Question of the day 2 Flashcards
What profile would you expect in a dog with hypervitaminosis D?
A) Low Ca, High P
B) High Ca, Low P
C) High Ca, High P
D) Low Ca, Low P
C) High Ca, High P
Excessive intake of vitamin D is associated with an increase in 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels. At high levels, 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 competes with 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 for its receptors on the intestines and bone causing increased absorption of Ca and P from the intestinal tract and resorption of bone causing increased levels of circulating Ca and P. A common source of confusion is that this is in contrast to PTH which causes high Ca but generally causes unchanged or normal phosphorus because it also enhances renal phosphorus excretion.
Which one of the following sets of conditions predispose a cow to metritis?
A - Agalactia, milk fever, bovine vibriosis
B - Contaminated calving environment, abortion, hypomagnesemia
C - Milk fever, malnutrition, excess dietary zinc
D - Strep. agalactiae mastitis, retained placenta, laminitis
E - Dystocia, overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed
E) Dystocia, overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed
You need to perform a CBC and take thoracic radiographs on a somewhat fractious cat. You sedate the cat with an intramuscular injection of medetomidine. While on the X-ray table, you become concerned that the cat is not doing well and you decide you want to reverse the effects of medetomidine. What should you give the cat?
A) Atropine
B) Atipamezole
C) Flumazenil
D) 2-pralidoxime
E) Xylazine
B) Atipamezole
Atipamezole (trade name: Antisedan), an alpha-2 antagonist, is the reversal agent for medetomidine (trade name: Dormitor). Medetomidine is an alpha-2 agonist.
Xylazine would be another example of an alpha-2 agonist. Yohimbine is its reversal agent. Other alpha-2 agonists are clonidine, detomidine, dexmedetomidine and romifidine
2-pralidoxime is a reversal agent for cholinesterase inhibitors.
Flumazenil is a reversal agent for benzodiazepines
Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist of acetylcholine and may be dangerous to use after administration of alpha-2 agonists. This is because alpha-2 agonists cause marked vasoconstriction and high afterload on the heart. Giving atropine and increasing the heart rate can place further stress on the heart. You do not want to set in motion peripheral vasoconstriction and compensatory bradycardia brought on by the alpha-2, then increase the heart rate against that high afterload. This could make for an unhappy heart in the event underlying subclinical heart disease is present.
A six-year-old female spayed cocker spaniel is presented with a two-day history of lethargy. Upon physical exam, mucosal petechiae and ecchymoses and an ocular hemorrhage in the right eye are noted.
Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) testing are normal. A buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT) is performed and is prolonged. Click the labwork icon to review hematology, blood chemistry, and urinalysis test results.
Which one of the following diseases is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
B - Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
C - Hepatic insufficiency
D - Von Willebrand’s disease
E - Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
E)
A 16-year old budgerigar presents with progressive unilateral paresis of the right leg (see image). There is normal flexion and extension of the hip joint with decreased flexion, extension, and sensation below the knee. The remainder of your skeletal and neurologic examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is most likely in this bird?
A) Marek’s disease
B) Renal neoplasia
C) Intervertebral disc disease
D) Botulism
E) Lead toxicosis
B) renal neoplasia
The signalment and progressive unilateral paresis are most suspicious for renal neoplasia of budgerigars. Affected birds develop paresis due to pressure exerted on the sciatic nerve by a renal tumor. There is typically normal flexion and extension of the hip joint with decreased flexion, extension, and sensation below the knee as described here.
Disc disease is uncommon in birds. Lead toxicity can lead to peripheral neuropathy and paresis but typically there are more multifocal or other accompanying signs such as polyuria/polydipsia, gastrointestinal signs, wing droop, head tilt, or convulsions. Marek’s disease typically affects younger animals. Botulism typically presents with flaccid paralysis of the legs, wings, and neck.
A budgerigar is showing signs of squamous metaplasia of the oral mucosa, conjunctiva, and upper airways. It has developed associated bacterial sinusitis (see image). In a pet bird, what are these clinical signs most suggestive of?
A) Hypovitaminosis A
B) Hypervitaminosis D
C) Hypovitaminosis D
D) Iodine deficiency
E) Hypocalcemia
Hypovitaminosis A
The correct answer is hypovitaminosis A. The functions of vitamin A are related to epithelial maintenance, vision, and skeletal development. In birds, problems with the skeleton or vision are rarely seen with vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A deficiency can manifest as squamous metaplasia of the oral mucous membranes or glands. Glands may be entirely converted to squamous epithelium with keratin material and can look like abscesses or pustules but are essentially keratin cysts. They should be differentiated from lesions of pox, Candida, and Trichomonas. Lesions of the conjunctiva, nasolacrimal duct, upper GI tract, and upper respiratory tract can occur. Presenting signs may include severe dyspnea or respiratory signs.
Pemphigus foliaceus, pemphigus vulgaris, and bullous pemphigoid are examples of which type of immune-mediated disease?
A - Delayed hypersensitivity
B - Type III - Antigen-antibody complexes deposited in tissues
C - Type IV - Antigen triggers cell-mediated cytokine release, activates macrophages and production of cytotoxic T cells
D - Type II - Antibody binds cell antigen and activates complement
E - Type I - Immediate IGE-mediated hypersensitivity
D - Type II - Antibody binds cell antigen and
A 4-year old female spayed Siberian Husky presents for further evaluation as a result of developing crusting and hyperkeratosis around the eyes, nose, and mouth. A skin scraping did not identify an etiology. How would you treat this dog?
A) Daily wiping with chlorhexidine pads
B) Corticosteroids
C) Zinc supplementation
D) Ivermectin treatment
C) Zinc supplementation
Zinc responsive dermatopathy occurs most frequently in the Siberian Husky. Other species such as cattle, goats, and humans have a similar condition. The exact cause is unknown, but it has been linked to defective intestinal absorption of zinc. Lesions may vary in severity. The response is typically seen within days. The key to answering this question appropriately was to recognize the signalment of the patient, the location of the lesions which is characteristic of zinc responsive dermatopathy, and the fact that there was no infectious etiology such as demodex identified.
Severe combined immunodeficiency is a lethal autosomal recessive trait in Arabian foals. Heterozygotes are clinically normal. If the heterozygote carrier rate for the genetic mutation is 8%, what is the expected frequency of Arabian foals that are homozygous for the mutated allele?
0.64%
0.064%
0.16%
25%
2%
4%
0,16%
You do not need to know anything about the disease in this question in order to get the correct answer. You are told that the disease is recessive and has a carrier rate of 8%
Because the trait is recessive, homozygotes will be the only individuals affected. In order for a foal to be born homozygous for the trait, BOTH parents MUST be carriers. The chances of both parents being carriers is 8% x 8% (or 0.08 x 0.08) = 0.0064 or 0.64%. If both parents are carriers, the offspring has a 1 in 4 chance of inheriting two mutant alleles (50% chance for each allele from each parent).
Since the chances of both parents being carriers is 0.64% and the chance of having a homozygous offspring in that case is 1 in 4, the overall expected frequency of diseased foals is 0.0064 x 0.25= 0.0016 or 0.16%.
Which of these drugs should not be used in Greyhounds?
Morphine
Thiopental
Ivermectin
Propofol
Thiopental
The correct answer is thiopental. Thiopental is an ultra-short acting barbiturate. Recovery depends on redistribution to tissues, including fat. Because sighthounds have very little fat, they have prolonged recoveries and greater complications with these drugs.
A sow farm is seeing a sudden onset of diarrhea followed by collapse and death in piglets one to five days of age in the farrowing rooms. Necropsy on one of the piglets finds the lesions shown below.
What should be done next?
A - Prevent neonates from drinking sow’s colostrum
B - Treat affected piglets with antibiotics
C - Tilmicosin IM, all piglets, isolate sick ones
D - Vaccinate dams in middle third of pregnancy with bacterin
E - Treat newborn piglets at birth with type C antitoxin
E - Treat newborn piglets at birth with type C antitoxin
The image shows an infarct in the liver discovered on post mortem exam of a mature beef cow which died one hour before in a western mountain pasture, after being observed to appear normal one day earlier. There is also dark red urine in the bladder. The pasture contains native plants, some pine trees, and a marshy area with water plants. The cows are unvaccinated and were never wormed. Given this history and the lesion found, the most likely cause of death is _________.
A) Pine needle poisoning
B) Blue-green algae toxicity
C) Bacillary hemoglobinuria
D) Death camas toxicity
E) Viral hepatitis
C) Bacillary hemoglobinuria
A 12-year-old Belgian draft horse gelding is presented with severe hyperkeratosis and scaling on the caudal aspects of all four pasterns. The parasite shown below is found on a skin scraping of one of the lesions.
Which one of the following choices is the correct diagnosis?
A - Chorioptic mange
B - Cheyletiellosis
C - Demodecosis
D - Trombiculiasis
E - Sarcoptic dermatitis
A) chorioptic mange
A chicken operation has recently been ravaged by a respiratory disease affecting almost all of the chickens in the flock. The chickens are coughing and sneezing and many have facial swelling. You necropsied many of the chickens and found mucoid exudate in the bronchi, thickened air sacs, and in a few of the chickens, interstitial nephritis was present. Which of these diseases is likely?
A) Aspergillus
B) Infectious bronchitis
C) Infectious bursal disease
D) Fowl cholera
B) infectious bronchitis
The correct answer is infectious bronchitis. This is caused by a coronavirus. It is spread by aerosol and ingestion and usually affects all exposed birds. The clinical signs and necropsy findings are as described in the question. The disease can be clinically indistinguishable from mild forms of Newcastle disease, laryngotracheitis, and infectious coryza. Virus isolation is needed to obtain a definitive diagnosis.
The calf shown below was presented with ataxia, intention tremors, and hypermetria; all signs were present since birth.
The second image shows a normal bovine calf brain on the left and the brain from this calf on the right.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely cause of the disorder in this calf?
A - Copper deficiency
B - Organophosphate toxicity
C - Bovine viral diarrhea virus
D - Border disease
E - Caudal occipital malformation syndrome
C - Bovine viral diarrhea virus
A 4-year old male castrated Basenji presents for polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Blood work shows P=2.5 (2.9-5.3 mg/dl), K= 3.1 (3.9-5.1 mEq/L), total CO2= 12 (17-25 mmol/L). The remainder of the blood work is within normal limits. Urinalysis shows 3+ glucose. Which of the following is your most likely differential diagnosis?
A) Fanconi syndrome
B) Pyometra
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Pyelonephritis
The correct answer is Fanconi syndrome. Fanconi syndrome is an inherited disease in Basenjis. The disease involves renal tubular defects causing an abnormal loss of electrolytes and solutes leading to hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and metabolic acidosis. DM is less likely because serum glucose is normal. The lab abnormalities present in this dog are not consistent with pyelonephritis. Pyometra is not a viable choice as the signalment describes a male.
A 12 week old chicken from a young backyard flock is presented for evaluation because of weight loss, decreased appetite, and diarrhea.
The irises in the affected bird are lighter than normal with irregular pupillary margins, and the hen does not have a normal pupillary light reflex (bottom chicken in image). Several other young birds appear to be growing poorly compared to the rest of the flock.
Based on the presumptive diagnosis, how can this problem be prevented going forward?
A - Buy only vaccinated chicks
B - Cull birds from the same genetic line
C - Collect pharyngeal swabs from affected birds; Antibiotic Tx for entire flock based on culture and sensitivity
D - Isolate unaffected animals; Breed from survivors of disease
E - Use only mycoplasma-resistant bloodlines for new additions to flock
What is the most common cause of maxillary sinusitis in a horse, as seen in the necropsy image below?
Brachygnathia
Guttural pouch mycosis
Foreign body
Tooth root abscess
Dentigerous cyst
The correct answer is tooth root abscess. Commonly the first molar teeth are involved. Clinical signs include weight loss, quidding (dropping half chewed feed), halitosis, swelling, and unilateral purulent nasal discharge.
A 22-year-old Thoroughbred mare is presented for bilateral green nasal discharge, retching, coughing, and inappetence noted after feeding this evening.
The owner recently switched the mare to a pelleted diet because of the mare’s poor dentition.
Physical exam reveals bilateral green nasal discharge. The mucous membranes are pink and moist with a capillary refill time of 1.5 seconds.
A slight swelling is notable in the proximal-left jugular groove just caudal to the vertical ramus of the mandible.
Based on the most likely diagnosis, what initial therapy would be recommended?
Value Normal
100.6 F (38.1 C) 99.1–100.8 F, 37.3–38.2 C
HR=40 bpm 28-40 bpm
R=12 brpm 10-14 brpm
A 5-month old kitten presents to you with a rectal prolapse, as shown in the photo. What is the most common cause of rectal prolapse in a kitten?
Panleukopenia
Gastrointestinal parasites
Trauma
Dysautonomia
The correct answer is gastrointestinal parasites. You should perform a fecal float and smear. This cat probably has severe diarrhea and has been straining. Dysautonomia is possible but very rare. Panleukopenia does not usually result in a rectal prolapse, but is a cause of diarrhea.
A 12-year-old male neutered West Highland White terrier is presented after he disappeared from home for six hours and returned with a left hind limb lameness.
Pelvic radiographs taken on presentation are shown below.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A - Femoral head and neck excision
B - Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication and rest
C - Tibial tubercle transposition and Robert-Jones bandage
D - Triple pelvic osteotomy
E - Closed reduction and Ehmer sling
A couple of days ago a client brought an 18-month-old filly home from a “kill pen” (was headed for Mexico for slaughter). She just sent you photos of the horse showing thick bilateral mucopurulent nasal discharge and a swollen throat latch. She says that the horse’s breathing is stertorous and loud.
You are on your way to see the horse, thinking you will need to do an emergency tracheotomy first thing.
What are additional preliminary recommendations based on the top differential?
A - Start antimicrobials; limit iodine intake and measure thyroid levels for goiter
B - Will need to biopsy the mass if owner wants to proceed with chemotherapy
C - Refer for laser ablation treatment for guttural pouch tympany
D - Quarantine the horse; take temps on all other horses
E - Pass a nasogastric tube to treat esophageal obstruction
The viscera from a group of 100 kg pigs are presented at a slaughter facility. The pigs were raised in a semi-outdoor management farm system with groups of 30-100 kg pigs kept on the same site. At slaughter, multifocal fibrotic lesions are seen in their livers and noticeable nematodes are present within the small intestine. You perform a fecal flotation on a fresh sample from the younger pigs. The results are shown in the image below. What treatment or management recommendation is most appropriate for this problem?
Monthly administration of ivermectin
Disinfect the pasture
Examine the food sources of the pigs
Depopulate and replace the herd
Quarterly treatment with praziquantel
Ascaris suum = oeufs avec ÉPAISSE paroi
The findings at slaughter are consistent with an infection of Ascaris suum. This is the roundworm of pigs. These worms can cause intestinal obstruction in large infestations. They can also migrate into the bile ducts and liver, causing the fibrotic liver lesions described in this case.
Antemortem diagnosis is made by fecal flotation and clinical signs. Treatment options are wide and include ivermectin, fenbendazole, pyrantel, levamisole and other ascaracides.
Endemically infected farms should employ on-going medication programs with routine benzimidazoles or ivermectins. Medication is aimed at prevention of mature intestinal infections by medicating finisher pigs at monthly intervals. In outdoor pig systems, careful attention must be paid to stock management, with field rotations, light stocking densities and regular anthelmintic treatment. Clearing sites of ascarid eggs is not practical unless floor surfaces can be flame treated. Ascaris suum eggs have thick coats and are highly stable and infectious in outdoor environments for several years.
Praziquantel is used to treat tapeworm infections but is not effective against roundworms.
Several 12-month-old sheep and goats are sick at a petting zoo that has cows, horses, pigs, bison, and white-tailed deer. One of the deer is also affected. The rest of the animals appear well.
Affected sheep are febrile, listless and off-feed, with serous or mucopurulent nasal discharge and rectal temperatures ranging from 105-107.5°F (40.5-42°C) [N=100.9–103.8°F (38.3–39.9°C)].
Physical exam shows swollen muzzles with edema and congestion of the lips, nose, and face with small hemorrhages and ulcers on the mucous membranes. The ulcers appear where the teeth contact the swollen lips and tongue.
Two affected animals are lame.
What is the diagnosis?
A - Bluetongue
B - Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)
C - Caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE)
D - Contagious ecthyma
E - Peste des petits ruminants (PPR)
A four-month-old Jack Russell terrier puppy was playing outdoors. Later that evening the owner noticed that the puppy was wheezing and coughing.
Based on the radiographs, what would be the best step to take next?
A - Trans-tracheal wash
B - Barium swallow
C - Edrophonium challenge test
D - Bronchoscopy
E - Dental prophylaxis
A 13-week-old puppy is presented for trauma after being attacked by another dog.
After stabilization, a series of radiographs show various issues (see below).
Which one of the following choices is the best next step to do for this patient?
A - Thoracocentesis and chest tube
B - Place an intravenous catheter and start IV fluids
C - Computerized tomography
D - Suture lacerations and insert drains
E - Aspirate subcutaneous emphysema and apply snug body wrap
A young cat with a pot belly and dull coat has vomited up a hairball that contains a large tapeworm and many smaller worms (shown up close in the second picture below).
What are the smaller parasites?
A - Trichuris vulpis
B - Ancylostoma tubaeforme
C - Spirocerca lupi
D - Toxocara cati
E - Strongyloides stercoralis
You have diagnosed nitrate poisoning in a group of yearling cattle which were grazing Sudan grass (see photo). Which of the following is the most effective treatment?
Vitamin B12
Calcium gluconate
Sodium thiosulfate
Digitalis
Methylene blue
Nitrate toxicosis causes methemoglobinemia, in which the blood appears chocolate brown. As a result, the oxygen carrying capacity and delivery is greatly reduced and the animal may die. Methylene blue is usually administered IV as a 1% to 4% solution, with a total dose of 4 to 15 mg/kg body weight to cattle, for treating nitrate toxicosis.
Nitrates are found in high levels in many plants and some water sources. The nitrate is converted in the rumen to nitrite and then absorbed into the blood, which causes oxidation of the heme iron to the +3 ferric state (called methemoglobin). Methylene blue restores the iron in hemoglobin to its normal (reduced) oxygen-carrying state. This is achieved by providing an artificial electron acceptor for NADPH methemoglobin reductase (RBCs usually don’t have one; the presence of methylene blue allows the enzyme to function at normal levels). The NADPH is generated via the hexose monophosphate shunt.
A 3-year old Thoroughbred presents for evaluation after pulling up late in a recent race. You perform an ECG, which is shown below. What is the rhythm?
Atrial fibrillation
Normal sinus rhythm
Ventricular premature complexes
Atrial tachycardia
Ventricular tachycardia
The correct answer is atrial fibrillation. The baseline shows coarse fibrillatory waves and the rhythm is irregular. For a base-apex lead in the horse, the deep S waves of the QRS complexes are normal. The other answers are incorrect because of the presence of flutter/fibrillatory waves and irregularity of the rhythm.
*irrégulièrement irrégulier
*trémulations de la ligne de base
*QRS normaux
Which of the following nerves are targeted with a paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow?
A - L1-3, and S1-5
B - L1, L2, and L4
C - L2, L3, S1, and S2
D - L1, L2, L3
E - T13, L1, and L2
T3, L1, L2 => pour désensibiliser le flanc d’une vache
On a cold winter day in the Northeastern U.S., a lactating dairy cow is examined for pruritus and crusts around the perineum.
A skin scrape shows some kind of mite with long legs and short unsegmented pedicles.
What should be done next?
A - Slaughter
B - Amitraz SQ
C - Pour-on eprinomectin
D - Topical furazolidone
E - Quarantine animal
gale du périnée = gale chorioptique!
A 10-year-old male Pomeranian presents to you with a 3-month history of wheezing and marked respiratory distress. The owner reports that he has been coughing sporadically as if trying to clear his throat of a hairball. The owner is a regular smoker. On your examination, the dog displays moderate expiratory difficulty. You submit blood work and take radiographs including inspiratory and expiratory lateral projections of the dog, which are shown below. Which of the following are commonly used to treat the likely condition?
a) Meloxicam and fluconazole
b) Amoxicillin, nebulization, and coupage
c) Butorphanol and theophylline
d) Furosemide and prednisone
e) Surgical repair of the defect
The radiographs show dynamic collapse of the intrathoracic trachea, carina, and mainstem bronchi. There is a marked redundant tracheal membrane in the cervical region. The left atrium may be slightly enlarged but there is no evidence of left heart failure. Based on these findings, you should suspect that tracheal collapse is the cause of the dog’s clinical signs.
Treatment options include bronchodilators (i.e. theophylline, terbutaline), cough suppressants (hydrocodone, butorphanol), weight loss, and corticosteroids to control inflammation. In severely affected dogs, sedation may be necessary to break the cough cycle. Dogs should be kept away from smoke and environmental pollution. About 70% of dogs respond to medical management. Those that don’t are sometimes treated with stents or tracheal rings, but neither repairs the underlying cartilaginous defect.
Furosemide is not an appropriate treatment as there is no evidence of heart failure. Nebulization and coupage are used to treat pneumonia, which is also not present in this case.
Annotations:
Red is the tracheal diameter, much more narrowed on the Right lat
Green is a redundant tracheal membrane visible on the left lateral
Yellow are primary bronchi for the right cranial lung lobe (left lateral), and cranial subsegment of the left cranial lung lobe (right lateral). Notice the large difference in diameter. Tracheomalacia, bronchomalacia and redundant tracheal membrane.
Blue: there is significant narrowing of the tracheal bifurcation on the right lateral compared to left. Indicative of dynamic airway collapse.
A 10-year old cat presents with a history of chronic constipation and hasn’t had a bowel movement in several days. The owner says the cat is uncomfortable and breathing heavy when she strains to defecate. T= 102.8 F (39.3 C), P= 220, R= 75. You take radiographs (see image). Which course of treament is most appropriate for this cat?
Surgery
Lactulose and Cisapride
Manual deobstipation
Thoracocentesis
The radiographs show the colon in the thoracic cavity. This finding is consistent with a diaphragmatic hernia. The best course of treatment is surgery to return the abdominal organs back into their appropriate place and close the defect in the diaphragm. Note that the cat has an increased respiratory rate, due to the colon being in the chest.
A three-day-old female alpaca (cria) is presented in respiratory distress.
The cria’s cheeks flare noticeably during inspiration, and the distress is more pronounced during nursing, when the animal gasps and inhales milk.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Choanal atresia
B - Wry face
C - Mitral stenosis
D - Lung lobe torsion
E - Diaphragmatic hernia
A canine vaginal smear is shown below.
At what stage of the estrous cycle is this dog?
A - Estrus
B - Cannot tell from this slide
C - Anestrus
D - Proestrus
E - Diestrus
cornflakes = oestrus
A 6-year old Sun Conure presents for evaluation of a skin lesion. The owner reports that the bird is very sensitive on the wing near the lesion. On your exam, you note an oval swelling involving the feather follicle as seen in the image below. What is the best treatment for feather cysts?
A- No treatment is necessary as feather cysts typically resolve spontaneously
B- Lance and drain the feather cyst, flush with saline
C- Surgical removal of the feather cyst and follicle
D- Squeeze and express the material out of the feather cyst
E- Treat with systemic antibiotics for 4-6 weeks
Feather cysts are the avian equivalent of an ingrown hair. A growing feather is unable to protrude through the skin and curls within the follicle. Since feathers are much larger than hairs, cysts can be quite large and painful. They commonly are found in the primary feathers of the wing. The cysts contain keratinized feather material that can be expressed or excised but commonly recur. Treatment of choice is surgical removal of the involved feather follicle.
A long eared owl with a history of wing amputation is presented with anorexia, lethargy, and ataxia.
Based on the images shown below, which one of the following structures has pathology?
A - Cloaca
B - Coelom
C - Proventriculus
D - Ventriculus
E - Gizzard
You note the abnormality seen on the blood smear below of a dog presenting to you for weakness and fever. What is the likely route that the dog was infected?
Via transmammary route
Via ingestion (fecal-oral)
Via skin penetration
Via inhalation
Via flea vector
Via tick vector
This is a case of Babesia gibsoni. Babesia sp. are protozoa that parasitize erythrocytes, causing anemia. Many different species exist. B. canis and B. gibsoni are two organisms commonly known to infect dogs, both organisms have Ixodid tick vectors. Babesia gibsoni, as seen here, is a small ring shaped parasite. Bites from other dogs during dog fights is also thought to be an important mode of transmission, possibly explaining the increased incidence of the disease in pit bulls and staffordshire terriers.
The following cytology is from a bronchoalveolar lavage in a dog.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Fungal bronchopneumonia
B - Bacterial bronchopneumonia
C - Eosinophilic pneumonitis
D - Actinomyces pneumonia
E - Bacterial contamination
A ten-year-old female spayed Persian cat is presented for evaluation of a bleeding lump. There is a two-cm diameter, firm, solitary, hairless, dome-shaped, ulcerated mass on her left neck just behind the jaw that is bleeding.
Cytology obtained by fine needle aspirate reveals reveals cohesive clusters of large cells with round to oval nuclei that are tightly adherent to each other (see below).
Click the labwork icon to review hematology, blood chemistry and urinalysis test results.
Based on these findings, which choice is the most appropriate treatment option?
A - Wide excision of mass, remove regional lymph node, prednisolone, radiotherapy
B - Surgical removal
C - Immunotherapy, wide margin excision, chemotherapy
D - Cryosurgery, debridement, repeat in 3-5 weeks
E - Debulk, intralesional implant chemotherapy, minimize sun and cigarette smoke exposure
B) surgical removal
A group of dairy calves were fed a home-made grain mix that had a high percentage of cottonseed (photo shows seed and oil). Cottonseed is a good source of protein. A few days after being started on this new grain mix, the calves began having problems including dyspnea, and weakness, followed by death in several calves. What is the toxic principle acting here?
Gossypol
Nicotine
Cyanide
Cardiac glycosides
Tannins
Gossypol is a natural constituent of many types of cotton. It acts as an insecticide and protects the plant. The polyphenol binds to iron in cell constituents. It may cause kidney damage, inhibit dehydrogenase enzymes, and uncouple phosphorylation in the cell. Acute gossypol toxicity in calves can be severe.
A trout fishery reports that many of the fish have gray-white, puffy growths on their fins, gills, and eyes. A direct smear from affected tissues shows the following findings (images below).
What action should you take to address the top differential?
A - Treat with potassium permanganate
B - Administer praziquantel to all the fish
C - Supplement the fish with vitamin C
D - Ask if there is any zinc in the housing
E - Depopulation is the only appropriate measure
A Paint horse mare gives birth to an all white foal (see image). What clinical sign would you expect to see in a foal with lethal white syndrome?
Anhydrosis
Constipation
Ataxia
Regurgitation
constipation!
The correct answer is constipation. Lethal white foals have aganglionosis of the intestines which leads to hypomotility, megacolon, constipation, colic, and death.
A group of yearling stocker cattle on summer pasture are presented for coughing in approximately 30% of the group.
The owner has treated the coughing animals with antibiotics with no response.
When the herd is gathered for examination the coughs worsen and some animals become dyspnic.
Some of the cattle look thin and have rough haircoats.
Necropsy of one animal shows the following.
What is the appropriate action for this herd?
A - Treat the coughing animals with an anthelmintic
B - Do nothing as this is a self-limiting problem
C - Call the state vets office to report a possible foreign animal disease
D - Check for moldy sweet potatoes and Perilla mint
E - Treat the entire group with an anthelmintic
A 6-year old female spayed indoor only domestic medium hair presents with a large raw lesion on its upper left lip. The owner reports the lesion has come and gone over the past few years. Which of these treatments would likely be most helpful?
A- Topical trifluridine and systemic clindamycin
B- Immunosuppressive therapy and a change to a hypoallergenic diet
C- Wide surgical excision and chemotherapy
D- Marginal surgical excision and radiation therapy
B- Immunosuppressive therapy and a change to a hypoallergenic diet
This cat’s image and clinical history of a disappearing and recurring lip ulcer is consistent with an indolent ulcer, part of the eosinophilic granuloma complex. These are mostly found on the upper lip of cats. These lesions can also extend into the oral cavity and can be found at the tongue base or hard palate. Typical treatment involves high doses of corticosteroids and identifying possible underlying allergic disease. Sometimes, antibiotics are indicated if severe infection is present. A hypoallergenic diet can be helpful if food allergy is the cause. Many times, the etiology is unknown but allergy is suspected.
Squamous cell carcinoma is also a differential; however, in a cat that has a lesion that comes and goes, this is much less likely.
Viral infections in cats usually present with upper respiratory and/or ocular signs.
