight loss in 30 days
B. Improved ADL function
C. Decline in decision making
D. Both A & C

A

D. Both A & C
An unplanned 5% weight loss in 30 days
AND
Decline in decision making

47
Q
Which of the following best defines a significant change?
F - 274
A. A decline in two or more areas
B. An improvement in two or more areas
C. A substantial improvement or decline
D. Both A & B
A

D. Both A & B
A decline in two or more areas
AND/OR
A substantial improvement or decline

48
Q
A decline or improvement that will not normally resolve itself without staff and or clinical intervention is referring to what?
F - 274
A.. No specific reference 
B. Criteria for significant change
C. Just a general statement
D. Significant change
A

Significant change

49
Q

Comprehensive resident assessments are required to be done within what time frame?
F - 275
A. Annually
B. 366 days after final completion of the most recent CRA
C. Both A & B
D. At least every 15 months

A

366 days after final completion of the most recent CRA

50
Q

Quarterly review instruments are to be completed within what time frame?
F - 276
A. Quarterly
B. Every three months
C. Not less than once every three months (Within 92 days)
D. Both A & C

A

Not less than once every three months (Within 92 days)