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Aubrey- Embryology > Questions > Flashcards

Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The principal energy source for ejaculation spermatozoa is: a. prostatic acid phosphatase b. internal glucose c. prostatic citric acid d. fructose in seminal vesicle fluid e. glycogen release from the vaginal epithelium
A

d. fructose in seminal vesicle fluid

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2
Q
  1. Of the barriers to sperm survival and transport within the female reproductive tract, low pH is most important in the: a. upper uterine tube b. lower uterine tube c. uterine cavity d. cervix (is a barrier for other reasons not pH) e. vagina
A

e. vagina

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3
Q
  1. During the menstrual cycle, a sharp spike in plasma levels of which of the following hormone jus before ovulation is responsible for ovulation? a. fsh b. LH c. estrogen d. progesterone e. estradiol 17 beta
A

b. LH

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4
Q
  1. Transcription of which of the following genes is required to permit cleavage to proceed to the 2 cell stage in mammalian embryos? a. nanog b. 4-oct c. cdx-2 d. sox-2
A

b. 4-oct

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following cells are responsible for the production of testosterone in the testes? a. sertoli cells b. leydig cell c. grandulose cells d. spermatogonia
A

b. leydig cell

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6
Q
  1. The graafian follicle, in addition to participating in ovulation, also has endocrine function. What components of the graafin cfollicle formteh corpus luteum? a. granulose cells b. Thecal cells c. Corona radiate cells d. Both granulose and thecal cells
A

d. Both granulose and thecal cells

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7
Q
  1. In mammalian embryos, unlike non mammalian and inverte embryos, most transcription via the embryonic genome, as opposed to the maternal genome, occurs as early as which ofhe following stages a. zygote b. 4-cell stage c. balstula d. gastula
A

b. 4-cell stage

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8
Q
  1. In Drosophoila from which ofhte following genes categories adre mRNA derived fromt eh maternal genone rathe than embryonic genome a. Egg polarity genes b. Pair rule genes c. Homeotic genes d. Gap genes
A

a. Egg polarity genes

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is a transcription factor a. FGF b. Pax c. TGF d. Notch e. Wnt
A

b. Pax

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10
Q
  1. Zinc fingers or helix loop helix arrangements are characteristic of members of what class of molecules? a. Proto-oncogenes b. Signaling molecules c. Receptors d. Transcription factors e. None of the above
A

d. Transcription factors

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11
Q
  1. Sonic hedgehog is produced in which signaling center a. Notochord b. Interstinal portals c. Floor plate of neural tube d. Zone of polarizing activity in the limb bud e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

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12
Q
  1. Based on your knowledge of paralogous groups, which gene would be expressed most anteriorly in the embryo? a. Hoxa-13 b. Hoxc-9 c. Hoxd-13 d. Hoxb-1 e. Hoxb-6
A

d. Hoxb-1

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13
Q
  1. The principal inductor in primary neural induction is the: a. Hypoblast b. Primitive streak c. Extraembryonic mesoderm d. Notochordal process e. Embryonic ectoderm
A

d. Notochordal process

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14
Q
  1. Cells of which germ layer are not present in the oropharyngeal membrane? a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. All are present
A

b. Mesoderm

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15
Q
  1. Brachyury, a deficiency in caudal tissues in the body, is cuased by a mutation in what gene? a. Lim-1 b. Noggin c. T d. Sonic hedgehog e. Activin
A

c. T

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16
Q
  1. Hypoblast is a bilaminar, early embryo gives rise to which of the following tissue types? a. Extraembryonic only b. Embryonic only c. Embryonic and extraembryonic d. Neither
A

a. Extraembryonic only

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17
Q
  1. In meiosis pair of homologous chromosomes begins during which of the followoing stages of prophase I: a. Leptotine b. Zygotene c. Pachytene d. Diplotene
A

b. Zygotene

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following description best describes the oogonium and the ovary during the early fetal period? a. Diploid, no follicle b. Diploid, few follicle cells c. Haploid, no follicle d. Haploid, few follicle cells
A

a. Diploid, no follicle

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19
Q
  1. Inhibin released by the granulose cells during the mammary cycle inhibits secretions of gonadotropins especially FSH. Resulting in which of the following
A

Regression of the corpus luteum

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20
Q
  1. Splitting of the blastocyst during early development, results in the two complete blastocyst enclose within a single trophoblast is the most common mode of twinning. Assuming complete normal identical twins result what developmental property is illustrated? a. Differentiation b. Determination c. Regulation d. Morphogenesis
A

c. Regulation

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21
Q

A 33 year old woman has have both ovaries removed because of large bilateral ovarian cyst. The next year she is on an extended expedition in northern canada, and her canoe tips, sending her replacement hormonal medicate to the bottom of the lake. More than 6 weeks elapse before she is able to obtain a new supply of medication. Which of the following would be least affected by the loss of the medication? A. blood levels of FSH and LH B. Ciliated cells of the uterine tube C. Mass of the heart D. Glandular tissue of the breasts E. Thickness of the endometirum

A

C. Mass of the heart

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22
Q

During spermatogenesis, histone is replaced by which of the following, to allow better packing of the condensed chromatin in the head of the spermatozoon? A. inhibin b. prostaglandin E c. testosterone d. protamine e. androgen-binding protein

A

d. protamine

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23
Q

Which cell type is located outside the blood-testis barrier? A. spermatozoon B. Secondary spermatocyte C. Spermatid D. Primary spermatocyte E. Spermatogonium

A

E. Spermatogonium

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24
Q

Which of the following cells normally participates in mitotic divisions? A. primary oocyte B. oogonium C. Primary spermatocyte D. spermatid E. secondary spermatocyte

A

B. oogonium

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25
Q

At what stage of oogenesis is meiosis arrested in the female?

A

At prophase (dipotene stage) of the first meiotic division and at metaphase of second meiotic division

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26
Q

What is the underlain cause of most spontaneous abortions during the early weeks of pregnancy?

A

Chromosomal abnormalities such as polyploidy

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27
Q

The actions of what hormones are responsible for the changes in the endometrium during the menstrual cycle

A

Estrogen, secreted by ovary support preovulatory proliferative phase Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum

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28
Q

Sertoli cells in the testis are stimulated by what two major reproductive hormones?

A

FSH produced by anterior pituitary Testosterone produced by Leydig cells

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29
Q

What is the principle hormonal stimulus for ovulation?

A

The sharp surge of LH

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30
Q

What is capacitation?

A

Interaction between a spermatozoon and female reproductive tissues that increase sperm ability to fertilize an egg

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31
Q

Where does fertilization occur?

A

upper this of uterine tube

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32
Q

What is polyspermy, how is it prevented after a spermatozoon enters the egg

A

prevented through fast block

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33
Q

What is the most common condition associated with spontaneous aborted embryos? A. Maternal imprinting B. Paternal imprinting C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Chromosomal abnormailites E. Lack of X-chromosomal inactivation

A

D. Chromosomal abnormailites

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34
Q

What tissue from the implanting embryo directly interfaces with the endometrial connective tissue A. Corona radiata B. Inner cell mass C. Extraembryonic mesoderm D. Epiblast E. Syncytiotrophoblast

A

E. Syncytiotrophoblast

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35
Q

The zona pellucida: A. Aids in the penetration of the endometrail epithelium B. Serves as a source of nutrients for the embryo C. Prevents premature implantation of the cleaving embryo D. All of the above E. None

A

C. Prevents premature implantation of the cleaving embryo

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36
Q

What is the importance of the inner cell mass of the cleaving embryo?

A

The embryonic body proper arises from the inner cell mass

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37
Q

Parental imprinting is a phenomenon showing that certain homologous maternal and paternal chromosomes have different influences on the development of the embryo. Excess paternal influences result in abnormal development of what type of tissue at the expense of development of the embryo itself?

A

Trophoblastic issues

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38
Q

What is the function of integrins in implantation?

A

They allow the trophoblast of the embryo to adhere to the uterine epitheium

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39
Q

Where in the cell is the retinoid acid receptor located?

A

The receptors for retinoid acid are located in nucleus

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40
Q

A mutation for what receptor is the basis for basal carcinomas of the skin? A. Patched B. Retinoic acid C. Notch D. FGF receptor E. None

A

A. Patched

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41
Q

Zinc finger or helix loop helix arrangements are characteristic of members of what class of molecules? A. proto-oncogenes B. signaling molecules C. Receptors D. Transcription factors E. None

A

D. Transcription factors

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42
Q

Sonic hedgehog is produced in which signaling center? A. notochord B. intestinal portals C. Floor plate of neural tube D. Zone of polarizing activity in limb bud E. All

A

E. All

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43
Q

A 35 year old married man with a history of chronic respiratory infection sis found on a routine X-ray examination to have dextrocardia. Further physical examination and imaging studies reveal that he has complete sinus inversus. He has also been going to another clinic for completely different problem, which is related to the same underlying defects. What clinic a. urology b. dermatology c. infertility d. orthopedic e. oncology

A

c. infertility Because of respitatory issues with situs inverses, probably has mutation of a dynein gene. Person have immotile sperm

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44
Q

Which of the following tissues arises from cells passing through the primitive streaks? a. embryonic endoderm b. hypoblast c. cytotrophoblast d. primary yolk sac e. anmion

A

b. hypoblast

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45
Q

The prechordal plate plays an important role in regionalization of the: a. notochord b. forebrain c. embryonic mesoderm d. primitive node e. hindbrain

A

b. forebrain

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46
Q

Which layer of the bilaminar (two-layered) embryo gives rise to all of the embryonic tissue proper?

A

Epibalst

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47
Q

Of what importance is the primitive node in embryonic development?

A

acts as organizer

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48
Q

The migration of mesodermal cells from the primitive streak is facilitated by the presence of what molecules of the extracellular matrix?

A

hyaluronic acid and fibronectin

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49
Q

What molecules can bring about mesodermal induction in an early embryo

A

Vg1 and activin

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50
Q

At what stage in the life history of many cells are cell adhesion molecules lost?

A

migratory phase Re-express when settle down

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51
Q

Which of the following cell and tissue types arise from crania, but not trunk, neural crest cells? a. adrenal medulla b. schwann cells c. melanocytes d. sensory ganglia e. none of the above

A

none of the above

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52
Q

Which of the following is a poor substrate for migrating neural neural crest cells? a. fibronectin b. chondroitin sulfate c. laminin d. collagen IV e. hyaluronic acid

A

chondroitin sulfate

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53
Q

Neural crest cells arise from which of the following? a. somite b. dorsal-non-neural ectoderm c. neural tube d. splanchnic mesoderm e. yolk sac endoderm

A

neural tube

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54
Q
  1. Which of the following is involved in the migration of neural crest cells from the neural tube? a. Snail b. BMP-2 c. Mash-1 d. Norepinephrine e. Glial growth factor
A

Snail

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55
Q
  1. Which is not a derivative of the neural crest? a. Sensory neurons b. Motor neurons c. Schwann cells d. Adrenal medulla e. Dental papilla
A

Motor neurons

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56
Q
  1. What maintains the competence of neural cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons? a. Shh b. Acetylcholine c. Mash 1 d. Glial growth factor e. TGF-beta
A

Mash1

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57
Q
  1. If trunk neural crest cells are transplanted into the cranial region they can form all the following types of cells except? a. Pigment b. Schwann c. Sensory neurons d. Cartilage e. Autonomic neurons
A

Cartilage

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58
Q
  1. What molecules produced by notochord is instrumental in inducing the floor plate of the neural tube? a. Hoxa-5 b. Retinoic acid c. Pax-3 d. Msx-1 e. Shh
A

Shh

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59
Q
  1. The cell bodies of the motor neurons of a spinal nerve arise from which of the following? a. Basal plate b. Marginal zone c. Floor plate d. Roof plate e. Alar plate
A

Basal plate

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60
Q
  1. Infant w/ Tuft of hair, dura and arachnoid layers complete, neural arches of several vertebrae missing? Which of the following did it have? a. Meningocele b. Meningomyelocele c. Encephalocele d. Spina bifida occulta e. Rachischisis
A

Spina bifida occulta

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61
Q
  1. Growth cones adhere strongly to a substrate containing which of the following? a. Acetylcholine b. Laminin c. Epinephrine d. Norepinephrine e. Shh
A

Laminin

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62
Q

Complete fail of the neural tube to close in the region of the spinal cord is which of the following? a. Spina bifida occulta b. Meningocele c. Cranioschisis d. Rachischisis e. Myelomeningocele

A

Rachischisis

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63
Q
  1. Rhombomeres are segmental divisions of which of the following? a. Forebrain b. Midbrain c. Hindbrain d. Spinal cord e. None of the above
A

Hindbrain

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64
Q

Rathke’s pouch arises from which the following? a. Diencephalon b. Stomodeal ectoderm c. Mesencephalon d. Pharyngeal endoderm e. Infundibulum

A

Stomodeal ectoderm

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65
Q
  1. Neural crest-derived cells constitute a significant component of which tissue of the eye? a. Neural retina b. Lens c. Optic nerve d. Cornea e. None of the above
A

Cornea

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66
Q
  1. What molecule palys a role in guidance of advancing retinal axons through the optic nerve? a. Pax-2 b. FGF-3 c. BMP-4 d. Pax-6 e. BMP-7
A

Pax-2

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67
Q

Surface ectoderm is induced to become corneal epithelium by an inductive event originating in which of the following? a. Optic cup b. Chordamesoderm c. Optic vesicle d. Lens vesicle e. Neural retina

A

Lens vesicle

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68
Q
  1. Which of the following is caused by failure of the choroid fissure to close during the sixth week of pregnancy? a. Anophthalmos b. Microphthalamos c. Cyclopia d. Colobomo e. Presbyopia
A

Colobomo

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69
Q

In early days after birth, infant does not pass fecal material and develops abdominal swelling. An anal opening is present. What is condition? a. CHARGE association b. Von Recklinghausen’s disease c. Hirchsprung’s disease d. Waardenburg’s syndrome e. None of the above

A

Congenital megacolon (hirschsprung’s disease)

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70
Q

newborn diagnosed as having incomplete separation btw aorta and pulmonary artery (a mild form of persistent truncus arteriosus). Later, after corrective heart surgery she has more colds and sore throats than her siblings. After testing, the physician tells parents there is evidence of immunodificency. The physician also tells the parents to check parathyroid hormone. What is the basis? a. CHARGE association b. Von Recklinghausen’s disease c. Hirchsprung’s disease d. Waardenburg’s syndrome e. DiGeorge

A

DiGeorge’s syndrome

71
Q

6 month- old infant exhibits multiple congenital defects, including cleft palate, deafness, ocular hypertelorism, and a white forelock but otherwise but otherwise dark hair on his head. The probable diagnosis is a. CHARGE association b. Von Recklinghausen’s disease c. Hirchsprung’s disease d. Waardenburg’s syndrome e. None of the above

A

Waardenburg’s syndrome

72
Q

The otic placode arises through an inductive message given off by the Telencephalon Rhombencephalon Infundibulum Diencephalon Mesencephalon

A

RHombencephalon

73
Q

The second pharyngeal arch contributes to the Cochlea and earlobe Auditory tube and incus Stapes and earlobe Auditory tube and stapes Otic vesicle and stapes

A

Auditory tube and stapes

74
Q

What extracellular matrix molecule is often associated with migration of mesenchymal cells, and where does such an event occur in the developing eye

A

Hyaluronic acid Migration of N.C. cells into developing cornea occurs during a period when large amounts of hyaluronic acid have been secreted into the primary corneal stroma

75
Q

Why are malformations or hypoplasia of the lower jaw commonly associated with abnormalities in the shape or position of the ears?

A

Similar to the lower jaw, much of the external ear arises from tissue of the 1st arch bordering the 1st pharyngeal cleft

76
Q

Which of these cell and tissue types arises from cranial, but not trunk, neural crest cells? A. Sensory ganglia B. Adrenal medulla C. Melanocytes D. Schwann cells E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

77
Q

Which of the following is a poor substrate for migrating neural crest cells? A. Laminin B. Chondroitin sulfate C. Fibronectin D. Type IV collagen E. Hyaluronic acid

A

B. Chondroitin sulfate

78
Q

Neural crest cells arise from which of the following? A. Somite B. Dorsal non-neural ectoderm C. Neural tube D. Splanchnic mesoderm E. Yolk sac endoderm

A

C. Neural tube

79
Q

Which of the following is involved in the migration of neural crest cells from the neural tube? A. Snail B. BMP-2 C. Mash-1 D. Norepinephrine E. Glial growth factor

A

A. Snail (Slug)

80
Q

Which is not a derivative of neural crest? A. Sensory neurons B. Motor neurons C. Schwann cells D. Adrenal medulla E. Dental papilla

A

B. Motor neurons

81
Q

What maintains the competence of neural cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons? A. Shh B. Acetylcholine C. Mash 1 D. Glial growth factor E. TGF-Beta

82
Q

If trunk neural crest cells are transplanted into the cranial region, they can form all of the following types of cells except: A. Pigment cells B. Schwann cells C. Sensory neurons D. Cartilage E. Autonomic neurons

A

D. Cartilage

83
Q

What molecule produced by the notochord is instrumental in inducing the floor plate of neural plate? A. Hoxa-5 B. Retinoic acid C. Pax-3 D. Msx-1 E. Shh

84
Q

The cell bodies of the motor neurons of a spinal nerve arise from which of the following? A. Basal plate B. Marginal zone C. Floor plate D. Roof plate E. Alar plate

A

A. Basal plate

85
Q

Growth cones adhere strongly to a substrate containing which of the following? A. Acetylcholine B. Laminin C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine E. Shh

A

B. Laminin

86
Q

Complete failure of the neural tube to close in the region of the spinal cord is: A. Spina bifida occulata B. Meningocele C. Cranioschisis D. Rachischisis E. Myelomeningocele

A

D. Rachischisis

87
Q

Rhombomeres are segmental divisions of which of the following? A. Forebrain B. Midbrain C. Hindbrain D. Spinal cord E. None of the above

A

C. Hindbrain

88
Q

Rathke’s pouch arises from which of the following? A. Diencephalon B. Stomodeal ectoderm C. Mesencephalon D. Pharyngeal endoderm E. Infundibulum

A

B. Stomodeal ectoderm

89
Q

Shaping of the snout involves the establishment of a gradient between which of the following pairs of signals? A. FGF-8 and Edn-1 B. Hox and Pax C. TGF-2 an dBMP-4 D. FGF-8 and Shh

A

D. FGF-8 and Shh

90
Q

In craniofacial development, segmentation of the cranial neural tube occurs as a result of expression of which of the following genes? A. Sox B. BM) C. Hox D. TGF

91
Q

Except for the pharyngeal muscles, pharyngeal arch mesoderm (tendons, etc.) are derived from which of the following? A. Neural crest B. Somitomeres C. Paraxial mesoderm D. Parachordal mesoderm

A

A. Neural crest

92
Q

In molar development, induction of secondary enamel knots by the primary enamel knot followed by apoptosis of the primary enamel knot is associated with which of the following morphogenic events? A. Formation of future molar cusps B. Induction of the ameloblast layer C. Induction of ondontoblast layer D. Formation of the dental sac

A

A. Formation of future molar cusps

93
Q

At which of the following stages in tooth development do both the ameloblast and odontoblast layers first appear together? A. Tooth bud stage B. Cap stage C. Bell stage D. Dental sac stage

A

C. Bell stage

94
Q

Which of the following is necessary for tooth development to continue past the bud stage? A. BMP-4 B. Shh C. FGF-8 D. Pax-9

95
Q

Cleft lip results from lack of fusion of which of the following? A. Nasomedial and nasolateral process B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes C. Nasolateral and maxillary D. Nasolateral and mandibular processes

A

B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes

96
Q

Which of the following abnormalities in teath development is characterized by teeth the appear blue-gray or amber brown and are opalescent and may be caused by mutation in type I collagen? A. Amelogenesis imperfecta B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta C. Enamel fluorosis D. KGB syndrome

A

B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

97
Q

Muscles of facial expression are innervated by cranial nerve seven. This relationship would suggest that these muscles are derived form which of the following pharyngeal arches? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

98
Q

The malleus of the middle ear in mammals is derived from which of the following former jaw articulation bones? A. Columella B. Meckel’s cartilage C. Quadrate D. Articular

99
Q

Which bone forms around Meckel’s cartilage? A. Mandible B. Malleus C. Stapes D. Maxilla

A

A. Mandible

100
Q

Which of the following develop from the third pharyngeal pouch in response to high concentrations of Shh? A. Thyroid B. Superior parathyroids C. Thymus D. Inferior parathyroids

A

D. Inferior parathyroids

101
Q

Hypoplasia of mandible and facial bones is commonly associated with an autosomal dominant condition involving TCOF1 gene. IN this condition, there is reduced populationof neural crest cells in 1st pharyngeal arch. This condition is associated with which of the following anomalies? A. Treacher Collins Syndrome B. Pierre Robin Syndrom C. DiGeorge syndrome

A

A. Treacher Collins Syndrome

102
Q

Which of the following is derived from Rathke’s pouch? A. Neurohypophysis B. Thymus C. Adenohypophysis D. Thyroid

A

C. Adenohypophysis

103
Q

The auditory tube is derived of which of the following pharyngeal pouches? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

104
Q

Calcitonin secreting cells (C cells_, embedded in the thyroid gland, are derived from which of the following primordia? A. Ventral midline gut endoderm B. Third pharyngeal pouch C. Fourth pharyngeal pouch D. Rathke’s pouch

A

C. Fourth pharyngeal pouch

105
Q

An infant with a tuft of hair over the lumbar region of the vertebral column undergoes surgery for a congenital anomaly in that region. During surgery it was found that the dura and arachnoid layers over the spinal cord were complete, but that the neural arches of several vertebra were missing. What condition did the infant have? Meningocele Meningomyelocele Encephalocele Spina bifida occulta rachischisis

A

Spina bifida occulta

106
Q

6 month- old infant exhibits multiple congenital defects, including cleft palate, deafness, ocular hypertelorism, and a white forelock but otherwise but otherwise dark hair on his head. The probable diagnosis is CHARGE association Von Recklinghausen’s disease (fibroneuromas) Hirchsprung’s disease Waardenburg’s syndrome None of the above

A

Waardenburg’s syndrome

107
Q

Neural-crest derived cells constitute a significant component of which tissue of the eye Neural retina Lens Optic nerve Cornea None

108
Q

The otic placode arises through an inductive message given off by the Telencephalon Rhombencephalon Infundibulum Diencephalon Mesencephalon

A

Rhombencephalon

109
Q

What molecule plays a role in guidance of advancing retinal axons through the optic nerve Pax2 FGF3 BMP4 PAX6 BMP7

110
Q

Surface ectoderm is induced to become corneal epithelium by an inductive event originating in the Optic cup Chordamesoderm Optic vesicle Lens vesicle Neural retina

A

Lens vesicle

111
Q

The second pharyngeal arch contributes to the Cochlea and earlobe Auditory tube and incus Stapes and earlobe Auditory tube and stapes Otic vesicle and stapes

A

Stapes and earlobe

112
Q

The facial nerve (CN 7) supplies muscles derived from which pharyngeal arch? First Second Third Fourth Sixth

113
Q

In the case of holoprosencephaly, defects of facial structures are typically secondary to defects of the Pharynx Oral cavity Forebrain Eyes Hindbrain

114
Q

Meckel’s cartilage is a prominent structure in the early formation of the Upper jaw Hard palate Nasal septum Soft palate Lower jaw

115
Q

An early induction in tooth development consists of the ectoderm of the dental epithelium acting on the underlying neural crest mesenchyme. Which of the following molecules is an important mediator of the inductive stimulus? BMP-4 Tenascin Hoxb-13 Msx-1 Syndecan

116
Q

Which of following does not connect directly with the primary nephric (mesonephric) duct? Metanephros Cloaca Nephrotomes Mesonephric tubules Ureteric bud

A

Metanephros

117
Q

Which association is correct? Potter’s facies and hydramnios Urachal fistula and hydramnios Horseshoe kidney and superior mesneteric artery GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema Bilateral renal agenesis and compensatory hypertrophy

A

GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema

118
Q

Which defect is strongly associated with olifohydramnios? Pelvic kideny Renal agenesis Horseshoe kidney Crossed ectopia Polycystic kidney

A

Renal agenesis

119
Q

The uterus arises from? Paramesonephric ducts Urogenital sinus Mesonephric tubules Pronephric ducts Mesonephric ducts

A

Paramesonephric ducts

120
Q

The metanephrogenic blastema is induced by the Pronephric duct Ureteric bud Mesonephric tubules Allantois Mesonephric duct

A

Ureteric bud

121
Q

Nucleated erythrocytes found circulating in the embryo are produced in the Yolk sac Para-aortic clusters Liver Bone marrow None of above

122
Q

In a 7M fetus, blood draining the left temporalis muscle enters the heart via the Left anterior cardinal vein Coronary sinus Left common cardinal vein Superior vena cava None of above

A

Superior vena cava

123
Q

Adherons are inductive particles released by what structure in the endocardinal cushion area? Endocardium Cardiac jelly Myocardium Epicardium None of above

A

Myocardium

124
Q

Neural crest contributes to the structures of which of the following Truncus arteriosus Ascending aorta Plumonary trunk All of the above None of the above

A

All of the above

125
Q

For which of these cardiovascular malformations is a paten ductus arteriosus necessary for survival of the individual Atrial septal defect Ventricular septal defect Double aortic arch Right subclavian artery from arch of aorta None of the above

A

None of the above

126
Q

5 days after birth, an infant becomes cyanotic during a prolonged crying spell. Cyanosis is most likely caused by venous blood entering the systemic circulation through the Interatrial septum Ductus arteriosus Ductus venosus Umbilical vein Interventricular septum

A

Interatrial septum

127
Q

The internal carotid artery arises from aortic arch number 1 2 3 4 5

128
Q
  1. Infant w/ Tuft of hair, dura and arachnoid layers complete, neural arches of several vertebrae missing? Which of the following did it have? a. Meningocele b. Meningomyelocele c. Encephalocele d. Spina bifida occulta e. Rachischisis
A

d. Spina bifida occulta

129
Q
  1. Which of the following is caused by failure of the choroid fissure to close during the sixth week of pregnancy? a. Anophthalmos b. Microphthalamos c. Cyclopia d. Colobomo e. Presbyopia
130
Q

Neural crest cells form many components of the nervous system but do not form what?

A

Motor neurons

131
Q

What mutant has specific behavioral defects related to the cerebellum? Due to what abnormal cell? Formation of what abnormal

A

Weaver Radial glial cells in cerebellum Formation of granular layer of the cerebellar cortex

132
Q

What is characterized by abnormal behavior and absence of normal cortical layering? What is defective? What does this do?

A

Reeler Reelin: extracellular protein defective Reelin: may serve as a stop signal for radial neuronal migration or as an insertional signal for migrating neurons

133
Q

Rostral patterning center?

134
Q

What may serve as a stop signal for radial neuronal migration or as an insertional signal for migrating neurons

135
Q

Dorsal patterning center?

A

BMPs and Wnts

136
Q

Ventral patterning center

137
Q

Neural crest cells are from what?

A

Neural plate

138
Q

Neural crest cells from trunk transplanted into head form most neural crest derivates except -What also differentiates

A

Cartilage or skeletal elements (even though normally do) Some cells differentiate into cholinergic parasym instead of adrenal sympathetic normally produced

139
Q

Most neural crest cells from somites 1-3

A

Pass into pharyngeal arches 4 and 6 or form cardiac crest

140
Q

Neural crest cells from somites R4-R7

A

Make up vagal crest Form parasympathetic innervation for digestive tract

141
Q

What induces formation of lens placed from lens ectoderm?

A

Optic vesicle

142
Q

Absence of Pax6 in eye development

A

Optic vesicle can’t induce formation of lens placode

143
Q

Corneal epithelium is induced to from cornea by what?

A

Lens vesicle

144
Q

groove in optic vesicle is what?

A

Choroid fissure

145
Q

What runs in the choroid fissure?

A

Hyaloid artery to posterior chamber

146
Q

Rathke’s pouch is an evagination from the roof of what? What is its primordium for the anterior pituitary

A

Stomodeal ectoderm -Adenohypophysis

147
Q

First arch develops into ______ because of the lack of _____ gene expression

148
Q

Expression of what keeps arch 2 from differentiating into arch 1 and forming jaws

149
Q

Segmentation of cranial neural tube occurs as a result of what gene expression

150
Q

Frontonasal ectodermal zone, shaping of tip of snout is done by what

A

Shh and FGF-8

151
Q

What is necessary for tooth development to continue past the bud stage

152
Q

Primary enamel knots can give rise to secondary enamel knots which progress to what

A

Molar cusps

153
Q

For salivary gland development the signaling between Shh and FGF occurs where

A

Within the epithelium (Rather then between epithelium and mesenchyme)

154
Q

Malformation of anterior endoderm and prechordial plate leads to this clinical

A

Holoprosencephaly

155
Q

Main organizer for pharyngeal arch development is

A

Foregut endoderm

156
Q

The opening of the thyroglossal duct that persists as a small pit at base of tongue

A

Foramen cecum

157
Q

Prevents neurons from crossing the midline of the central nervous system

A

Slit-2 and Robo

158
Q

Uroplakins

A

Proteins that make the ureter epithelium impermeable to water

159
Q

Steps in potters syndrome

A
  1. Renal agenesis –> 2. Reduced urinary output –> 3. Oligohydramnios–> 4a. Hip dislocation 4b. pulmonary hypoplasia –> death 4c. flattened face and ears
160
Q

If SRY gene then get what factor

161
Q

What maintains meiotic competency of germ cells and without individuals would be sterile

162
Q

Primary heart field -Name -Part of heart -Exposure -Timeline -Express

A

Heart crescent Left ventricle and atria -atria if high RA -ventral if not RA Most primitive Express Hand-1

163
Q

Secondary heart field -Part of heart -Derived -Form -Express

A

Right ventricle and proximal outflow tract Derived from pharyngeal mesoderm Can form cardiac or skeletal muscle Express Hand-2

164
Q

Primary myocardium is guided by

165
Q

What is the first asymmetrical embryonic structure to appear

A

Cardiac tube

166
Q

Chamber myocardium is guided by

167
Q

Interatrial septum primum

A

Downward growth from cephalic wall of single atrium to endocardial cushion Separates atrium into left and right chambers

168
Q

Interatrial septum secundum

A

Forms to the right of septum primumand grows from dorsal to the ventral part of atrium

169
Q

Foramen ovale -what is it -where

A

Right to left atrial shunt Space formed within the septum secundum

170
Q

Fourth aortic arch -Right -Left Sixth aortic arch -associated with -dorsal portion

A

Right- Right subclavian A Left- Aortic arch Pulmonary system Dorsal portion becomes ductus arterioles shunt –> ligamentum arteriosus

171
Q

Right vitelline vein becomes

A

Portal vein

172
Q

Left umbilical vein becomes

A

Hepatic portal vein

173
Q

What allows oxygenated placental blood to bypass capillary network of liver

A

Ductus venosus

Aubrey- Embryology (7 decks)

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