QUESTIONS 101-150 Flashcards
All MDS assessments must be kept in the active clinical record for how long? F - 276 A.. 12 months B. 15 months C. 18 months D.. The most recent 366 days
15 months
MDS data must be capable of transmitting to the State within what time frame? F - 287 A. ASAP verbally B. Within 24 hours of completion C. Within 7 days after completed D. Both A & C
Within 7 days after complete
MDS assessments from the previous month must be transited at least how often? F - 287 A. Monthly B. Within 14 days of completion C. Weekly D. As they are complete
Within 14 days of completion
What is the licensure requirement to conduct or coordinate the MDS assessment with the appropriate health professionals? F - 278 A. The MDS coordinator B. Registered Nurse C. LVN or RN D. Both A & C
Registered Nurse
What is the penalty for falsification on a resident assessment?
F - 278
A. $500 fine with possible jail time
B. $5000 per falsified assessment
C. No more than $1000 civil penalty per assessment
D. None. A clinical disagreement does not constitute falsification
C. No more than $1000 civil penalty per assessment
What is the penalty to an individual who causes another person to falsify on resident assessment?
F - 278
A. The same as if they did it themselves
B. No more than $1000 civil penalty per assessment
C. Both A & B
D. No more than a $5000 civil penalty per assessment
D. No more than a $5000 civil penalty per assessment
Comprehensive care plans must be completed within what time farm after admission?
F - 280
A. Within 21 days
B. Within 7 days after the comprehensive assessment is complete
C. Both A & B
D. Within 5 days
Both A & B
Who is included in the inter disciplinary team? F - 280 A. Resident and or family B. Attending physician and RN C. Admissions D. Both A & B
Both A & B
A discharge summary must include what? F - 283 A. A re-capitulation of residents stay B. Dietary Review C. Rehab Review D. All the above
A re-capitulation of residents stay
What is the admissions screening process in place to ensure that residents with mental illness or mental retardation will have their needs met?
F - 285
A. PASRR
B. Both A & C
C. Pre-admission screening and resident review
D. Administrative approval
PASRR
AND
Pre-admission screening and resident review
SNF services ordinarily are not of the intensity to meet the needs of resident’s with MI or MR.
F-285
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
Who is required to provide specialized services to residents with MI/MR in a Medicaid/Cal facility? F - 285 A. The facility B. The Regional Center C. The State D. Staff
C. The State
Pain management, pressure sores, toileting, bathing, dressing, eating, grooming, transfers and ambulation are all under what category? F - 309 - 310 A. Quality of Life B. ADL's C. Quality of Care D. Restorative Care
C. Quality of Care
A facility by regulation is required to have a restorative program that will improve and maintain the highest practicable outcome.
F - 311
TRUE OR FALSE
TRUE
Which of the following is considered to be Quality of Care? F - 315 A. Hearing aids and eyeglasses B. Oral hygien C. Urinary incontinence and catheters D. All the above
D. All the above
Which of the following must either improve or at least be maintained? F - 317-318 A. Vision B. Hearing C. Range of motion D. Both A & C
Range of Motion
Medical devices and computer equipment may be plugged into power strips.
F - 323
TRUE OR FALSE
FALSE
Suggested parameters for unplanned weight loss or gain are which of the following? F - 325 A. 5# in 30 days B. 5% in one month or 7.5% in 3 months C. 10% in six months D. B & C
5% in one month or 7.5% in 3 months
AND/OR
10% in six months
Which of the following information is required to be posted on a daily basis?
F - 356
A. Facility name and current date
B. Census
C. Total number of nursing hours worked by category
D. All the above
All the above
What is the minimum time frame that the facility is meant to maintain the posted daily nurse staffing data? F - 356 A. One year B. 15 months C. 18 months D. 6 months
18 months
A facility is required to employ a Dietician on what basis?
F - 361
A. Full time and also employee a dietary supervisor
B. Part time with a dietary supervisor
C. Consultant basis with no dietary supervisor
D. Both B & C
Part time with a dietary supervisor
Which of the following are not required to be completed and or discussed upon admission? A. Advanced Healthcare Directive B. In House Preferred Intensity of Care C. Informed Consent D. Resident Rights
C. Informed consent
What is the space regulation regarding multiple resident rooms? F - 458 A. 110 sq ft of usable space B. 80 sq ft of usable space C. 100 sp ft of usable space D. 80 sq ft
B. 80 sq ft of usable space
What is the space regulation regarding single resident rooms? F - 458 A. 110 sq ft of usable space B. 80 sq ft of usable space C. 100 sq ft of usable space D. 80 sq ft of usable space
C. 100 sq ft of usable space
What rule applies in the event that the facility owns a movable armoire that has been left in a resident’s room per the resident choice?
F - 458
A. Non-permanent items have no effect on space calculation
B. Remove the armoire
C. The space occupied by the armoire should be excluded from the space footage calculation
D. If the area is minimal no need to exclude from the usable space calculation
The space occupied by the armoire should be excluded from the space footage calculation
What is the best definition of “shelves accessible to the resident”?
F - 461
A. A resident is able to reach and use the shelves
B. An able resident is able to get to their clothes
C. Staff at the direction of an unable resident can get to the resident’s clothes
D. both B & C
D. Both B & C
An able resident is able to get to their clothes
AND
Staff at the direction of an unable resident can get to the resident’s clothes
What is the best thing to do to ensure victual privacy for a resident with a window bed?
F - 460
A..Check the window from the outside to ensure that people can’t see in
B. Care giver should block the view from the window when providing care
C. Install a window blind with 100% coverage
D. A privacy curtain enclosing the entire bed
A privacy curtain enclosing the entire bed
What is the best definition of the responsibilities required of the Medical Director?
F - 501
A. Consultant to the DON
B. Implement resident care policies and coordinate medical care in the facility
C. Liaison between administrator and attending physicians
D. Employee initial and annual physicals
Implement resident care policies and coordinate medical care in the facility
What is the requirement regarding a straight Medi-Cal patient with no insurance coverage who needs and is appropriate for Physical Therapy?
F - 250
A. Discuss with family that they will need to pay privately
B. Because there is no insurance the facility is not able to give therapy
C. Must give physical therapy even if the facility pays
D. Explain to the family why the needed services cannot be provided
Must give physical therapy even if the facility pays
Which of the following do not apply to Social Services regulations?
F - 250
A. Assist resident with financial and legal matters
B. Chronic or cute pain
C. A physical or chemical restraint
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
What is it called when a surveyor visits a facility on a complaint? SOM A. Extended Survey B. Partial Survey C. Partial extended survey D. Abbreviated Standard Survey
D. Abbreviated Standard Survey
What do the QIS standard survey and the traditional survey have in common?
Appendix P
A. They both have seven survey tasks
B. Includes actual and potential negative outcomes
C. Person centered and task oriented
D. Both B & C
Includes actual and potential negative outcomes
What process is the follow up to a finding of SQOC during an abbreviated survey? Appendix P A.. QIS B. Extended Survey C. Partial Extended Survey D. Standard Survey
Partial Extended Survey
An on-site revisit intended to verify corrections of deficiencies cited in a prior survey is known as what?
Appendix P
A. There is no such on site revisit to verify corrections
B. Extended Survey
C. Post Survey Re-visit
D. Abbreviated Survey
Post survey re-visit
The initial certification processes is also known as what? Appendix P A. Traditional Survey B. Extended Survey C. Re-Certification Survey D. Both A & C
Traditional Survey
Who approves State's to utilize the QIS? Appendix P A. Federal Government B. CMS C. No requirement D. Stat by state basis
CMS
SQOC found during a QIS is defined as one or more deficiencies of a scope/severity levels F,H,I,K, or L in which of the following areas?
Appendix P
A. Resident Behavior and facility practices
B. Quality of life
C. Quality of Care
D. All the above
All the above
What is the main focus during a QIS Extended Survey?
Appendix P
A. Dietary, activities, pharmacy, physician and nursing services
B. Administration, physician and nursing services
C. Verify corrections from QIS Standard Survey
D. The same as a QIS Standard Survey
Administration, physician and nursing services
The best definition of Stage I of the QIS is what?
Appendix P
A. Off site and on site data
B. Observations and interviews
C. Record reviews of computer selected residents
D. All the above
D. All the above
What best defines stage II of the QIS? Appendix P A. Analysis of information B. Information gathering C. Investigation of triggered issues and residents using the Guidance to Surveyors and critical elements protocol D. Large resident sample
C. Investigation of triggered issues and residents using the Guidance to Surveyors and critical elements protocol
The traditional Survey process in general is basically for the purpose of what?
Appendix P
A. To receive payment under the Medicare system
B. Medicare re-certification
C. To receive payment under the Medicaid system
D. All the above
All the above
What is the main point of “Sanitary Conditions”?.
F - 371
A. Prevent cross contamination
B. Prevent the outbreak of food borne illness
C. Infection control
D. Prevent illness
Prevent the outbreak of food borne illness
What is considered to be the "Danger Zone"? F - 371 A. Food temps below135F and above 41F B. Food temps above 41F and below 140F C. Bacteria growth D. Both B & C
Food temps below 135F and above 41F
Food contamination falls into what three categories?
F - 371
A. Cross contamination, toxins, pathogens
B. Bacteria, virus, food-borne illness
C. Biological, chemical and physical
D. There are only two bacteria and viruses
Biological, chemical and physical
What are the most common types of disease producing organisms? F - 371 A. Bacteria and viruses B. Bacteria and fungus C. Bacteria, virus and fungus D. Bacteria and toxins
A. Bacteria and viruses
Raw food dripping onto cooked or ready to eat foods would be an example of what? F - 371 A. PHF B. Food-borne illness C. TCS D. Cross contamination
D. Cross contamination
Which of the following inhibits bacterial growth? F - 371 A. Fruits and veggies B. Pineapple, vinegar and lemon juice C. Protein foods D. Both B & C
Pineapple, vinegar and lemon juice
Rapid death of most bacteria occurs at what degrees? F - 371 A. 165 F or above B. 145 F or above C. Foods must be frozen for rapid death D. 155 F or above
165 F or above
Beef, poultry, chicken, seafood, melon, milk and yogurt are examples of what types of food?
F - 371
A. PHF/TCS
B. Toxin potential foods
C. Potentially healthy foods and time control for safety foods
D. Both A & C
PHF/TCS
What is the exception to unsafe food sources?
F - 371
A. Home prepared foods
B. Home preserved foods
C. Food not approved by Federal, State, or local authorities
D. Family member or other resident guest bringing food in for the resident and or another resident’s consumption
Family member or other resident guest bringing food in for the resident and or another resident’s consumption
