Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the CAGE questions?

A

C - Ever thought you should Cut down
A - Do you get annoyed at others commenting on your drinking?
G - Ever feel guilty about drinking?
E - Eye opener? Ever drink in the morning to help your hangover

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2
Q

When to admit to hospital with alcohol withdrawal?

A

High risk of delirium tremens or seizures
Vulnerable groups - frail, lack social support, learning difficulties, <18y

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3
Q

Time-frame after last drink leading to delirium tremens?

A
  • 6-12 hours – tremor, sweating, headache, craving, anxiety
  • 12-24 hours – Hallucinations
  • 24-48 hours – Seizures
  • 24-72 hours – Delirium tremens
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4
Q

Acute alcohol withdrawal Mx?

A

Benzodiazepines (chlordiazepoxide) or Carbamazepine
+ thiamine

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5
Q

Delirium tremens Mx?

A

Oral lorazepam
Parenteral lorazepam or haloperidol

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6
Q

Wernicke’s triad?

A

Confusion
Oculomotor disturbances
Ataxia

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7
Q

Features of Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Untreated Wernicke’s -> Korsakoff syndrome

Memory impairment (anterograde and retrograde)
Behavioural changes
Confabulation

Korsakoff syndrome is irreversible -> Full time carer needed

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8
Q

Stepwise progression of alcohol liver disease?

A
  1. Alcohol related fatty liver
  2. Alcoholic hepatitis
  3. Cirrhosis
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9
Q

Alcohol-related liver disease Ix finidngs?

A
  • FBC – raised MCV
  • LFTS – elevated ALT, AST and raised gGT
  • Clotting – elevated prothrombin time
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10
Q

Ix to assess degree of cirrhosis?

A

Fibroscan

Every 2 years in patients at risk of cirrhosis

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11
Q

Diagnostic test of alcohol-related hepatitis or cirrhosis?

A

Liver biopsy

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12
Q

Px of delirium tremens?

A

Acute confusion
Severe agitation
Delusions and hallucinations
Tremor
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Hyperthermia
Ataxia (difficulties with coordinated movements)
Arrhythmias

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13
Q

What tool is used to score a patient of their withdrawal symptoms and guide mx?

A

CIWA-Ar

Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment – Alcohol revised

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14
Q

Mx of alcohol-related hepatis?

A

Stop drinking alcohol + nutritional support
Mx complications of cirrhosis
Severe alcoholic hepatitis -> steroids

Liver transplant referral but must abstain from alcohol for 3 months prior to referral

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15
Q

Cirrhosis complications? (5)

A

Portal hypertension
Varices
Ascites
Hepatorenal syndrome
Hepatic encephalopathy

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16
Q

Most common causes of liver cirrhosis? (4)

A

Alcoholic liver disease
NAFLD
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C

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17
Q

Investigation findings of cirrhosis?

A

LFTS - if decompensated, all abnormal
Synthetic function - low albumin and high pro-thrombin time = worse-off
U&Es - hyponatraemia

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18
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma monitoring in liver cirrhosis?

A

Every 6 months?
- Alpha-fetoprotein (tumour marker) is measured
- Ultrasound

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19
Q

What scoring systems for cirrhosis?

A

Child-Pugh score - severity of cirrhosis

MELD score - 3 month mortality of cirrhosis (guides liver transplant)

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20
Q

Prophylaxis of variceal haemorrhage?

A

Propranolol
Medium to large varices -> band ligation
TIPSS if other measures unsuccessful

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21
Q

Mx of bleeding varices?

A

ABC
Correct clotting - VitK & fresh frozen plasma

Before endoscopy:
- Vasoactive agents - terlipressin
- Prophylactic IV antibiotics - quinolones

Endoscopic band ligation or sclerosant injection

Uncontrolled -> Sengstaken-Blakemore tube

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22
Q

Mx of cirrhosis -> ascites?

A

Low sodium diet
Anti-aldosterone diuretics - spironolactone
Paracentesis - ascitic tap or ascitic drain

Prophylactic antibiotics against spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin) in patients with less than 15g/litre of protein in the ascitic fluid

If refractory ascites -> consider TIPs or transplant

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23
Q

Px of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Fever
Abdo pain
Deranged bloods
Ileus
Hypotension

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24
Q

Most common causative agent of SBP?

A

E. coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
GM+ve coccit

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25
Q

Mx of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Ascitic culture
Cefotaxime

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26
Q

What is hepatorenal syndrome?

A

When Cirrhosis -> portal hypertension -> dilatation of portal blood vessels

This leads to blood being moved away from other areas of the body such as the kidneys -> rapidly deteriorating kidney function

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27
Q

What is hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Liver doesn’t metabolise toxins properly -> build-up of toxin

(especially ammonia)

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28
Q

Mx of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Laxatives - increase excretion of ammonia
Antibiotics (rifamixin)
Nutritional support

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29
Q

NAFLD stages?

A
  1. Non-alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease
  2. Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH)
  3. Fibrosis
  4. Cirrhosis
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30
Q

Ix for hepatic steatosis?

A

Liver ultrasound

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31
Q

Ix for assessing liver fibrosis?

A
  1. Enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF)
  2. NAFLD fibrosis score
  3. Fibroscan
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32
Q

Mx for NAFLD?

A

Lifestyle
Vitamin E
Pioglitazone

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33
Q

Mx of hepatitis A?

A

Supportive with analgesia

Resolves in 1-3 months

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34
Q

Hepatitis A spread?

A

Faecal-oral route

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35
Q

Hepatitis B spread?

A

Direct contact with blood or bodily fluids
- PWID, tattoos

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36
Q

What doe antibodies HBsAg, HBcAG, HBsAb mean?

A

HBsAg - active infection
HBcAb - past or current infection
HBsAb - implies vaccination or past or current infection

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37
Q

IgM and IgG of HBcAb indicate?

A

IgM implies active infection
- High titre indicates acute infection
- Low titre indicates chronic infection

IgG indicates a past infection

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38
Q

What does HBeAg indicate?

A

HBeAg is a marker of viral replication and implies high infectivity

Higher HBeAg = Greater infectivity

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39
Q

Hepatitis C spread?

A

Spread by blood and bodily fluids

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40
Q

What hepatitis is an RNA virus and DNA virus?

A

Hepatitis B is a DNA virus
Hepatitis C is an RNA virus

41
Q

Ix for Hep C?

A

Screening - hepatitis C antibody
Diagnositc - hepatitis C RNA testing

42
Q

Ix of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Antibodies

Type 1:
- ANA
- Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (anti-actin)
- Anti-soluble liver antigen

Type 2:
- Anti-liver kidney microsomes-1 (anti-LKM1)
- Anti-liver cytosol antigen type 1 (anti-LC1)

Dx - liver biopsy

43
Q

Mx of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

High dose steroids (prednisolone) followed by azathioprine

44
Q

What is haemochromatosis?

A

Iron storage disorder -> excess rotal body iron and deposition of iron in tissues

45
Q

Px of haemochromatosis?

A

Typically over 40y

Chronic tiredness
Joint pain
Pigmentation
Hair loss
Erectile dysfunction / amenorrhoea
Cognitive symptoms

46
Q

Dx of haemochromatosis?

A
  1. High serum ferritin and high transferrin

Dx - Genetic testing

47
Q

Mx of haemochromatosis?

A

Venesection

+ monitoring serum ferritin & avoid alcohol

48
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

Excessive accumulation of copper in the body and tissues

49
Q

Inheritance of haemochromatosis and Wilson’s disease?

A

Autosomal recessive

50
Q

Px of Wilson’s disease?

A

Hepatic - chronic hepatitis -> cirrhosis
Neurological - dysarthia, dystonia, parkinsonism
- Asymmetrical motor symptoms
Psychiatric - depression, psychosis

51
Q

Kayser-fleischer rings a sign of?

A

Wilson disease

52
Q

Dx of Wilson’s disease?

A

Ix - serum caeruloplasmin

Low suggests wilson’s disease

Dx - liver biopsy or 24-hour urine copper assay

53
Q

Mx of Wilson’s disease?

A

Penicillamine
Trientene

54
Q

Px of alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Liver cirrhosis after 50y
Bronchiectasis and emphysema in lungs after 30y

55
Q

Ix of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Screening - low serum-alpha-1-antitrypsin

Liver biopsy shows cirrhosis and acid-Schiff-positive staining globules in hepatocytes

56
Q

What is PBC and PSC?

A

PBC - small intrahepatic ducts
PSC - medium to large extrahepatic and intrahepatic ducts

57
Q

PBC or PSC correlated with IBD?

58
Q

Bloods & Autoantibodies associated with PBC?

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Anti-nuclear antibodies (35%)

ESR and IgM raised

59
Q

Mx of PBC?

A

For pruritis:
- Ursodeoxycholic acid
- Colestryamine

Consider immunosuppression and transplant

60
Q

Autoantibodies associated with PSC?

A

p-ANCA (94%)
ANA (77%&
Anticardiolipin antibodies (aCL) in up to 63%

61
Q

Dx of PSC?

62
Q

Mx of PSC?

A

ERCP to dilate and stent bile ducts
Pruritis -> consider colestramine

Consider liver transplant

63
Q

What is MRCP and ERCP?

A

MRCP - MRI scan of lover, bile ducts and pancreas

ERCP - endoscopy + x-rays & contrast to identify abnormalities

64
Q

Px of PSC & PBC?

A

PSC:
Jaundice
Chronic right upper quadrant pain
Pruritus
Fatigue
Hepatomegaly

PBC specific - Xanthoma and xanthelasma
- Raised papules or bumps on trunks, arms or legs (skin coloured, pink or yellow)

65
Q

Types of liver cancer?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma (80%)
Cholangiocarcinoma (20%)
Metastatic liver cancer

66
Q

CA19-9 a tumour marker for?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

67
Q

Alpha-fetoprotein a tumour marker for?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

68
Q

Mx of hepatocellular carcnioma?

A

Resection
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors - sorafenic, regorafenib and lenvatinib

Resistant to chemotherapy + radiotherapy

69
Q

What is a haemangioma?

A

Common benign tumour of the liver

70
Q

What is focual nodular hyperplasia?

A

Benign liver tumour made of fibrotic tissue
- Asymptomatic and no malignant potential
- Related to oestrogen

71
Q

Most common causes of acute liver failure?

A

Acute viral hepatitis
Paracetamol overdose

72
Q

What is the cell-makeup of the oesophagus and the stomach?

A

Oesophagus - squamous

Stomach - columnar

73
Q

Red flags for endoscopy?

A

Dysphagia
Aged over 55 (urgent > routine referrals)
Weight loss
Upper abdominal pain / reflux
Treatment resistant dyspepsia
Nausea and vomiting
Low haemoglobin
Raised platelet count

-> 2 week referral

74
Q

Mx of GORD?

A
  1. Lifestyle + acid neutralising mx (gaviscon, rennie)
  2. PPI - omeprazole, lansoprazole
  3. Ranitidine (H2 receptor antagonist)
75
Q

What kind of bacteria is H. Pylori?

A

Gram negative aerobic bacteria

76
Q

Test for H.pyloria?

A

Urea breath test
Stool antigen test

During endoscopy -> rapid urease test

77
Q

Mx of H. Pylori?

A

PPI + 2 antibiotics (amoxicillin & clarithromycin) for 7 days

78
Q

What is Barrett’s Oesophagus?

A

Metaplasia from squamous to columnar epithelium in lower oesophageal epithelium

79
Q

How does eating affect gastric and duodenal ulcers?

A

Eating;
- Worsens pain from gastric ulcers
- Improves pain from duodenal ulcers

80
Q

Mx of peptic ulcer?

A

Endoscopy + rapid urease test - exclude malignancy

Mx - PPI

81
Q

What is pyloric stenosis?

A

Narrow pylorus causing difficulty in emptying stomach content

Can be a complication of peptic ulcer -> strictures

82
Q

Crohn’s mnemonic?

A

NESTS

N – No blood or mucus (less common)

E – Entire GI tract

S – “Skip lesions” on endoscopy

T – Terminal ileum most affected and Transmural (full thickness) inflammation

S – Smoking is a risk factor (don’t set the nest on fire)

83
Q

Ulcerative colitis mnemonic?

A

CLOSEUP

C – Continuous inflammation

L – Limited to colon and rectum

O – Only superficial mucosa affected

S – Smoking is protective

E – Excrete blood and mucus

U – Use aminosalicylates

P – Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

84
Q

Screening test for IBD?

A

Faecal calprotectin

85
Q

Dx of IBD?

A

Endoscopy (OGD and colonoscopy) with biopsy

86
Q

IBD associaitons?

A

Crohn’s - Wight loss, strictures, fistulas

UC - PSC

87
Q

Mx of Crohn’s?

A

Induce remission - steroids

Maintain remission - Azathioprine or Mercaptopurine

Only distal ileum affected -> consider surgery

88
Q

Mx of inducing remission in UC?

A

Mild-moderate:
1. Aminosalicylate (PR or Oral Mesalazine)
2. Prednisolone

Severe disease:
1. IV corticosteroids
2. IV Ciclosporin

89
Q

Mx of maintaining remission of UC?

A

Aminosalicylate (mesalazine oral or rectal)

Alternatives:
- Azathioprine
- Mercaptopurine

90
Q

Surgery option for UC?

A

Panproctocolectomy
->
Ileostomy
J-Pouch

91
Q

When to consider IBS?

A

> 6 months of:
A - Abdominal pain
B - Bloating
C - Change in bowel habit

92
Q

Lifestyle advice of IBS?

A

Adequate fluid intake
Regular small meals
Reduced processed foods
Limit caffeine and alcohol
Low “FODMAP” diet (ideally with dietician guidance)
Trial of probiotic supplements for 4 weeks

93
Q

Initial Mx of IBS?

A

Diarrhoea -> Loperamide

Constipation -> Laxatives but avoid lactulose

Pain (cramps) -> anti-spasmodic (hyoscine butylbromide - Buscopan)

94
Q

2nd and 3rd line Mx of IBS?

A
  1. Tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline)
  2. SSRIs

+/- CBT

95
Q

Dx of IBS?

A

Abdo pain:
- Relieved by defecation
- Associated with altered bowel habit

+ 2 of:
- Altered stool passage
- Bloating
- PR mucus
- Worse symptoms after eating

96
Q

Anti-bodies in Coeliac disease?

A

Anti-TTG

Anti-endomysial (Anti-EMA)

97
Q

Where does coeliac affects?

A

Small bowel, particularly jejunum

98
Q

Ix of Coeliac disease?

A

Total IgA + anti-TTG + anti-EMA

99
Q

What does endoscopy of Coeliac disease show?

A

Crypt hypertrophy
Villous atrophy