Questions 1-110 Flashcards

1
Q

In community surveys, a frequent symptom of malnutrition is:

a- scurvy
b- rickets
c- low serum albumin
d- low hemoglobin

A

d- low hemoglobin

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2
Q

Which is the least common symptom in the elderly?

a- osteomalacia
b- osteoporosis
c- obesity
d- hypertension

A

a- osteomalacia

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3
Q

What is included in the study of demographics?
I- age II- sex III- population statistics
IV- socioeconomic status

a- I only
b- all of the above
c- II, III
d- I, II, III

A

d- I, II, III

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4
Q

Athletes should receive:

a- salt pills only during summer months
b- extra protein
c- carbohydrate loading two weeks prior to event
d- water during an event to replace lost fluid

A

d- water during an event to replace lost fluid

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5
Q

How many grams of protein would you receive on a 1500 calorie diet which is 20% protein?

a- 70
b- 75
c- 64
d- 300

A

b- 75

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6
Q

A patient is on a high protein, low carbohydrate diet. What advice should you offer?

a- increase fluid intake
b- decrease complex carb intake
c- decrease fluid intake
d- decrease saturated fat intake

A

a- increase fluid intake

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7
Q

An insulin-dependent diabetic living alone calls you with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. What do you recommend?

a- continue insulin and eat anything he can
b- continue insulin and drink anything he can
c- discontinue insulin until he feels better
d- discontinue insulin and eat whatever he can

A

b- continue insulin and drink anything he can

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8
Q

Which infant is at the greatest risk?

a- 20 lb, hgb 10
b- 22 lb, hgb 10.5
c- 19 lb, hgb 11
d- 30 lb, hgb 9

A

d- 30 lb, hgb 9

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9
Q

Which of the infants in the above question has a normal hgb level?

a- a,b,d
b- b,d
c- c,d
d- a,b,c

A

d- a,b,c (10,10.5,11) (9 out of range)

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10
Q

An alcoholic patient has a low serum albumin, low hgb, high ammonia, abnormal LFT and ascites. Why is he on a 500mg sodium diet?

a- secondary renal failure
b- hypoaldosteronism
c- hypoalbuminemia
d- hyperammonemia

A

c- hypoalbuminemia

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11
Q

Which of the following should the patient in the above question have for lunch? (alcoholic, 500mg Na diet, hypoalbuminemia)

a- 4 ounces cottage cheese
b- 1 ounce cheddar cheese
c- 1 ounce roast beef
d- 1 ounce cold cuts

A

c- 1 ounce roast beef

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12
Q

Which of the following should be included in the diet for celiac disease?
I- decrease egg intake II- use potato and rice flour
III- IM vit B12 and iron IV- low cal, high fat, high protein

a- II, III
b- III, IV
c- I, II, IV
d- II, IV

A

a- II,III

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13
Q

Who is most at risk for gestational diabetes?

a- BMI 30, history of GSM
d- conception within 10 months of last pregnancy

A

c- BMI >30, history of GSM

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14
Q

A child is lethargic, irritable with diarrhea. The cause may be:

a- zinc toxicity
b- lead poisoning
c- iron overload
d- vit A toxicity

A

b- lead poisoning

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15
Q

How many calories are in 300ml of 5% dextrose solution?

a- 51
b- 60
c- 15
d- 200

A

a - 51

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16
Q

A single 19 year old female is 6 months pregnant. She has not gained any weight and has not seen a physician. Hgb is 9. Hct is 30. What is the most important recommendation for her?

a- see physician immediately
b- apply for WIC immediately
c- join teenage pregnancy support group
d- begin iron supplements

A

a- see physician immediately

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17
Q

A female is 5’7 115 lb. Six months ago she weighed 130 lb. What is her percent IBW?

a- 85%
b- 83%
c- 81%
d- 87%

A

a- 85%

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18
Q

A vegan is allergic to milk. Which nutrients would you expect might be deficient in her intake?

a- protein, calories
b- vit B12, D
c- vit C, calcium
d- vit A, D

A

b- vit B12, D

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19
Q

A patient with Crohns disease needs the following diet:
I- high fat, high cal, high protein
II- low fat only with steattorhea, vit C, B12
III- high calorie, high protein according to current BMI
IV- high residue, low fat, fat soluble vitamins
V- low calorie, low residue, fat soluble vitamins, B12

a- I
b- II, III
c- III, IV
d- V

A

b- II, III

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20
Q

Which of the following diets is appropriate for reactive hypoglycemia?

a- reduce intake of concentrated carbohydrates, 5-6 small meals
b- increased complex carbohydrate, low fat, high protein
c- decrease complex carbohydrate, low fat
d- high protein, high fat, high carbohydrates

A

a- reduce intake of concentrated carbohydrates, 5-6 small meals

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21
Q

Which patient has marasmus?
(serum albumin, transferrin, tricep skinfold, MAMC, TLC)
Pt A - Male - 3.5, 275, 3, 15, none
Pt B - Female - 2.6, 125, 16.8, 24.1, 1000
Pt C - Male - 4.0, 450, 17, 28.1, 3500

a- A
b- B
c- C
d- A, B

A

Pt A - Male - 3.5, 275, 3, 15, none (muscle wasting is key)

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22
Q

When assessing nutritional status, which would be the most beneficial?

a- 24 hour recall, history of weight change
b- medical history, diet order, socioeconomic status
c- clinical observation, weight status, culture habits
d- diet intake info, clinical and lab data

A

d- diet intake info, clinical and lab data

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23
Q

The first function of the public health nutritionist is:

a- assess needs of community
b- counsel patients with special dietary needs
c- write pamphlets for educational purposes
d- expand the role of Dietitians

A

a- assess needs of community

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24
Q

What nutrients most affect the renal solute load?

a- protein and carbohydrate
b- sodium and carbohydrate
c- protein and sodium
d- sodium and fat

A

c- protein and sodium

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25
Q

The elderly need how many ml of water per kg?

a- 35
b- 45
c- 30
d- 25

A

c- 30

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26
Q

According to Diabetic Exchange lists, when substituting 2% milk for skim, you must omit how many fat exchanges?

a- 1/2
b- 1
c- 1 1/2
d- 2

A

b- 1

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27
Q

If a man normally consuming 2600 calories per day reduces his intake to 1500 calories per day, how much weight will he lose in 1 week?

a- 0.5 kg
b- 1.0 kg
c- 1.5 kg
d- 2.0 kg

A

b- 1.0 kg

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28
Q

For which of the following disease is diet therapy the primary treatment?

a- peptic ulcer
b- diabetes
c- Wilsons Disease
d- galactosemia

A

d- galactosemia

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29
Q

Which of the following best reflects protein status?

a- serum albumin
b- serum transferrin
c- retinol binding protein
d- prealbumin

A

d- prealbumin

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30
Q

Following a Billroth II, steatorrhea often results. What is the likely cause?

a- bacterial overgrowth in remaining loop
b- lack of pancreatic secretion due to less duodenal hormone section
c- a diet restricting simple carbohydrates
d- rapid absorption of simple carbohydrates

A

b- lack of pancreatic secretion due to less duodenal hormone section

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31
Q

Meats curd with whey wont be tolerated by someone with:
I- lactose intolerance II- diabetes
III- post gastrectomy of 3 months IV- duodenectomy

a- I, II, III
b- II, III, IV
c- I
d- I, III, IV

A

c- I

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32
Q

Chemically defined formulas are used for:

a- short bowel syndrome
b- post chemotherapy treatment
c- hypermetabolism
d- galactosemia

A

a- short bowel syndrome

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33
Q

A PEG feeding would be useful in a patient with:

a- head or neck cancer who cant eat normally for weeks
b- short bowel syndrome
c- duodenal ulcers
d- pancreatitis

A

a- head or neck cancer who cant eat normally for weeks

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34
Q

A patient with hepatitis needs a high protein intake. Besides helping the liver to regenerate, what other purpose is served?

a- it helps increase iron absorption
b- it restores glycogen reserves
c- it prevents fatty liver
d- it helps prevent necrosis of the liver

A

c- it prevents fatty liver

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35
Q

The additive influence of foods and constituents when eaten have a beneficial effect on health refers to:

a- neutraceuticals
b- food synergy
c- positive corollaries
d- medical foods

A

b- food synergy

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36
Q

Which foods are most likely to cause an allergic reaction?

a- shellfish, peanuts, wheat
b- wheat, chocolate, rice
c- citrus fruit, milk, corn
d- chocolate, milk, corn

A

a- shellfish, peanuts, wheat

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37
Q

Which set of conditions is most commonly seen in American children?

a- obesity, dental caries, anemia
b- hypertension, dental caries, rickets
c- hyperkinesis, anemia, dental caries
d- diabetes, obesity, anemia

A

a- obesity, dental caries, anemia

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38
Q

A 1500 calorie diabetic diet with 45% calories from carbohydrate is prescribed. One third of the carbohydrate grams is met with 1/2 orange juice, 1 cup milk, and:

a- 1 slice toast
b- 2 slices toast
c- 2 slices toast and 1/2 cup oatmeal
d- 1/2 slice toast

A

b- 2 slices toast (use exchanges)

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39
Q

Which of the following is a medium fat meat?

a- peanut butter
b- tuna fish in water
c- corned beef
d- chicken without skin

A

c- corned beef

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40
Q

Which government agency would you contact regarding food distribution?

a- USDA
b- FDA
c- HHS
d- Food Stamps

A

a- USDA

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41
Q

Which has the greatest effect on renal solute load?

a- potassium
b- sodium
c- glucose
d- protein

A

d- protein

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42
Q

Which is not a fiber in the diet?

a- cellulose
b- hemicellulose
c- amylose
d- pectin

A

c- amylose

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43
Q

What is the diet for hypertension?

a- low sodium
b- low sodium, high potassium
c- low sodium, high calcium
d- low sodium, high potassium, high calcium

A

a- low sodium

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44
Q

The NHANES study looks at which parameters?

a- nutritional
b- nutritional, clinical
c- nutritional, biochemical
d- nutritional, clinical, biochemical

A

d- nutritional, clinical, biochemical

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45
Q

What is a major reason for constipation in the elderly?

a- diet low in high residue foods
b- diet high in low residue foods
c- decreased gastric motility
d- lack of physical exercise

A

c- decreased gastric motility

46
Q

An 11 month old infant is at the 95th percentile weight for age and has been for the past 9 months. What should you do?

a- recommend increasing food intake by 25%
b- recommend decreasing food intake by 50%
c- nothing, he is fine
d- watch his growth over next 6 months

A

d- watch his growth over next 6 months

47
Q

A 6’2 male, large frame, 230lb with Type 2 Diabetes should:

a- gain 5 lb to be at a desirable body weight
b- lose 20 lb slowly following balanced diet
c- lose 20 lb in 4 weeks on an 800 calorie diet
d- lose 10 lb slowly following a balanced diet

A

b- lose 20 lb slowly following balanced diet

48
Q

A patient with chronic pancreatitis should consume oral pancreatic enzymes:

a- with large meals and fatty foods
b- only is steattorhea increases
c- with all meals and snacks
d- only if consuming a high fat, low protein diet

A

c- with all meals and snacks

49
Q

If a patient is about to be discharged when you receive the discharge diet order, you should:

a- give him something to take home
b- there is not enough time so forget it
c- enroll him in outpatient clinic and schedule an appointment
d- teach him what you can in the time you have now

A

c- enroll him in outpatient clinic and schedule an appointment

50
Q

Following a cholecystectomy, bile is produced by the:

a- pancreas
b- liver
c- spleen
d- portal vein

A

b- liver

51
Q

How many calories are in 1.5L of 25% dextrose solution?

a- 850
b- 1275
c- 1000
d- 1500

A

b- 1275

52
Q

Research suggests that in order to guard against cancer you should ingest:

a- carotene and Vit C
b- Vit C and B12
c- protein and Vit A
d- Vit E and K

A

a- carotene and Vit C

53
Q

Which of the following may be the cause of loose stools in a tube fed patient?
I- feeding administered at rapid rate
II- osmolality of feeding too low
III- patient is constipated
IV- inadequate amount of intestinal surface area

a- I
b- I, II
c- II, III
d- I, IV

A

d- I, IV

54
Q

An elevated T4 indicates:

a- galactosemia
b- hypothyroidism
c- hyperthyroidism
d- ketonuria

A

c- hyperthyroidism

55
Q

Before discontinuing a parenteral feeding, provide enteral support to prevent:

a- development of fatty liver
b- ketoacidosis
c- hypoglycemia
d- hepatic encephalopathy

A

c- hypoglycemia

56
Q

Which of the following weight gains put pregnant women at risk?

a- less than 4 lb/month in last half of pregnancy
b- less than 5 lb/month is last half of pregnancy
c- less than 6 lb/month in last half of pregnancy
d- more than 2 lb/month in last half of pregnancy

A

a- less than 4 lb/month in last half of pregnancy

57
Q

Iron deficiency anemia has the following characteristics:

a- large cells laden with hemoglobin, hypochromic, microcytic
b- small pale cells, hypochromic, microcytic
c- large cells laden with hemoglobin, macrocytic, megaloblastic
d- small, pale cells, macrocytic, megaloblastic

A

b- small pale cells, hypochromic, microcytic

58
Q

Which hormone moves milk through mammary ducts?

a- prolactin
b- progesterone
c- estrogen
d- oxytocin

A

d- oxytocin

59
Q

Which anthropometric measurements are useful in assessing adults?

a- tricep skinfold, head circumference, arm muscle circumference
b- head circumference, arm muscle circumference, height, weight
c- serum albumin, tricep skinfold
d- tricep skinfold, arm muscle circumference, height, weight

A

d- tricep skinfold, arm muscle circumference, height, weight

60
Q

Which is a measure of somatic protein?

a- serum albumin
b- serum transferrin
c- mid arm muscle circumference
d- tricep skinfold

A

c- mid arm muscle circumference

61
Q

Muscle mass is determined using the:

a- tricep skinfold and arm circumference
b- skinfold caliper
c- BEE
d- urinary creatinine measurement

A

a- tricep skinfold and arm circumference

62
Q

Gastric irritants include:

a- black pepper, chili powder, caffeine, alcohol, cocoa
b- seeds, nuts, chili powder, black pepper, alcohol
c- caffeine, black pepper, nuts, alcohol
d- orange juice, black pepper, chili powder, alcohol

A

a- black pepper, chili powder, caffeine, alcohol, cocoa

63
Q

Good advice for a patient with a hiatal hernia is to:

a- increase intake of complex carbohydrates
b- lower fat content of the diet
c- dont eat before bed
d- avoid coffee

A

c- dont eat before bed

64
Q
The dumping syndrome:
I- follows a gastrectomy 
II- secondary to carbohydrate overload
III- draws fluid into intestine
IV- needs a high carbohydrate diet

a- I, III, IV
b- II, III, IV
c- I
d- I, II, III

A

d- I, II, III

65
Q

Nutritional therapy for hepatitis includes:

a- high protein, high carb, moderate fat, high cal
b- high protein, low carb, low fat, moderate cal
c- low protein, high carb, low fat, high cal
d- low protein, high carb, low fat, low cal

A

a- high protein, high carb, moderate fat, high cal

66
Q

Esophageal varices may be caused by:

a- portal hypotension
b- portal hypertension
c- high fiber diet
d- high fiber, high residue diet

A

b- portal hypertension

67
Q

The diet for hepatic coma is low in protein due to:

a- low ammonia levels
b- high cholesterol levels
c- high ammonia levels
d- high LDL

A

c- high ammonia levels

68
Q

In cystic fibrosis, the most impaired nutrient is:

a- protein
b- disaccharides
c- electrolytes
d- fat

A

d- fat

69
Q

Hormones that control blood pressure and blood components are produced in:

a- the heart
b- the liver
c- the kidneys
d- the lungs

A

c- the kidneys

70
Q

An acid ash would be created by ingesting:

a- corn, cranberries
b- milk
c- vegetables
d- fruit

A

a- corn, cranberries

71
Q

Symptoms of nephrosis include:

a- dehydration, hypocholesterolemia
b- albuminuria, hypercholesterolemia
c- edema, hypocholesterolemia
d- hypotension, hyperalbuminemia

A

b- albuminuria, hypercholesterolemia

72
Q

The catecholamines released during stress cause:

a- hypertension
b- hyperglycemia
c- diuresis
d- elevated BUN

A

b- hyperglycemia

73
Q

Which is a part of the nutritional therapy for IDDM in a lean person?

a- time meals
b- decrease calorie intake
c- it is not crucial to maintain calorie consistency if average intake is low
d- decrease feeding frequency

A

a- time meals

74
Q

Increased serum uric acid levels may lead to:

a- galactosemia
b- glycogen storage disease
c- gout
d- PKU

A

c- gout

75
Q

The diet for galactosemia should exclude:

a- high fat foods
b- high cholesterol foods
c- organ meats, MSG
d- simple carbohydrates

A

c- organ meats, MSG

76
Q

The ketogenic diet is used to help treat:

a- cystic fibrosis
b- seizures
c- chronic renal failure
d- hypotension

A

b- seizures

77
Q

Immediately following a severe burn, nutritional therapy should include:

a- high calories
b- high protein
c- high calories, vitamins, minerals
d- fluid and electrolyte replacement

A

d- fluid and electrolyte replacement (immediate is key)

78
Q

The theory of obesity that refers to receptors in the hypothalamus is the:

a- lipostatic theory
b- set point theory
c- glucostatic theory
d- glucose-obese theory

A

c- glucostatic theory

79
Q

The VMA test diet measures:

a- fat malabsorption
b- total catecholamines
c- protein malabsorption
d- vitamin, mineral absorption

A

b- total catecholamines

80
Q

A fecal excretion of ____ grams of fat / 24 hours is considered fat malabsorption.

a- less than 1
b- more than 7
c- 3-5
d- 2-4

A

b- more than 7

81
Q

Iatrogenic malnutrition is:

a- vitamin and mineral malabsorption
b- protein malabsorption
c- protein, calorie malnutrition
d- kwashiorkor

A

c- protein, calorie malnutrition (marasmus)

82
Q

What are the similarities between WIC and Food Stamps?
I- USDA regulated II- have risk criteria
III- have income criteria
IV - health exam required

a- I, II, III, IV
b- I, II, III
c- II, III, IV
d- I, III

A

d- I, III

83
Q

A 60 kg female receives 2700 calories on PN. The calorie to nitrogen ratio is 150:1. How many grams of nitrogen is she getting?

a- 14
b- 16
c- 18
d- 10

A

c- 18

84
Q

What type of food would you feed to a patient who has the athetoid form of cerebral palsy?

a- milk based products
b- finger foods like hot dog in a roll
c- milk free products
d- galactose free foods

A

b- finger foods like hot dog in a roll

85
Q

Osteoporosis is most likely to occur in:

a- physically active adult
b- non smoker
c- black female
d- white female

A

d- white female

86
Q

Which is a quick diet assessment tool for a large group?

a- food frequency list
b- diet history forms
c- weighing food samples and recording intake
d- food records

A

a- food frequency list

87
Q

Compared to human milk, commercially prepared infant formula is:

a- similar in nutrient content
b- equivalent to human milk in nutrient content and antibodies
c- higher in protein and iron but lacks antibodies
d- lower in protein and iron and lacks antibodies

A

c- higher in protein and iron but lacks antibodies

88
Q

Which of the following is not associated with anorexia nervosa?

a- food aversion
b- distorted body image
c- schizophrenia
d- constant concern about weight status

A

c- schizophrenia

89
Q

What is the appropriate advice for a person with anorexia nervosa?

a- offer wide variety of foods and frequent feedings
b- offer liquids high in calories and protein
c- offer nasogastric feedings
d- regular mealtimes, and a varied moderate intake

A

d- regular mealtimes, and a varied moderate intake

90
Q

A female who eats a wide variety of foods and takes supplemental iron and birth control pills may be:

a- marginally deficient in folic acid
b- low in calcium
c- low in Vit A
d- low in Zinc

A

a- marginally deficient in folic acid

91
Q

The immobilized state can lead to low levels of:

a- albumin and calcium
b- albumin and sodium
c- calcium and potassium
d- potassium and zinc

A

a- albumin and calcium

92
Q

A man with a peptic ulcer should consume:

a- milk every 2 hours
b- a bland diet
c- a balanced diet he can tolerate
d- a low roughage diet

A

c- a balanced diet he can tolerate

93
Q

A cholesterol level of 240 mgs needs treatment first with:

a- diet
b- diet and drugs
c- drugs
d- exercise, diet, and drugs

A

a- diet

94
Q

An infant formula for lactose intolerance might include:
I- whey, coconut oil
II- casein hydrolysate, corn oil, glucose
III- soy protein, corn syrup solids
IV- sodium caseinate, hydrolyzed cornstarch

a- I, II, III
b- II, III
c- II
d- I, III

A

b- II, III

95
Q

A patient with nephrosis will likely exhibit:

a- hypercholesterolemia, albuminemia, edema
b- hypertension, hypocholesterolemia
c- hypotension, azotemia
d- malnutrition, hyperalbuminemia

A

a- hypercholesterolemia, albuminemia, edema

96
Q

The above patient should receive how many grams protein per kg? (nephrosis)

a- .5 - .6
b- .6 - .8
c- .8 - 1.0
d- 1.0 - 1.4

A

c- .8 - 1.0

97
Q

Fiber, like that found in oats, beans, and bran cereals, results in:

a- increased water absorption from intestine
b- binding of bile acids
c- decreased sodium excretion in stool
d- small, compact stools

A

a- increased water absorption from intestine

98
Q

A patient suffering from bulimia may have all of the following symptoms except:

a- sore throat
b- dental problems
c- extreme weight loss
d- rectal bleeding

A

c- extreme weight loss

99
Q

The efficacy of a low sugar, low artificial flavor diet on hyperkinesis is:

a- it works in two out of three patients
b- it has not been scientifically proven effective
c- it has never been tested
d- it has been proven effective

A

b- it has not been scientifically proven effective

100
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of marasmus?

a- severe protein and calorie wasting
b- weight loss
c- edema
d- low anthropometric measurements

A

c- edema

101
Q

Urea excretion is related to _____, while creatinine excretion is related to ______.

a- muscle mass, protein intake
b- protein intake, muscle mass
c- protein intake, adipose reserves
d- protein intake, calcium intake

A

b- protein intake, muscle mass

102
Q

A patient has a rare urea disease where the body is unable to synthesize urea. What might be the results?

a- elevated ammonia levels
b- elevated BUN
c- elevated glucagon levels
d- compromised visceral protein levels

A

a- elevated ammonia levels

103
Q

Which statement applies to nutritional screening?

a- only a physician makes the referral
b- only a dietitian makes the referral
c- it is exclusively done by nursing
d- all health team members can participate according to policy

A

d- all health team members can participate according to policy

104
Q

A sandwich with two pieces of white bread and two ounces of turkey provides how many calories?

a- 250
b- 145
c- 198
d- 290

A

a- 250

105
Q

Current research on the relation between cancer and diet includes all of the following except:

a- cancer is associated with intake of Vit A
b- it is related to demographic factors
c- it is related to epidemiologic data
d- it is associated with ascorbic acid

A

b- it is related to demographic factors

106
Q

Two liters of a 5% dextrose solution provides how many calories?

a- 170
b- 340
c- 212
d- 195

A

b- 340

107
Q

When instructing a patient on diet therapy needed during intake of a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, which would not be included?

a- milk, cottage cheese, yogurt
b- yogurt, ricotta cheese
c- swiss cheese, yogurt
d- cheddar cheese, swiss cheese

A

d- cheddar cheese, swiss cheese

108
Q

Catecholamines have what physiological effect?

a- induce diuresis
b- cause hypoglycemia
c- cause sodium retention
d- cause potassium retention

A

c- cause sodium retention

109
Q

A patient with dehydration exhibits the symptoms of:

a- high blood pressure, dizziness
b- sunken eyes, decrease renal function, increased tachycardia
c- decreased BUN, decreased serum creatinine
d- low blood pressure, low serum sodium

A

b- sunken eyes, decrease renal function, increased tachycardia

110
Q

Why would a man who eats very little protein have an albumin of 5.5g/dL?

a- carbohydrate keeps albumin elevated
b- he is dehydrated
c- serum albumin falls quickly with protein deprivation
d- it is a sign of protein malnutrition

A

b- he is dehydrated