Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals HH > Question practice > Flashcards

Question practice Flashcards

1
Q

Oral bisphosphonates side effect

A

Oesophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acne management

A
  1. Single topical therapy (topical benzyl peroxide or retinoid)
  2. Topical combination (topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, topical retinoid)
  3. Oral antibiotics - Tetracyclines (doxycycline)
    -Erythromycin if pregnant
  4. Oral isotretinion

If female, consider COCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lateral medullary syndrome px

A

Cerebellar signs - DANISH
Contralateral sensory loss
Ipsilateral Horner’s

Due to PICA lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Angina Mx:

A

All should have Aspirin & GTN PRN

  1. B-blocker or rate-limiting CCB (verapamil or diltiazem)
  2. B-blocker + dihydropyridine CCB (amlodipine, modified-release nifedipine)

If on monotherapy and can’t add b-blocker or CCB -> Either:
- Long acting nitrate
- Ivabradine
- Nicorandil
- Ranolazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AF management

A

<48h:
Anti-coagulate + DC cardioversion (within 48h)
- Amiodarone if structural heart disease

> 48h:
Anti-coagulate for 3 weeks then cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

UTI Mx if pregnant

A

Nitrofurantoin
Amoxicillin if near term
Avoid trimethoprim (teratogenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are steps in paeds ABCDE of unresponsive patient?

A
  1. Shout for help
  2. Open airway
  3. Look, listen, feel for breathing
  4. Give 5 rescue breaths
  5. Check for signs of circulation (infants use brachial or femoral pulse, children use femoral pulse)
  6. 15 chest compressions:2 rescue breaths (see above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What antibiotic for MRSA?

A

IV vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mx for Bowen’s disease

A

Topical 5-fluorouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a Colles fracture

A

Distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a monteggia fracture?

A

Ulnar fracture + dislocation of proximal radioulnar joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Rosecea Mx

A

PRN Brimonidine to reduce redness

Mild-to-moderate -> topical ivermectin
- Alternative is oral metronidazole or azelaic acid

Moderate-to-severe -> topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

S1 nerve root compression

A

Sensory loss posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot
Weakness in plantar flexion of foot
Reduced ankle reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common bacterial exacerbation in COPD?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most common bacterial cause of acute epiglottis?

A

Haemophilus influenza type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most common bacterial cause of otitis externa in a swimmer?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Myeloma pneumonic?

A

C - hyperCalcaemia
R - Renal damage -> thirst, dehydration
A - Anaemia
B - Bleeding -> thrombocytopenia
B - Back pain
I - Infection susceptibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Urine osmolality in cranial and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus after water deprivation test and desmopressin?

A

Cranial - low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation but high after desmopressin

Nephrogenic - low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation and after desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Types of melanoma?

A
  • Superficial spreading
  • Nodular
  • Lentigo maligna
  • Acral lentiginous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pulmonary embolism first line drug?

A

DOAC - apixiban or rivaroxaban for at least 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Paraneoplastic features of lung cancers?

A

Small cell -> ADH, ACTH, Lambert-Eaton syndrome

Squamous cell -> PTH-related protein causing hypercalcaemia, clubbing, HPOA, hypertension due to ectopic TSH

Adenocarcinoma -> Gynaecomastia, hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mx of aortic aneurysms dependant on size?

A

<4.5cm (small) -> 12 monthly assessment
4.5 - 5.4 (medium) -> 3 monthly assessment
>5.4 (large) -> urgent referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common drugs to cause acute interstitial nephritis?

A

Penicillin
Rifampicin
NSAIDs
Allopurinol
Furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Types of emergency contraception?

A

Levonorgestrel - within 72h
Ulipristal - within 120h (avoid if asthmatic)
IUD - within 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Neutropenic sepsis mx

A

Immediate antibiotics (piperacillin with tazobactam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

SSRI side effect in pregnancy?

A

First trimester -> congenital heart defects
Third trimester -> persistant pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does the circumflex coronary artery supply?

A

Left atrium
Posterior aspect of the left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the left anterior descenidng artery supply?

A

Anterior aspect of the left ventricle
Anterior aspect of the septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Artery, heart area and ECG leads?

A

Left coronary artery - anterolateral - I, aVL, V3-6

Left anterior descending - anterior - V1-4

Circumflex - lateral - I, aVL, V5-6

Right coronary artery - inferior - II, III, aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Secondary prevention of M.I? (6 A’s)

A

6 A’s:
- Aspirin
- Another Antiplatelet (Ticagrelor or Clopidegrel)
- Atorvostatin
- ACEi
- Atenolol (b-blocker)
- Aldosterone antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Management of Raynaud’s?

A

Dihydropyridine CCB - Nifedipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Scaphoid fracture - Px, Mx and main complication?

A

Px - Tenderness in anatomical snuffbox
Mx - Plaster for 10 days then further x-rays
Complication - Avascular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Initial mx in SVT and VT?

A

SVT:
1. vagal manouvere
2. Adenosin

VT:
Stable -> IV amiodarone
Unstable -> DC cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Rome criteria of IBS?

A

2 or more of following, at least one day per week in last 3 months:
- Related to defecation
- Associated with change in stool frequency
- Associated with change in stool appearance (form)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Mitral stenosis px

A
  • Malar flush
  • Tapping apex beat
  • Mid-diastolic murmur
  • AF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hyperaldosteronism px?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Hypokalaemia -> muscle weakness
  • Metabolic alkalosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Causes of hyperaldosteronism

A

Primary:
- Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
- Adrenal adenoma secreting aldosterone (Conn’s syndrome)
- Familial

Secondary:
- Renal artery stenosis
- Heart failure
- Liver cirrhosis and ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ix of hyperaldosteronism in primary and secondary?

A

Ix - Aldosterone to renin ratio (ARR)

Primary - high aldosterone and low renin
Secondary - high aldosterone and high renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ix of hyperaldosteronism in primary and secondary?

A

Ix - Aldosterone to renin ratio (ARR)

Primary - high aldosterone and low renin
Secondary - high aldosterone and high renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Mx of hyperaldosteronism?

A

Aldosterone antagonists:
- Eplerenone
- Spironolactone

+ underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Drug which slows ADPKD progression?

A

Tolvaptan - vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Why do we do a CT in dermatomyositis workup?

A

Because it is a common paraneoplastic manifestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Nephoritc or nephritic?
- Membranous glomerulonephrtiis
- IgA nephropathy

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis - nephrotic
IgA nephropathy - nephritic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

First line drug in diabetic patient with hypertension?

A

ACEi or ARB
- ARB if african-caribbean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

First line drugs in neuropathic pain? (4)

A

Amitriptyline, Duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Indications for spironolactone?

A

Ascites
Hypertension (step 4)
Heart failure
Nephrotic syndrome
Conn’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of drug is desmopressin?

A

Vasopressin V2 receptor agonist (synthetic ADH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What drug can be used in ADPKD?

A

Tolvaptan (vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Initial Ix for polycystic kidney disease?

A

Ultrasound scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Haemoptysis + AKI / proteinuria / haematuria?

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome (anti-GBM disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is type 1 respiratory failure and ABG result?

A

Hypoxia without hypercapnia (low pO2 and low/normal pCO2)

Respiratory alkalosis if CO2 decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is type 2 respiratory failure and ABG result?

A

Hypoxia with hypercapnia (low O2 and high pCO2)

Respiratory acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Difference between IgA nephropathy and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

IgA nephropathy - 1-2 days after infections

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis - 1-2 weeks after infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Drug used to maintain remission of Crohn’s disease?

A
  1. Azathioprine or mercaptopurine
  2. Methotrexate
  3. Surgery (80% receive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

SSRI + NSAID s/e?

A

G.I bleed risk
-> give PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What antidepressant if on warfarin or heparin?

A

Avoid but consider mirtazapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Most common organism in bronchiectasis?

A

Haemophilus influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Antibiotic for legionella?

A

Macrolides - Clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Antibiotic for pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?

A

Co-trimoxazole
(mix of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Motor neuron disease with only upper motor neuron symptoms?

A

Primary lateral sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Difference between Grade 1 and Grade 2 haemorrhoids and their Mx?

A

Grade 1 haemorrhoids:
Internal haemorrhoids which do not prolapse on straining
Mx - topical corticosteroids.

Grade 2 haemorrhoids:
Internal haemorrhoids which prolapse on straining, but spontaneously reduce
Mx - rubber band ligation, sclerotherapy, or infrared photocoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Sign of psoriatic arthritis?

A

Known psoriasis
Nail pitting
Onycholysis
Dactylitis -
Enthesitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Antibiotic for suspected meningitis in a baby?

A

<3mo - cefotaxime + amoxicillin / ampicillin
>3mo - Cefotaxime or Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Infarction of what coronary vessel associated with heart block?

A

Right coronary artery supplies the AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Management of major bleeding on warfarin?

A

Stop warfarin
Give IV vitK 5mg
Give prothrombin complex concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Chronic heart failure Mx?

A
  1. ACEi + b-blocker (one started at a time)
  2. Aldosterone antagonist (eplerenone) or SGLT2i
  3. Options include:
    - Sinus rhythm >75 & LVEF <35 % -> Ivabradine
    - LVEF < 35% -> Sacubitril-valsartan
    - Afro-Caribbean -> Hydralazine + nitrate
    - Co-existant AF -> Digoxin

LVEF = Left ventricular ejection fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Mx of tension pneumothorax?

A

Immediate large bore (14G or 16G) inserted into the second intercostal space mid-clavicular line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When to consider adjuvant dexamethasone in menignitis?

A

In pneumococcal meningitis

Avoid if:
- Septic shock
- Meningococcal septicaemia
- Immunocompromised
- Following surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does a decrease in haptoglobin indicate?

A

Intravascular haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Lynch syndrome causes?

A

Colon cancer
Endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Drug Mx for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction in patient with no symptoms (NYHA 1)?

A

ACEi

71
Q

Drug change in patient who develops gynaecomastia from spironolactone?

A

Eplerenone

72
Q

What heart failure drugs are bad if renal impairment?

A

ACEi, ARB
Spironolactone

73
Q

When are rate-limiting CCB contraindicated?

A

Heart failure
Severe bradycardia
Second- or third-degree atrioventricular block

74
Q

What kind of drug is nicorandil?

A

Potassium channel activator

Used in anigna

75
Q

Ulcerative colitis severity & numer of stools?

A

<4 stools a day = Mild
4 - 6 stools = Moderate
>6 stools a day, with blood = Severe

76
Q

Ix of Lyme disease

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi are the first-line test

77
Q

Mx of suspected / confirmed Lyme disease?

A
  1. Doxycycline
  2. Amoxicillin (if pregnant)

Disseminated disease -> ceftriaxone

78
Q

‘Halo sign’ seen on mammography of breast?

A

Breast Cyst

79
Q

First-line mx for generalised anxiety disorder?

A

Sertraline

80
Q

Amount of protein for exudative vs transudative pleural effusion?

A

Exudative = >30g/L
Transudative = <30g/L

81
Q

Drugs which commonly cause urticaria? (4)

A

Aspirin
Penicillin
NSAIDs
Opiates

82
Q

What type of resections for rectum cancer?

A
  1. Anterior resection
  2. Abdominoperineal resection if invades pelvic floor, anal canal or anal sphincter
83
Q

MRI with or without contrast for M.S?

A

MRI with contrast

84
Q

Insect bite causing a skin lesion?

A

Dermatofibroma

85
Q

What is pituitary apoplexy?

A

Sudden enlargement of a pituitary tumour (usually non-functioning macroadenoma) secondary to haemorrhage or infarction

86
Q

Mx of pituitary apoplexy?

A

IV steroids

(due to loss of ACTH)

87
Q

Drugs for Oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer?

A

Pre- or peri- menopause -> Tamoxifen
Post-menopasual -> Anastrozole

88
Q

Drug for HER2+ breast cancer?

A

Herceptin (trastuzumab)

89
Q

Causes of erythema nodosum? (5)

A

Infection - streptococci, tuberculosis, brucellosis

Systemic disease - sarcoidosis, IBD, Behcet’s

Malignancy/lymphoma

Drugs - penicillins, sulphonamides, COCP

Pregnancy

90
Q

Mx of non-falciparum malaria? (Plasmodium vivax or Plasmodium ovale)

A

Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or Chloroquine
+
Primaquine following acute mx (destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse)

Avoid ACT if pregnant

91
Q

Features of PTSD? (4)

A
  • Re-experiencing
  • Avoidance
  • Hyper-arousal (exaggerated startle response)
  • Emotional numbing
92
Q

What are gliptins?

A

DPP-4 inhibitors - these reduce the peripheral breakdown of incretins such as GLP-1

93
Q

Causes of steven-johnson syndrome?

A

penicillin
sulphonamides
lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin
allopurinol
NSAIDs
oral contraceptive pill

94
Q

Blood-film of sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Basophilic stippling of red blood cells

95
Q

Three features of Meig’s syndrome?

A
  • A benign ovarian tumour
  • Ascites
  • Pleural effusion
96
Q

Difference between schizoid and schizotypical personality disorder?

A

Schizoid = Cold-personality, doesn’t want friends
Schizotypal = Crazy, delusions, no-one wants to be their friend

97
Q

Mx of P.E?

A

Stable - LMWH
Unstable - Thrombolyse

98
Q

What can alpha-blockers be prescribed for?

A

BPH
Hypertension

99
Q

Bone lesions and type of metastasis?
(Sclerotic vs Lytic)

A

Prostate = sclerotic / blastic (induces bone growth)
Breast = mixed pattern
Kidney, thyroid, lung = lytic

100
Q

Mx of anterior uveitis?

A

Urgent opthamology review

Steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) eye drops

101
Q

Immunofluorescence reveals IgG and C3 at basement membrane

A

Bullous pemphigoid

102
Q

What antibiotic to avoid in congenital long QT syndrome?

A

Clarithromycin

103
Q

What antibiotic should be avoided with methotrexate?

A

Trimethoprim

(include co-trimoxazole)

104
Q

Mx of tumour lysis syndrome?

A

IV allopurinol or IV rasburicase

105
Q

Px of tumour lysis syndrome?

A

2-3 days after chemo
AKI
High potassium, high phosphate, high uric acid, low calcium

106
Q

Findings at 12 weeks scan suggesting trisomy 21?

A

↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency

107
Q

Mx of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Stop the transfusion and give IV fluids

108
Q

Drug to reduce the rate of CKD progression in ADPKD

A

Tolvaptan

109
Q

Mx of non-haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Slow or stop infusion + paracetamol

110
Q

How to differentiate between haemolytic and non-haemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Haemolytic = hypotension
Non-haemolytic = normal BP

111
Q

Malignant hyperthermia management?

A

IV dantrolene

112
Q

HPV involves in genital warts and cervical cancer?

A

Genital warts - 6 & 11
Cervical cancer - 16 & 18

113
Q

When is metformin contra-indicated?

A

eGFR < 30

CKD 4 or CKD 5

114
Q

Mx of bloody diarrhoea with a fever?

A

Ciprofloxacin

115
Q

Muddy brown granular casts on urinalysis and microscopy?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

116
Q

Contraindication for bisphosphonates?

A

If eGFR < 35

117
Q

What hypertension mx is contra-indicated in gout?

A

Thiazide-like diuretic

118
Q

Mx of Lice and scabies?

A

Lice - Malathion
Scabies - Permethin

119
Q

When can different emergency contraceptions be taken til?

A

Levonorgestrel - 72 hours
Ulipristal - 120 hours
IUD - 5 days, or 5 days from predicated ovulation

120
Q

When can different emergency contraceptions be taken til?

A

Levonorgestrel - 72 hours
Ulipristal - 120 hours
IUD - 5 days, or 5 days from predicated ovulation

121
Q

Where is iron, folate and B12 absorbed?

A

Iron - Duodenum
Folate - Jejunum
B12 - Ileum

Dude I Just Feel Ill Bro

122
Q

Difference between high and low pressure chronic urinary retention?

A

High pressure:
- Presence of hydronephrosis
- Impaired renal function

Low pressure = none of above

123
Q

Bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearer?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

124
Q

Investigation of achalasia and pharyngeal pouch?

A

Achalasia -> Oesophageal manometry testing

Pharyngeal pouch -> Barium swallow with fluoroscopy

125
Q

Factors associated with increased risk of placental abruption?

A

Maternal trauma
Multiparity
Increased maternal age

126
Q

Drug to lower phosphate?

A

Sevelamer
(this is a non-calcium based phosphate binder)

127
Q

Threadworms micro name?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

128
Q

Mx of two consecutive inadequate cervical smears?

A

Colposcopy

129
Q

What is syringomyelia?

A

CSF collection in the spinal cord

Due to:
- Chiari malformation: strong association
- Trauma
- Tumours
- Idiopathic

130
Q

Px of syringomyelia?

A

Cape-like (neck, shoulders & arms) loss of sensation to temperature but other senses are normal

Burn hands without realising

131
Q

Ix of syringomyelia?

A

MRI spine with contrast (exclude tumour or tethered cord)
+
MRI brain (look for Chiari malformation - strong association)

132
Q

Mx of aortic stenois?

A

Asymptomatic -> observe

Asymptomatic but valvular gradient >40mmHg or LVSD -> replace

Symptomatic -> replace

133
Q

Mx of baby GORD?

A
  1. Advice
    - 30 degrees head up for feeds
    - Small and more frequent feeds
    - Trial thicker feeds
  2. Trial Alginate (Gaviscon)
  3. PPI if either:
    - Distressed behaviour
    - Difficulty feeding
    - Faltering growth
134
Q

Nifedipine s/e?

A

Peripheral vasodilation -> reflex tachycardia

135
Q

What is diaphoresis?

A

Excessive and abnormal sweating

136
Q

Glaucoma Ix?

A

Slit lamp - Corneal oedema?

Tonometry - Measures Intra-ocular pressure

Gonioscopy - Differentiates between acute and chronic open glaucoma

137
Q

What is the Synacthen test used in?

A

Ix for Addison’s disease

ACTH stimulation test to see if cortisol levels rise

138
Q

Hypo or hyper-natraemia in SIADH?

A

Hyponatraemia

Excess ADH release -> More water reabsorption -> dilute plasma -> hyponatraemia

139
Q

Affect of ramipril and salbutamol on potassium levels?

A

Ramipril -> hyperkalaemia
Salbutamol -> hypokalaemia

140
Q

What does each zone of the adrenal gland secrete?

A

Zona glomerulosa -> aldosterone
Zona fasciculata -> cortisol
Zona reticularis -> androgens

141
Q

Gold standard test for pheochromocytoma?

A

Elevated plasma free metanephrines

(higher sensitivity and specificity than 24-hour urinary metanephrines)

142
Q

Aldosterone-to-renin ratio in primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Primary - High aldosterone and low renin
Secondary - High aldosterone and high renin

143
Q

What is Rocker-bottom feet seen in?

A

Edward syndrome (trisomy 18)

144
Q

Anti-platelet after ischemic stroke?

A

Aspirin 300mg daily for two weeks

Followed by clopidogrel 75mg daily lifelong

If clopidogrel unsuitable -> Modified-release dipyridamole (200 mg twice a day) should be prescribed with combined with aspirin 75 mg

145
Q

Absolute contra-indications to laparoscopic surgery?

A
  • Haemodynamic instability/shock
  • Raised intracranial pressure
  • Acute intestinal obstruction with dilated bowel loops (e.g. > 4 cm)
  • Uncorrected coagulopathy
146
Q

Ix for osteomyelitis?

A

MRI

(Better than biopsy)

147
Q

First-line mx of T2DM with eGFR<30?

A

Sulphonylurea (gliclazide)

148
Q

Why is urea important in G.I bleed?

A

High urea levels indicate an upper GI bleed over lower GI bleed

149
Q

What is Ca15-3 a tumour marker for?

A

Breast cancer

150
Q

Anaemia due to methotrexate?

A

Megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia secondary to folate deficiency due to methotrexate

151
Q

Mx of a UTI of a pregnant women close to term?

A

Cefalexin or amoxicillin

152
Q

What is Ebstein’s anomaly?

A

Low insertion of the tricuspid valve resulting in a large atrium and small ventricle

Often caused by lithium in utero

153
Q

Genital herpes Ix?

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) on swab

154
Q

Ix for post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

raised anti-streptolysin O titres

155
Q

Chest pain + neurological symptom?

A

Dissection
- Carotid or Aortic

156
Q

Ix for pancreatic cancer?

A

High resolution CT scan

157
Q

Dx of very unwell patient with low platelets and schistocytosis?

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

158
Q

How to differentiate alopecia areata from tinea capitus?

A

Alopecia areata has no skin changes at hair loss

Tine capitus has skin changes at hair loss

159
Q

Isoniazid from TB mx side effect?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

160
Q

What CCB causes ankle oedema?

A

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

161
Q

Phaeochromocytoma initial Mx?

A

Alpha-blocker (e.g. phenoxybenzamine),
Then a beta-blocker (e.g. propranolol)

162
Q

What hypertension drugs are contra-indicated in pregnancy?

A

ARBS
ACEi

-> cause fetotoxicity

163
Q

Vitamin B3 deficiency cause?

A

Pellagra - dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia

Vitamin b3 is also called niacin

164
Q

When should aspirin be given from 12 weeks in pregnancy?

A

History of hypertension in previous pregnancy
CKD
Diabetes (T1 or T2)
Autoimmune disease (SLE or Anti-phospholipid syndrome)

165
Q

cANCA condition?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

166
Q

pANCA conditions?

A

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-strauss syndrome)
Microscopic polyangiitis

Others:
Ulcerative colitis (70%)
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (70%)
Anti-GBM disease (25%)
Crohn’s disease (20%)

167
Q

Extended and abducted shoulder dislocation?

A

Anterior

168
Q

Flexed and adducted shoulder dislocation?

A

Posterior

169
Q

What is Erb’s palsy?

A

C5/C6 injury (upper trunk) -> ‘waiter’s tip’

Cause - shoulder dystocia, fall on shoulder

170
Q

What is Klumpke’s palsy?

A

Lower brachial nerve palsy (C8-T1)

171
Q

Bile acid malabsorption drug?

A

Cholestyramine

172
Q

Secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Lactulose + rifamixin

173
Q

Contra-indication to triptan use?

A

Ischaemic heart disease / CVD disease

174
Q

What is mycoplasma pneumoniae associated with?

A

Erythema multiforme

175
Q

Mx of paediatric faecal impactation

A
  1. Macrogol laxative - Movicol + polyethylene glycol
    • stimulant if no response in 2 weeks

Finals HH (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions