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LP:OBRA EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS > QUESTIONS 151 - 200 > Flashcards

QUESTIONS 151 - 200 Flashcards

1
Q 
Pieces of bone found in food is an example of what?
F - 371
A. Cross contamination
B. Physical contamination
C. Chemical contamination
D. Improper sanitation
A

Physical contamination

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2
Q 
Person's 65 or older are 2-3 times more likely than younger people to get what type of infection?
F - 334
A. FLU
B. Pneumococcal infections
C. Noro virus
D. C-Diff
A

Pneumococcal infections

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3
Q

What is one of the main focuses of isolation protocol?
F - 441
A. Hand washing
B. Universal precautions
C. Standard precautions
D. Method should be the least restrictive

A

D. Method should be the least restrictive

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4
Q

Which of the following persons may have medical contraindications from live attenuated influenza vaccine?
F - 334
A. 50 years of age or older with pulmonary disorder
B. Diabetic and renal patients
C. Patients receiving immune-suppressive therapies
D. All the above

A

D. All the above

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5
Q

The facility should isolate infected residents only to the degree needed to isolate the infected organism.
F - 441
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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6
Q 
Causing a resident discomfort or jeopardizing his or her health and safety is known as what?
F 332-333
A. Medication error
B. Non significant medication error
C. Significant medication error
D. Black Box Warning
A

C. Significant medication error

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7
Q

Which of the following are surveyor guidelines in determining whether a medication error is significant or not?
F - 332-333
A. Resident condition, drug category and frequency of condition
B. Totally subjected to the surveyors judgment
C. Refer to the surveyors reference grid
D. Negative outcome to the resident

A

Resident condition, drug category and frequency of condition

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8
Q

Which of the following would be considered a significant medication error?
F - 332-333
A. Haldol ordered but not given time
B. Motrin given without a doctors order
C. Cortisporin ear drops given to the left eye
D. Timoptic order one drop to the left eye administered three drops to each eye

A

Cortisporin ear drops given to the left eye

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9
Q

Which of the following may be considered medication errors?
F - 332-333
A. Failure to “shake well”
B. Insulin suspensions
C. Crushing meds that should not be crushed
D. All the above

A

All the above

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10
Q

A medication that must be given with food or anti-acids but is not…is considered to be a medication error.
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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11
Q

A metered dose inhaler hat is not shaken well before given is considered to be a medication error.
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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12
Q 
What is the time frame that should be given in between administering each eye drop?
F - 332-333
A. One minute
B. Two minutes
C. Three to five
D. No time frame required
A

C. Three to Five minutes

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13
Q 
What is the time frame that should be given in between administering "puff"?
F - 332-333
A. One minute 
B. Two minutes
C. Three minutes
D. None required
A

A. One minute

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14
Q

Administering a medication before a meal when the order was for it to be given after the meal is a medication error.
F - 332-333
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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15
Q

Bare hand contact with foods is allowed under certain circumstances.
F - 332-333
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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16
Q 
Which of the following is most associated to food borne illness?
F - 332-333
A. Re-heating foods 
B. Improper cooling
C. The danger zone
D. Thawing process
A

The danger zone

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17
Q 
What is the temperature requirement for fresh, frozen or canned fruits or vegetables that are being cooked?
F - 371
A. Hot holding temp of 135 F
B. Hot holding temp of 145 F
C. No temp requirement
D. Hot holding temp of 155 F
A

Hot holding temp of 135 F

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18
Q 
How long must internal food temperature be monitored and maintained?
F - 371
A. No requirement
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 10 seconds
A

15 seconds

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19
Q 
What is the required internal temperature for poultry?
F - 371
A. 145 F
B. 155 F
C. 165 F
D. All the above
A

165 F

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20
Q 
What is required internal temp for ground meat, pork, fish and eggs?
F - 371
A. 145 F
B. 155 F
C. 165 F
D. 175 F
A

155 F

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21
Q 
What is the process with the most risk for being in a "Danger Zone"?
F - 371
A. Thawing 
B. Improper cooling
C. Re-heating
D. Both B & C
A

Improper cooling
AND/OR
Reheating

22
Q 
What is the required time frame for dose reduction for sedatives/hypnotics?
 F - 329 
A. Twice every six months
B. Yearly
C. Quarterly
D. Quarterly unless contraindicated
A

Quarterly unless contraindicated

23
Q

What is the required time frame for dose reduction for psychopharmacological medications?
F - 329
A. Twice every six months
B. Yearly
C. Two separate quarters within the first year with at least a month apart
D. Quarterly unless contraindicated

A

Two separate quarters within the first year with at least a month apart

24
Q 
When can a DON act as a Charge Nurse?
F - 354
A. Average daily occupancy of 60 or less
B. As long as there's another RN to cover
C. An LVN is not available
D. Average daily occupancy of 59 or less
A

Average daily occupancy of 60 or less

25
Q

When the State waives the more than 40 hour RN services requirement…who must be notified?
F - 355
A. Physician, residents and family
B. Residents, family, Ombudsman, advocacy and protection systems for mentally retarded and mentally ill
C. DHS, Physician, residents, families
D. CMS

A

Residents, family, Ombudsman, advocacy and protection systems for mentally retarded and mentally ill

26
Q 
Who is responsible for checking with the all state nurse-aid registries before using a person as a nurse aid?
F - 496
A. DSD
B. Certified Nursing Assistant Program
C. Facility
D. Administrator
A

Facility

27
Q

Which of the following are key indicators for surveyors in evaluating whether resident needs are being met?
Appendix P
A. Staff satisfaction
B. Family satisfaction
C. Call bell response time and monitoring of those who are unable to call
D. Resident satisfaction

A

Call bell response time and monitoring of those who are unable to call

28
Q

In order to view their medical records within the next 24 hours (excluding weekends and holidays) the resident must do what?
F - 153
A. Sign a medical records release of info
B. Family must sign a medical records release form
C. Get a doctor’s order
D. Make a verbal and or written request

A

Make a verbal and or written request

29
Q

What best defines the type of Social Services the facility must provide?
F - 250-251
A. Meet the need of the resident
B. Medically related Social Services to attain and maintain the highest, predictable, physical, mental and psychological well being of each resident
C. Liaison between residents and staff
D. Resident and family satisfaction

A

Medically related Social Services to attain and maintain the highest, predictable physical, mental and psychological well being of each resident

30
Q

What are the minimum requirements for a Social worker of a 120 bed or plus facility?
F - 251
A. Full time
B. Social Services Aid
C. B.A. Degree in Social Services or Human Services field
D. Licensed Clinical Social Worker

A

B. A. Degree in Social Services or Human Services field.

31
Q

Should a resident refuse breakfast at the regular breakfast time but request breakfast later in the morning at 10 AM, the facility is not required to provide the exact meal but is required to provide a substitute or variation of a breakfast meal.
F - 368
TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

32
Q

What is the first thing staff should do when a resident refuses a meal?
F - 366
A. Notify the supervisor
B. Notify the kitchen
C. Offer an alternate meal with similar nutrition value
D. Remove the tray and notify the kitchen

A

Offer an alternate meal with similar nutrition value

33
Q

What is the best description of the service that the Dietary department is required to provide?
F - 360
A. Screen, assess, interview resident and family, alert treatment team
B. Screen assesses dietary recommendations and follow up
C. A palatable, well balanced diet that meets the daily nutritional and dietary needs of each resident
D. Regular and therapeutic diet

A

A palatable, well balanced diet that meets the daily nutritional and dietary needs of each resident

34
Q 
Weight must be monitored how often?
F - 325
A. Monthly and as needed
B. Quarterly and as needed 
C. Weekly and as needed
D. Daily and as needed
A

Monthly and as needed

35
Q

When should weight be monitored more often than just monthly?
F - 325
A. 5# loss or gain in 30 days or 10# in six months
B. Physician order
C. 5% loss or gain in a month or 10% in six months
D. Per dietician recommendations

A

5% loss or gain in a month or 10% in six months

36
Q 
If the evening snack is substantial, what is the allowable time gap between the evening meal and breakfast?
F 368
A. 16 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 10 hours
D. 14 hours
A

16 hours

37
Q

What is one of the main contributing factors to nursing homes having large numbers of patients with nutrition problems?
F - 353
A. Meal is not palatable
B. Hot food is not hot - cold food is not cold
C. Low staffing levels
D. Swallowing problems

A

C. Low staffing levels

38
Q

Primary physician visits are required how often?
F - 387
A. Every 30 days for the first 6 months and every 30 days thereafter
B. Every 30 days
C. Every 30 days for the first 90 days and every 60 days there after
D. At least every 60 days

A

C. Every 30 days for the first 90 days and every 60 days thereafter

39
Q

Who is required to be in the QA Committee?
F - 520
A. DON, Medical Director, Physician, 3 facility staff
B. Administrator, DON, Medical Director, Physician, 3 facility staff
C. DON, facility physician and at least 3 other facility staff
D. Administrator, DON, Physician, 3 facility staff

A

DON, facility physician, 3 facility staff

40
Q 
If there is a question of inadequate medical care who is responsible for evaluation the situation and resolving the problem?
F - 501
A. Administrator
B. Medical Director
C. Primary Physician
D. DON
A

Medical Director

41
Q

If a resident is unable to pay for emergency dental care the facility is not required to provide the service?
F - 207
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

42
Q 
What is the primary means of preventing the spread of infection?
F - 442
A. Wearing gloves, masks and gowns
B. Washing of hands
C. Following infection control P&P
D. Staff not coming into work when sick
A

Washing of hands

43
Q

An approach where all human blood and certain body fluids are treated as if known to be infectious for HIV, HBV, and other blood borne pathogens is know as what?
F - 442
A. Combination of universal precaution and body substance guidelines
B. Universal precautions
C. Body substance guidelines
D. Standard precautions

A

Universal Precautions

44
Q

What best defines the foundation for the policies and regulations outlined in the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987?
F - 442
A. “What has always been good practice”
B. Religious, creative, physical, indoor, outdoor, and away activities
C. Meed the needs of the residents
D. Participate in comprehensive care plan and assessment

A

“What has always been good practice”

45
Q

What is the basic requirement of the activity program?
F - 442
A. Assist with ADL’s and daily activities
B. Religious, creative, physical, indoor, outdoor, and away activities
C. Meet the needs of the residents
D. Participate in comprehensive care plan and assessment

A

Meet the needs of the resident

46
Q

An Activity Director must be an activities professional licensed by the State and eligible for certification.F - 464
TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

47
Q

Which type would Physical Therapy be considered?
F - 464, F 310-312
A. Exercise activity
B. Passive activity
C. Active activity
D. P.T. is not considered a part of the activity program

A

PT is not considered a part of the activity program

48
Q 
What provides a "snap shot" of the residents overall state of being?
F - 271-287
A. RAI
B. Comprehensive care plan
C. MDS
D. RAP
A

MDS

49
Q 
The comprehensive assessment is required within what time frame of admission?
F - 271-287
A. 5 days
B. 1 week
C. 14 days
D. 10 days
A

14 days

50
Q 
Comprehensive care plan must be completed within what time frame of admission?
F - 271-287
A. 14 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 21 days
A

21 days

LP:OBRA EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS (6 decks)

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