question sets Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics? Which nerve fibers are blocked first with local anesthesia? (FA15p499)

A

mechanism: block Na+ channels by binding to specific rec. on inner part of channel, bind to activated Na+ channels, so most effective in rapidly firing neurons.
3o amine local anesthetic penetrate membrane in uncharged form, then bind to ion channel in charged form
–>prevent nerve firing

small, myelinated fibers are blocked first

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2
Q

What medications are used in the treatment of urge incontinence?

A

muscarinic antagonists/anticholinergic: Oxybutynin, solifenacin, tolterodine, darifenacin, trospium

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3
Q

What are the three different eukaryotic RNA polymerases? What type of RNA does each make?
(FA15 p68) (FA16 p54)

A

RNA polymerase I makes rRNA (most numerous RNA, rampant).
RNA polymerase II makes mRNA (largest RNA, massive).
RNA polymerase III makes tRNA (smallest RNA, tiny).

Prokaryotes only have 1 RNA polymerase

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4
Q

Which cell types do not require insulin for the uptake of glucose? (FA15 p314) (FA16 p308)

A

GLUT-1: RBCs, brain, cornea
ƒGLUT-2 (bidirectional): β islet cells, liver, kidney, small intestine
ƒGLUT-3: brain
ƒGLUT-5 (fructose): spermatocytes, GI tract

BRICK L (insulin-independent glucose uptake): Brain, RBCs, Intestine, Cornea, Kidney, Liver.

GLUT-4: requires insulin for glucose uptake

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5
Q

What are the layers of the epidermis beginning with the most superficial layer? What is Auspitz sign?
(FA15 p436, 439) (FA16 p437, 440)

A
Stratum Corneum (keratin)
ƒStratum Lucidum
ƒStratum Granulosum
ƒStratum Spinosum (desmosomes) ƒ 
Stratum Basale (stem cell site)

bake some good luscious cookies/ come let’s get sun burned

Auspitz sign—pinpoint bleeding spots from exposure of dermal papillae when scales are scraped off. Can be associated with nail pitting and psoriatic arthritis. (psoriasis)

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6
Q

What is Kallmann syndrome? (FA15 p579) (FA16 p586

A

usually sporadic, but X-linked if familial, sometimes AD, AR
Failure to complete puberty; a form of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. (dec. testosterone, dec. LH)
Defective migration of GnRH cells and formation of olfactory bulb; dec. synthesis of GnRH in the hypothalamus; anosmia; midline facial defects, dec. GnRH, FSH, LH, testosterone.
Infertility (low sperm count in males; amenorrhea in females).

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7
Q

A 67-year-old man with congestive hear failure lost his job and medical insurance, so he stops buying and taking his digoxin, and develops dyspnea. What will this do to his cardiac output (CO)? What are the mechanisms behind his development of dyspnea?

A

digoxin: + inotrope used for HF
stopping it will decrease his CO via decreasing contractility.

the reduced contractility can also cause a backwards bloodflow, congesting the pulmonary circulation–>dyspnea

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8
Q

A 17-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room for abdominal pain and vomiting. She has a fever, and further questioning and exam reveal that the pain is in the right lower quadrant and has rebound tenderness. She says the pain began around the umbilicus. She is very nauseated and vomits again during the exam. What must be ruled out prior to coming to the final diagnosis in this patient? (FA15 p363) (FA16 p360)

A

this is classic presentation for acute appendicitis, but MUST RULE OUT PREGNANCY (get a B-hCG)

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9
Q

A 31-year-old man is post-op day 1 after an exploratory laparotomy. The surgery was performed emergently for intraperitoneal hemorrhage after a motorcycle crash. His creatinine today is elevated to 2.0 mg/dL. His pain is currently uncontrolled. Explain why an NSAID could lead to a potential complication in this patient. (FA15 p530, 533) (FA16 p535, 538)

A

NSAIDs block renal-protective prostaglandin synthesis (via inhibiting COX-1) –>Ž constriction of afferent arteriole–>reducing RPF and GFR; this may result in acute renal failure.

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10
Q

Which phagocyte dysfunction disease increases patient susceptibility to Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli? What is the cause of this disease? (FA15 p215) (FA16 p209)

A

Chronic granulomatous disease:
Defect of NADPH oxidase–> dec. reactive oxygen species (e.g., superoxide) and respiratory burst in neutrophils; X-linked recessive most common.
-inc. susceptibility to catalase ⊕ organisms (Need PLACESS): Nocardia, Pseudomonas, Listeria, Aspergillus, Candida, E. coli, S. aureus, Serratia. (due to these organisms using up H2O2, so phagocytes cannot utilize for killing)

Abnormal dihydrorhodamine (flow cytometry) test.
Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test is ⊝.
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11
Q

In your own words, describe what type I (a) error is. (FA15 p54) (FA16 p38)

A

Stating that there is an effect or difference when none exists
Also known as false-positive error.
α = you saw a difference that did not exist (e.g., convicting an innocent man).

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12
Q

What trace element is essential to the function of carbonic anhydrase and lactate dehydrogenase?

A

Zinc, needed for protein folding

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13
Q

A 30-year-old man who is experiencing shortness of breath is diagnosed with obstructive lung disease on pulmonary function testing. The patient does not have a history of asthma and has never smoked. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with α1-antitrypsin deficiency. How does the emphysema caused by smoking differ from the emphysema caused by α1-antitrypsin deficiency? (FA15 p371, 610) (FA16 p369, 618)

A

α1-antitrypsin deficiency: Ž uninhibited elastase in alveoli Ž  elastic tissue–>panacinar emphysema, lower lobes

smoking: Centriacinar, upper lobes

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14
Q

In what clinical scenarios would you see a “nutmeg” liver? (FA15 p297, 370)

A

RHF, Budd-Chiari syndrome

-increased central venous pressure, increased resistance to portal flow.

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15
Q

You are performing a radical mastectomy and exercise extreme caution as you dissect laterally along the serratus anterior muscle. You do this in order to avoid severing which motor nerve, which would result in what sequela? (FA15 p419) (FA16 p420)

A

Long thoracic n., “winged scapula”

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16
Q

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of severe low back pain that radiates down the back of her leg. What is the most likely explanation for her pain?

A

disc herniation; L5, S1 nerve root compression

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17
Q
What problem/abnormality is associated with the following buzzwords?
Calf pseudohypertrophy (FA15 p624) 
Gower maneuver (FA15 p85)
A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

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18
Q

Subluxation of the lenses (FA15 p83) ??

A

Marfan’s syndrom, homocysteinuria

19
Q

Café-au-lait spots (FA15 p83)??

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1

20
Q

Tuft of hair on lower back (FA15 p449)??

A

Spina bifida occulta

21
Q

What type of cell differentiation and maturation takes place at the thymus? (FA15 p199) (FA16 p191) The thymus also functions to positively restrict major histocompatibility complex (MHC) at the corticomedullary junction. On which cells would you expect to find MHC I? MHC II? (FA15 p200) (FA16 p192)

A

T-cell differentiation and maturation

MHC I: on all nucleated cells (not RBCs)

MHC II: on APCs

22
Q

A 59-year-old man with a 50-pack-year history of smoking sees you for management of his COPD. What is the clinical definition of chronic bronchitis? (FA15 p610) (FA16 p618)

A

productive cough for > 3 months per year (not necessarily consecutive) for > 2 years.

23
Q

A 50-year-old woman develops a new onset of low back pain without a specific injury. A lumbar x-ray reveals lytic lesions which raise suspicion for multiple myeloma. What is the characteristic finding on electrophoresis with multiple myeloma? What is the classic finding in the urine of a patient with multiple myeloma? (FA15 p401) (FA16 p401)

A

ƒM spike on serum protein electrophoresis
ƒIg light chains in urine (Bence Jones protein)

bonuses:
-increased susceptibility to infection
ƒ-Primary amyloidosis (AL)
ƒ-Punched-out lytic bone lesions on x-ray A
-Rouleaux formation B (RBCs stacked like poker chips in blood smear)
-Numerous plasma cells C with “clock-face” chromatin and intracytoplasmic inclusions
containing IgG

24
Q

Nematode routes of infection (154)
You’ll get sick if you EATT these!
These get into your feet from the SANd.
Lay LOW to avoid getting bitten.

A

Ingested—Enterobius, Ascaris, Toxocara, Trichinella
Cutaneous—Strongyloides, Ancylostoma, Necator
Bites—Loa loa, Onchocerca volvulus, Wuchereria bancrofti

25
Q

Biliary tract disease, cholangiocarcinoma

A

Clonorchis sinensis

26
Q

Brain cysts, seizures

A

Taenia solium (cysticercosis)

27
Q

Hematuria, squamous cell bladder cancer

A

Schistosoma haematobium

28
Q

Liver (hydatid) cysts

A

Echinococcus granulosus

29
Q

Microcytic anemia

A

Ancylostoma, Necator

30
Q

Myalgias, periorbital edema

A

Trichinella spiralis

31
Q

Perianal pruritus

A

Enterobius

32
Q

Portal hypertension

A

Schistosoma mansoni, Schistosoma japonicum

33
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

34
Q

Does a partial agonist always have a lower maximal efficacy than a full agonist? Does a partial agonist always have a lower potency than a full agonist? (FA15 p246) (FA16 p240)

A

always has lower maximal effect with partial agonist

potency may be increase or decreased

35
Q

How is cystic fibrosis diagnosed? (FA15 p84) (FA16 p72

A

 Cl− concentration (> 60 mEq/L) in sweat is diagnostic. (“sweat chloride test” with pilocarpine)
can test chloride in nasal epithelium
CFTR (chrm 7) genetic testing
-Can present with contraction alkalosis and hypokalemia (ECF effects analogous to a patient taking a loop diuretic) because of ECF H2O/Na+ losses and concomitant renal K+/H+ wasting. 
-increased immunoreactive trypsinogen (newborn screening).

36
Q

What are the common causes of metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap? (FA15 p538) (FA16 p543)

A

inc. anion gap
MUDPILES:
Methanol (formic acid) Uremia
Diabetic ketoacidosis Propylene glycol
Iron tablets or Isoniazid Lactic acidosis
Ethylene glycol (oxalic acid) Salicylates (late)
IN CONTRAST:
Normal anion gap (8−12 mEq/L) HARD-ASS:
Hyperalimentation
Addison disease
Renal tubular acidosis Diarrhea Acetazolamide Spironolactone Saline infusion

37
Q

You are conducting a study to determine the reduction in risk of developing a relapsing depressive episode with antidepressant X when compared to a placebo treatment. What is this determination called? What is attributable risk, and how is it calculated? (FA15 p50) (FA16 p34)

A

Absolute risk reduction

attributable risk: difference in risk btw exposed vs unexposed groups (or proportion of disease caused by exposure) i.e. if risk of lung cancer in smokers is 21% and risk in nonsmokers is 1%, then 20% of the lung cancer risk in smokers is attributable to smoking

38
Q
Given the following clinical situations, classify each as type I, II, III, or IV hypersensitivity. (FA15 p212) (FA16 p204-205):
Asthma exacerbation
Poison ivy dermatitis
Goodpasture syndrome
Arthus reaction
Anaphylaxis
A
Asthma exacerbation: TI
Poison ivy dermatitis:  TIV
Goodpasture syndrome: TII
Arthus reaction: TIII
Anaphylaxis: TI
39
Q

Given the following clinical situations, classify each as type I, II, III, or IV hypersensitivity. (FA15 p212) (FA16 p204-205):
Serum sickness
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Liver transplant rejection
Rh incompatibility (erythroblastosis fetalis)
TB skin test (PPD)

A
Serum sickness: TIII
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: TII
Liver transplant rejection: TIV
Rh incompatibility (erythroblastosis fetalis): TII
TB skin test (PPD): TIV
40
Q

What effect does stress have on adipocytes?

A

sympathetic activation–>EPI, NE–>activation of TG lipase in fat cells–>rapid brkdwn of TGs and mobilization of FAs to be used by muscles for energy

also stress–>corticotropin from ant pit–>sec. of glucorts from adrenal cortex–>act. of TG lipase in fat cells–> same effect (lipolysis)

41
Q

What is the mechanism of action of leuprolide? (FA15 p596) (FA16 p601)

A

GnRH analog

  • agonist when used in pulsatile fashion
  • antagonist when used continuous (downregulates GnRH receptor in pituitary Ž –>dec. FSH/LH, also reduced testosterone production to slow growth of prostate cancer).
  • Leuprolide can be used in lieu of GnRH.*
42
Q

A chronic alcoholic with cirrhosis begins to experience a tremor and blurred vision. You suspect that these symptoms might be due to hyperammonemia due to his progressive liver disease. What is another hereditary cause of hyperammonemia? What are some other findings associated with hyperammonemia? (FA15 p106) (FA16 p93)

A

urea cycle enzyme deficiencies:
-Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency: Most common urea cycle disorder. X-linked recessive, (may be seen soon after birth or later) Excess carbamoyl phosphate is converted to orotic acid (part of the pyrimidine synthesis pathway).
Findings: inc. orotic acid in blood and urine, dec. BUN, symptoms of hyperammonemia. No megaloblastic anemia (vs. orotic aciduria).
-N-acetylglutamate synthase deficiency: Required cofactor for carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I, presents similarly: neonates as poorly regulated respiration and body temperature, poor feeding, developmental delay, intellectual disability

Ammonia intoxication—tremor (asterixis), slurring of speech, somnolence, vomiting, cerebral edema, blurring of vision.

43
Q

What features distinguish a thyroglossal duct cyst from a branchial cleft cyst? What is the remnant of the thyroglossal duct? Explain the development of the thyroid gland. (FA15 p312) (FA16 p306)

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst: an anterior MIDLINE neck mass that moves with swallowing or protrusion of the tongue (vs. persistent cervical sinus leading to branchial cleft cyst in LATERAL neck).

Foramen cecum is normal remnant of thyroglossal duct (obliterated).

Thyroid diverticulum arises from floor of primitive pharynx and descends into neck. Connected to tongue by thyroglossal duct, which normally disappears but may persist as pyramidal lobe of thyroid.

44
Q

A 46-year-old schizophrenic woman has been treated with an atypical antipsychotic with good results for several years. Routine labs reveal a precipitous drop in her WBCs. Which drug is this patient likely taking, and how frequently must her labs be drawn to watch for this problem? (FA15 p521) (FA16 p525)

A

Clozapine may cause agranulocytosis (requires weekly WBC monitoring) and seizure
Must watch CLOZapine CLOZely!

how to remember atypicals:
It’s atypical for old closets to quietly risper from A to Z.

OLanzapine, CLOZapine, QUETIapine, RISPERidone, Aripiprazole, Ziprasidone.