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Inman RD Exam Domain 2 > Questions 111-220 > Flashcards

Questions 111-220 Flashcards

1
Q

The diet for stomatitis is:

a- low fat, high carb, normal protein
b- avoid spices, very hot, very cold, sour, tart foods
c- high protein, high carb
d- liquids, mostly carbs

A

b- avoid spices, very hot, very cold, sour, tart foods

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2
Q

The BMI for a woman who is 5’7 and 148 pounds indicates:

a- underweight
b- normal weight
c- overweight
d- obese

A

b- normal weight

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3
Q

Which of the following is not a guideline for Medicaid?
I- low income
II- over age of 60 only
III- nutritional need

a- I
b- II, III
c- II
d- III

A

b- II, III (these are medicare)

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4
Q

Which survey is repeated every few years?

a- NHANES
b- WHO
c- Ten State
d- FAO

A

a- NHANES

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5
Q

The year 2010 Healthy People goals are an outgrowth of a report by:

a- ADA
b- surgeon general under HHS
c- WHO
d- FAO

A

b- surgeon general under HHS

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6
Q

An example of a “Healthy People” goal is:

a- decrease in saturated fat consumption
b- an increase in iron intake
c- decrease in infant mortality
d- increase in intake of complex carbohydrates

A

c- decrease in infant mortality

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7
Q

When a starved patient begins to eat, they might expect:

a- constipation
b- increased workload on the heart
c- lethargy
d- diarrhea

A

b- increased workload on the heart

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8
Q

Which of the following would be classified as NB in the NCP?

a- hypermetabolism
b- inadequate enteral intake
c- impaired ability to prepare foods
d- excessive protein intake

A

c- impaired ability to prepare foods

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9
Q

The immediate post-stress release of glucagon:

a- increases glucose uptake into cells
b- increases glucose release into bloodstream
c- increases insulin release
d- increases fluid and sodium excretion

A

b- increases glucose release into bloodstream

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10
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate diet for peritoneal dialysis?

a- .8g protein, 35 cal / kg
b- 2.0g protein, 30 cal / kg
c- 1.5g protein, 30 cal / kg
d- 1.0g protein, 35 cal / kg

A

c- 1.5g protein, 30 cal / kg

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11
Q

What is an example of a program that provides food to the needy?

a- food bank
b- food stamp program
c- child care program
d- WIC

A

a- food bank

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12
Q

Which formula is high in calories and low in protein?

a- AminAid
b- Osmolite
c- Sustacal
d- Jevity

A

a- AminAid

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13
Q

What is the goal of the Dietary Guidelines?

a- prevention of chronic disease
b- provide standard for food stamp allocation
c- provide standards for WIC
d- provide standards for EFNEP

A

a- prevention of chronic disease

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14
Q

If an IDDM tells you she eats meals on an irregular schedule, you should:

a- obtain more information about her usual habits
b- explain that insulin therapy is related to intake
c- do nothing if blood sugar levels are okay
d- ask her to complete a detailed food record

A

b- explain that insulin therapy is related to intake

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15
Q

The allowance for food stamps is based on:

a- average cost of food used by a family of the same size
b- USDA Thrifty Food Program
c- data from Congregate Meal Program
d- cost of the Basic Four

A

b- USDA Thrifty Food Program

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16
Q

A single man with two daughters age 10 and 11 is looking for aid. What program might provide assistance?

a- WIC
b- Food Stamps
c- Child Care Food Program
d- Headstart

A

b- Food Stamps

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17
Q

Why is an affluent couple (the man with diabetes, 67 years old, and the wife with a broken arm, 50 years of age) not eligible for Meals on Wheels?

a- she is too young
b- they are affluent
c- this program does not cater to special diets
d- they can leave the house

A

d- they can leave the house

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18
Q

Which is permitted on a diet which excludes gluten?

a- rye
b- corn
c- barely
d- wheat bread

A

b- corn

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19
Q

Which nutrients are involved in energy metabolism?

a- pyridoxine and cyanocobalamin
b- copper and zinc
c- pantothenic acid and biotin
d- folic acid and iron

A

c- pantothenic acid and biotin

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20
Q

Where can a pregnant teen learn to cook?

a- EFNEP
b- Child nutrition services
c- UNICEF
d- WIC

A

a- EFNEP

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21
Q

In metabolic acidosis, which of the following is involved?

a- excretion of potassium
b- excess calcium retention
c- excretion of sodium bicarbonate
d- excess calcium loss

A

c- excretion of sodium bicarbonate

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22
Q

How can you enhance usage of commodity foods from a food donation program?

a- teach food donation staff how to use the items
b- make a poster on usage
c- give each participant recipes using the food items
d- calculate the amounts of nutrients provided in the donated foods

A

c- give each participant recipes using the food items

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23
Q

A poor, healthy 19 year old mother is unsure how to feed her 4 year old child. Which program may offer her the most help?

a- EFNEP
b- WIC
c- HHS
d- CACFP

A

a- EFNEP

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24
Q

An athlete weighs more than the average person of his height. What should you do first?

a- put him on a slow weight reduction diet
b- examine other anthropometric measures
c- have him increase exercise
d- suggest he drink more water

A

b- examine other anthropometric measures

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25
Q

The most effective nutrition assessment method for large groups is the :

a- food diary
b- 24 hour recall
c- food frequency list
d- diet history

A

c- food frequency list

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26
Q

Which is the most appropriate bedtime snack for a diabetic on NPH insulin?

a- apple juice and crackers
b- graham crackers and diet soda
c- fresh fruit and crackers
d- cheese and crackers

A

d- cheese and crackers (NPH = intermediate, onset 1-2 hours)

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27
Q

What can be done to lower the respiratory quotient of a tube fed pulmonary patient?

a- add MCT oil to decrease energy required for growth
b- change type of fat to improve oxygen exchange
c- add carbohydrate to decrease the respiratory quotient
d- add a fat emulsion to replace some carbohydrate

A

d- add a fat emulsion to replace some carbohydrate

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28
Q

Which correlates best with energy intake?

a- lean body mass
b- tricep skinfold
c- BMI
d- body weight

A

d- body weight

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29
Q

Which of the following most affects osmolarity?

a- protein
b- sugar
c- electrolytes
d- fat

A

c- electrolytes

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30
Q

Which fiber is insoluble in water?

a- pectin
b- gums
c- hemicellulose
d- polysaccharides

A

c- hemicellulose

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31
Q

An infant wants a bottle at bedtime. You should counsel the parents to:

a- give the bottle only at bedtime
b- give the bottle only if the baby insists
c- only give milk in the bottle
d- only give water in the bottle

A

d- only give water in the bottle

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32
Q

A diabetic wants to exchange his bedtime snack of 8 ounces whole milk. What do you suggest?

a- 1 oz cheese and 1/2 cup orange juice
b- 2 graham crackers and 1/2 cup orange juice
c- 1 ounce cheese
d- 2 ounce cheese

A

a- 1 oz cheese and 1/2 cup orange juice

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33
Q

Which of the following may result in hypoalbuminemia?

a- amino acid supplementation prior to surgery
b- a high protein diet with inadequate water
c- providing only a 5% dextrose in water solution after stress
d- giving a trauma patient enteral feeding only

A

c- providing only a 5% dextrose in water solution after stress

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34
Q

A mother with 2 daughters, age 8 and 11, does not earn enough money to feed her family. Which program do you suggest?

a- WIC
b- Food Stamps
c- Child Care Food Program
d- Medicaid

A

b- Food Stamps

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35
Q

Which drink would a Mormon choose?

a- cola
b- 7 up
c- tea
d- coffee

A

b- 7 up (???)

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36
Q

What section of the intestine is most likely to be involved in Crohns disease?

a- ileum
b- jejunum
c- duodenum
d- appendix

A

a- ileum

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37
Q

Which of the following would be classified as NC in the NCP?

a- inadequate vitamin intake
b- limited access to food
c- swallowing difficulty
d- inappropriate intake of food fats

A

c- swallowing difficulty

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38
Q

An infants failure to thrive can be seen in:

a- their behavior
b- comparison with growth charts
c- weight for height
d- height for age

A

b- comparison with growth charts

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39
Q

Which of the following has the fewest calories?

a- plain hamburger on a bun
b- chefs salad with dressing
c- green salad with Thousand Island, and shredded cheese
d- fried fish sandwich

A

a- plain hamburger on a bun

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40
Q

Which of the following indicates protein calorie malnutrition?

a- creatinine height index of 93%
b- height for weight ratio of 89%
c- tricep skinfold and arm muscle circumference of 79%
d- serum albumin of 4.5, transferrin of 410

A

c- tricep skinfold and arm muscle circumference of 79%

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41
Q

A child with AIDS needs a high calorie and _____ intake.

a- megadose vitamins
b- high protein
c- low fat
d- low residue

A

b- high protein

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42
Q

An appropriate measurement of iron status in a local community is:

a- serum iron
b- transferrin
c- TIBC
d- hematocrit

A

d- hematocrit

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43
Q

Which of the following may help decrease cavities?

a- raisins
b- carrots
c- cheese
d- yogurt

A

c- cheese

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44
Q

Which test helps you determine if a diabetic has been following his diet?

a- blood glucose
b- urine ketones
c- glycosylated hemoglobin
d- urine sugar

A

c- glycosylated hemoglobin

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45
Q

You discover an incorrect diet order entered in the patients chart:

a- chart the order as incorrect
b- file the order because it was written by a physician
c- discuss it with the physician and suggest change
d- change the order in the chart

A

c- discuss it with the physician and suggest change

46
Q

What is the best therapy for weight loss?

a- reducing 500 calories per day, exercise
b- support group, exercise, diet control
c- exercise, diet, behavior modification
d- exercise and diet control

A

c- exercise, diet, behavior modification

47
Q

Which is most associated with the incidence of type 2 diabetes?

a- sugar intake
b- protein intake
c- overweight
d- salt intake

A

c- overweight

48
Q

According to ADA exchanges, what is the nutrient content of the following: 1 cup cantaloupe, 1/2 cup cereal, 1 cup 1% milk, 1 tsp margarine, 1 tsp low sugar jelly, black coffee, 1 slice toast

a- 397 cal, 12g pro, 61g cho, 6.5g fat
b- 346 cal, 12g pro, 52g cho, 9g fat
c- 365 cal, 12g pro, 57g cho, 7g fat
d- 327 cal, 13g pro, 58g cho, 10g fat

A

c- 365 cal, 12g pro, 57g cho, 7g fat (cho adds up to 57g)

49
Q

Iron status is best monitored by:

a- dietary and clinical methods
b- dietary and lab studies
c- dietary studies
d- anthropometric studies

A

b- dietary and lab studies

50
Q

Which bacteria may cause gastric ulcers?

a- salmonella
b- streptococcus aureus
c- heliobacter pylori
d- clostridium perfringens

A

c- heliobacter pylori

51
Q

The appropriate diet therapy after a Billroth II is:

a- high carb, low fat, high protein
b- high fat, high protein, high carb
c- decrease simple carbs, high protein, mod fat, B12 supplements
d- low fat, low protein, high carb

A

c- decrease simple carbs, high protein, mod fat, B12 supplements

52
Q

Which of the following diseases may lead to anemia?

a- myocardial infarction
b- galactosemia
c- renal failure
d- diabetes mellitus

A

c- renal failure

53
Q

To learn about prenatal problems in the community, go to:

a- CDC
b- WIC
c- NHANES
d- FDA

A

b- WIC

54
Q

Which best applies to nutritional screening?

a- JCAHO standards must be followed
b- should include nutritional parameters
c- done after nutritional problems are identified
d- only done on at risk patients

A

b- should include nutritional parameters

55
Q

When using anthropometric measurements, the most important factor is:

a- competence of the practitioner and calibration
b- number of participants done in one sitting
c- patient is sitting
d- that they be done early in the morning

A

a- competence of the practitioner and calibration

56
Q

A pork chop is what type of meat exchange?

a- high fat
b- medium fat
c- medium fat plus one fat exchange
d- lean

A

d- lean

57
Q

What should most be encouraged in a Headstart program?

a- nutrition activities related to food
b- participation for at least one year
c- class instructions
d- healthy snacks

A

a- nutrition activities related to food

58
Q

Medicaid benefits apply to:

a- healthy adults
b- a 60 year old female
c- those at nutritional risk
d- low income

A

d- low income

59
Q

The symbol U on a food label indicates:

a- treated with Ultraviolet light
b- treated with radiation
c- vitamin retention has been retained during processing
d- it is Kosher

A

d- it is Kosher

60
Q

Congregate meals and home delivered meals fall under:

a- WIC
b- EFNEP
c- Older American Act Title III
d- Medicare

A

c- Older American Act Title III

61
Q

Which is most characteristic of Marasmus?

a- serum albumin 2.5g/dl
b- edema
c- severe fat and muscle wasting
d- decreased lymphocytes

A

c- severe fat and muscle wasting

62
Q

The stasis of pancreatic juice and bile could result in:
I- autodigestion II- fat malabsorption
III- obstructive jaundice

a- I, II
b- I, III
c- II, III
d- I, II, III

A

d- I, II, III

63
Q

A side effect of antidepressants is:

a- chronic diarrhea
b- muscle wasting
c- excess weight gain
d- nausea, vomiting

A

c- excess weight gain

64
Q

Which would you recommend to a Mexican American on low fat diet?

a- low fat cottage cheese
b- skim milk
c- beans and rice
d- low fat yogurt

A

c- beans and rice

65
Q

Hypertension will decrease with a decrease in:

a- fiber
b- alcohol
c- potassium
d- calcium

A

b- alcohol

66
Q

What medication is affected by serum sodium levels?

a- Lithium
b- Mellaril
c- Valproate
d- Tetracycline

A

a- Lithium

67
Q

A child has been measured several times before the age of 2 years. Results of measurements were not accurate because the child was measured:

a- first thing in the morning
b- standing up
c- after breakfast
d- in light clothing

A

b- standing up

68
Q

Which of the following is not a governmental agency?

a- HHS
b- FDA
c- Food and Nutrition Board
d- American Heart Assoc.

A

d- American Heart Assoc.

69
Q

Low levels of folate, pyridoxine, and cyanocobalamin are associated with:

a- glycogen storage disease
b- homocysteinuria
c- PKU
d- galactosemia

A

b- homocysteinuria

70
Q

A patient with low hemoglobin and low MCV might have:

a- microcytic anemia
b- macrocytic anemia
c- megaloblastic anemia
d- normochromic anemia

A

a- microcytic anemia

71
Q

According to Diabetic Exchanges, 2T peanut butter is:

a- 2 high fat meats
b- 1 high fat meat
c- 2 fats
d- 1 high fat meat plus 2 fats

A

a- 2 high fat meats

71
Q

After a gastrectomy, the diet order should indicate a decrease in:

a- disaccharides
b- fats
c- protein
d- calories

A

a- disaccharides

71
Q

Children and adolescents need what level of physical activity?

a- 60 minutes every day
b- 30 minutes every day
c- 60 minutes 3 times per week
d- 90 minutes 3 times per week

A

a- 60 minutes every day

71
Q

Which of the following provides 60g CHO?

a- 1 english muffin, 1c skim milk, 1/2c apple juice
b- 1 fat free granola bar, 1/2c raisins, 1c fruited yogurt with aspartame
c- 2 small waffles with 2T lite syrup and 1T peanut butter
d- 1 four oz. bagel with 2T lite cream cheese and 1T jelly

A

a- 1 english muffin, 1c skim milk, 1/2c apple juice

71
Q

The Prader Willi syndrome is associated with:

a- hyperactivity
b- deficiency of g-6-p
c- macrocytic anemia
d- obesity

A

d- obesity

71
Q

Which of the following is permitted on a diet restricting tyramine?

a- hard cheese like cheddar or swiss
b- uncured cheese like cottage, ricotta
c- pickled or smoked foods
d- tofu

A

b- uncured cheese like cottage, ricotta

71
Q

What does a fecal fat of 12 grams indicate?

a- severe fat malabsorption
b- normal fat absorption
c- high normal fat absorption
d- nothing

A

a- severe fat malabsorption

71
Q

The main goal for a Type 2 Obese Diabetic with persistent hyperglycemia is:

a- weight loss
b- control of serum glucose levels
c- consumption of a low fat diet
d- consumption of a low protein diet

A

b- control of serum glucose levels

71
Q

Who is the most appropriate candidate for parenteral nutrition?

a- a 12 year old girl coming in for an appendectomy
b- a middle aged woman who will begin chemotherapy
c- an elderly lady with emphysema
d- a young man going for gallbladder surgery

A

b- a middle aged woman who will begin chemotherapy

71
Q

When counseling an anorexic, the best advice is to:

a- be strict about food choices
b- be flexible and help them choose reasonable goals
c- provide a large variety of menu items
d- give them free rein with intake

A

b- be flexible and help them choose reasonable goals

71
Q

WIC encourages women with babies to:

a- fomula feed
b- breast feed
c- feed solid foods early
d- feed a mixture of formula and solid foods early

A

b- breast feed

71
Q

In reviewing the patients medical record, you note a hemoglobin of 10g/dL and an MCV of 110 cu mm. You should document:

a- anemia due to IF
b- anemia without nutritional implications
c- anemia with larger than normal erythrocytes
d- that the iron content of the diet should increase

A

c- anemia with larger than normal erythrocytes

71
Q

For which disease would a low sodium diet be recommended?

a- ascites
b- esopageal varices
c- pancreatitis
d- appendicitis

A

a- ascites

71
Q

Which is restricted in a diet for hepatic encephalopathy?

a- protein, sodium, fluid
b- protein, fluid, calories
c- calories, protein, fat
d- sodium, fat, calories

A

a- protein, sodium, fluid

71
Q

A patient needs a 2000 calorie, 2g sodium feeding. Which formula is best?

a- formula 1 - 1 cal/ml, 2g Na/L
b- formula 2 - 1.5 cal/ml, 2g Na/L
c- formula 3 - 2 cal/ml, 1g Na/L
d- formula 4 - 1 cal/ml, 1g Na/L

A

d- formula 4 - 1 cal/ml, 1g Na/L

71
Q

A 75 year old female with adequate income would benefit from:

a- food stamps
b- congregate meals
c- EFNEP
d- WIC

A

b- congregate meals (primarily for fairly mobile elderly 60+ or spouse of someone eligible)

71
Q

Which can be included in a meal for gluten induced enteropathy?

a- spaghetti and tomato sauce
b- cheese and crackers
c- potatoes with butter
d- oatmeal with sugar

A

c- potatoes with butter (potatoes are OK)

71
Q

Phytochemicals, which may influence the development of tumors, are found in:

a- fruits, vegetables, grains
b- lean poultry and fish
c- low fat dairy
d- polyunsaturated fats

A

a- fruits, vegetables, grains

71
Q

Which diet is restricted in carbohydrates?

a- reactive hypoglycemia
b- diabetes
c- PKU
d- galactosemia

A

a- reactive hypoglycemia (Diabetes is not necessarily restricted, more balanced intake of CHO)

71
Q

Compared to whole milk, breast milk is:

a- lower protein, higher carb and fat
b- higher protein and fat, lower carbohydrate
c- lower protein, carb, and fat
d- same nutrients composition

A

a- lower protein, higher carb and fat

71
Q

A person with dumping syndrome cannot handle:

a- complex carbohydrates
b- polysaccharides
c- disaccharides
d- amino acids

A

c- disaccharides

71
Q

What is the appropriate diet for heart failure?

a- low potassium
b- low calcium
c- low sodium
d- low fat

A

c- low sodium

71
Q

How many calories are provided in 1.5L of D25W?

a- 1275
b- 2275
c- 1500
d- 2000

A

a- 1275

71
Q

A homeless patient who is deficient in all nutrients is to be discharged. What organization may help?

a- WIC
b- EFNEP
c- social workers group
d- shelter

A

c- social workers group

71
Q

Why might a child with PKU have increase incidence of dental caries?

a- phenylalanine is not converted to tyrosine
b- diet is high in CHO, low in PRO
c- pyruvate is not converted to alanine
d- diet is devoid of protein

A

b- diet is high in CHO, low in PRO

71
Q

Trauma can place the patient in:

a- an anabolic state
b- a hypermetabolic state
c- a hypothermic state
d- a hypometabolic state

A

b- a hypermetabolic state

71
Q

A patient who had an ileal resection is placed on a tube feeding and begins to have diarrhea. This may be due to:

a- use of a hypertonic formula
b- use of an isotonic formula
c- blockage of the GI tract
d- lactose intolerance

A

a- use of a hypertonic formula

71
Q

Which is restricted in a diet for hepatic encephalopathy?

a- protein, sodium, fluid
b- protein, fluid, calories
c- calories, protein, fat
d- sodium, fat, calories

A

a- protein, sodium, fluid

71
Q

How many non protein calories are provided by 2L of 7% Aminosyn solution and 1 liter of 10% dextrose in water?

a- 340
b- 390
c- 170
d- 255

A

a- 340 (key - non protein calories)

71
Q

When should you provide nutrition counseling to an AIDS patient?

a- when nausea and vomiting become problems
b- immediately upon diagnosis
c- when diarrhea occurs
d- no counseling is needed

A

b- immediately upon diagnosis

71
Q

Medicare is for:

a- the elderly
b- financially needy
c- those at nutritional risk
d- those with medical needs

A

a- the elderly (Medicaid = nutritional risk)

71
Q

What best measures excess calorie reserves?

a- weight
b- creatinine
c- tricep skinfold
d- arm circumference

A

c- tricep skinfold

71
Q

Why may a patient with ascites be dehydrated?

a- fluid is in interstitial spaces
b- fluid is in intravascular spaces
c- fluid is in vascular spaces
d- fluid is in the lungs

A

a- fluid is in interstitial spaces

71
Q

Which of the following is equivalent to a very lean meat exchange?

a- 1/4c low fat cottage cheese
b- 2T grated parmesan cheese
c- 1 oz mozzarella cheese
d- 1 oz swiss cheese

A

a- 1/4c low fat cottage cheese

71
Q

Which is a common complication of AIDS?

a- constipation
b- diarrhea
c- hypoglycemia
d- hyperkalemia

A

b- diarrhea

71
Q

A post-surgical patient with prolonged ileus should be treated with:

a- a high fiber diet
b- enteral nutrition with added fiber
c- enteral nutrition
d- parenteral nutrition

A

d- parenteral nutrition (ileus = blockage)

71
Q

A common result of treating an AIDS patient with Zidovudine is?

a- diarrhea
b- constipation
c- macrocytic anemia
d- hypokalemia

A

c- macrocytic anemia (remember this!)

71
Q

A 140lb female on dialysis should have how many grams of protein?

a- 38-55
b- 58-63
c- 70-89
d- 30-38

A

c- 70-89 (1.1 - 1.4 g/kg)

71
Q

An obese person with Type 2 Diabetes should:

a- time meals
b- decrease frequency of feedings
c- achieve DBW
d- increase frequency of feedings

A

c- achieve DBW

110
Q

A tube fed patient receiving bolus feedings develops a distended abdomen. What should you recommend?

a- change TF to isotonic, lactose free
b- decrease osmolality of the feeding
c- decrease amount of water flush
d- decrease the rate

A

d- decrease the rate

Inman RD Exam Domain 2 (4 decks)

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