4 Flashcards
A horse presents to you for chronic, recurrent laminitis and skin disease. You notice on your exam that the horse has a particularly thick, long, wavy, and matted coat. The owner mentioned that this developed many months ago. What is a likely diagnosis?
Hypothyroidism
Pheochromocytoma
Cushing’s disease (Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction)
Diabetes insipidus
The correct answer is Cushing’s disease. The coat condition described is what horses with glucocorticoid excess develop; it is referred to as hirsutism. They will also be predisposed to infections including laminitis and skin diseases such as Dermatophilus. They are also frequently polyuric, polydipsic, and polyphagic.
A ten-year-old male neutered West Highland white terrier is presented with a recent history of polyuria/polydipsia, lethargy, and weight loss.
Physical exam reveals a grade 2/6 systolic heart murmur and mild muscle wasting along the lumbar spine.
Significant lab abnormalities include pancytopenia, hyperglobulinemia, hypercalcemia, and isosthenuria.
Bone marrow cytology is shown below.
What is the diagnosis?
A - Osteosarcoma
B - Systemic lupus erythematosis
C - Babesia canis
D - Aplastic anemia
E - Multiple myeloma
A 10-day old commercial dairy calf has diarrhea that is white in color (see photo). The calf is dehydrated, hypovolemic, weak and unable to stand. T=100F (37.8 C), HR=100, and RR=20. No other abnormalities are found on physical examination. Based on these findings, what is the treatment of choice?
IV fluids with added sodium bicarbonate
IV fluids containing only saline
Oral fluids containing sodium bicarbonate
Oral fluids containing high levels of both sodium and chloride
IV fluids containing 50 meq/L of potassium
This calf is typical of those suffering from nonspecific calf diarrhea, most often associated with enteropathogenic E coli, rotavirus, or cryptosporidium. The calf develops hypovolemia and metabolic acidosis and requires sodium-containing IV fluids which contain additional alkali such as sodium bicarbonate. One can assess that the calf is severely acidotic given that it is lethargic and unable to stand. While oral fluids may also be useful, at this stage, the calf will require IV fluids.
A client presents a 25-pound dog (11.4 kg) who was just observed swallowing a bottle cap.
Which one of the following choices would be the safest approach for this dog.
A - Administer motility modifiers to encourage passage
B - Remove via endoscopy
C - Administer a proton pump inhibitor to stimulate gastric acid secretion
D - Administer silicon coated magnet to keep it in stomach until dissolution
E - Remove via gastrotomy
During your examination of an 18-year old horse, you observe what is shown in the photograph. Based on the location and appearance of this lesion, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Habronema
Squamous cell carcinoma
Melanoma
Cuterebra
Sarcoid
The correct answer is melanoma. Melanoma is one of the most common tumors in horses (about 10% of all neoplasms) and gray horses are at high risk of around 80%. They can occur anywhere but appear most frequently in the perineal region or ventral tail as is evident in this horse.
In horses, they are usually darkly pigmented (as opposed to dogs where amelanotic melanomas occur somewhat commonly). In horses, most are slowly growing but can be locally invasive. Many treatments are out there, but there is no standard of care treatment. Depending on location and extent, consider surgical removal, benign neglect, chemotherapy (systemic or intralesional) and immunotherapy.
A dead goat is presented to a veterinarian in the Caribbean.
The farmer reports that the goat hadn’t been eating well yesterday, then this morning was breathing hard and walking with a strange high-stepping gait.
She eventually went down and started paddling with her head twisted back just before death.
Necropsy reveals the following finding (blue arrow) adjacent to the heart:
He is worried about his other goats.
What vector is responsible for transmitting the infectious agent most likely responsible for this goat’s condition?
A - Musca autumnalis (the face fly)
B - Amblyomma spp. ticks
C - Dermacentor spp. ticks
D - Tabanids (e.g., the horse fly)
E - Damalinia caprae lice
A client calls and says her cat was chewing on her lily plant two days ago and is now acting very sick. You tell her to bring the cat in immediately so that you can perform which of the following?
Abdominal radiographs to diagnose intestinal obstruction
BUN and creatinine levels
ALT, AST, GGT, and total bilirubin levels
Induce emesis and administer activated charcoal
Lily plant toxicosis is extremely serious and can cause rapid and fatal acute renal failure in cats. If ingestion is suspected, decontamination and aggressive fluid therapy, and monitoring of renal values are recommended immediately.
In this case, since 2 days have passed, inducing emesis and administering activated charcoal would not be helpful. What you can do is check renal values (BUN and creatinine) and treat for acute renal failure.
Ruling out an intestinal obstruction in a cat with this history is reasonable but not the best of the choices given.
A five-year-old female spayed Australian shepherd is presented for poor appetite and lethargy.
Bloodwork reveals hypercalcemia. Urinalysis is normal. Abdominal ultrasonography is unremarkable. Thoracic radiographs are shown below.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Metastatic lung disease
B - Mediastinal lymphoma
C - Hypertrophic osteopathy
D - Hepatic parathyroid hormone-related protein releasing tumor
E - Idiopathic hypercalcemia
Rubiosis iridis as seen in this cat is a sign of what process in the eye?
Iris atrophy
Glaucoma
Lens luxation
Chorioretinitis
Anterior uveitis
The correct answer is anterior uveitis. Rubiosis iridis along with other signs such as aqueous flare, hyphema, hypopyon, keratic precipitates, and decreased intraocular pressure are all suggestive of anterior uveitis which can be caused by a number of infectious, immune-mediated, traumatic, and idiopathic causes.
Where is the location of the main lesion in this cat?
A - Lung parenchyma
B - Pulmonary vessels
C - Mediastinum
D - Trachea and mainstem bronchi
E - Rib and body wall
A 2-year old female DSH cat presents for weight loss, anorexia, dyspnea, and lethargy. She was previously treated with antibiotics but is still febrile on physical exam. You detect pleural effusion and notice that the abdomen is distended. On CBC there is a non-regenerative anemia, neutrophilia, and lymphopenia. On chemistry there is hyperproteinemia and a slight elevation in liver enzymes. What is your primary differential?
Feline calicivirus
Feline infectious peritonitis
Feline immunodeficiency virus
Feline leukemia virus
The correct answer is FIP. This poor cat is infected with the dreaded wet form of feline infectious peritonitis. Good job if you nailed it!
If you think about the pathogenesis of the virus, then these clinical signs make a lot of sense. With FIP, the classical lesion is pyogranulomatous vasculitis due to antigen-antibody complexes depositing in the venular endothelium, which results in pleural and peritoneal effusion. The CBC findings are common for FIP but not too specific. In greater than 50% of cats with the wet form of FIP, there will be hyperproteinemia. In greater than 70% of cats with the dry form of FIP there is hyperproteinemia.
At what location can palpation and visualization confirm proper nasogastric tube placement in the horse?
A - Oropharynx
B - Right jugular groove
C - Larynx
D - It is not possible to confirm this way
E - Left side of the neck
A male goat presents for vocalizing and straining to urinate. He has been kicking at his abdomen. You detect crystals adherent to the hairs around the prepuce (see image). What condition should you suspect and try to rule out first?
Urinary tract obstruction
Lower intestinal obstruction
Acute severe pyelonephritis
Upper intestinal obstruction
The correct answer is urinary tract obstruction due to calculi. This should be suspected in all male and castrated male goats (and sheep) with non-specific signs of disease or discomfort because it is so common. Common clinical signs associated with urinary tract obstruction are vocalization and dribbling of urine. Heaving or forceful abdominal contractions may be seen. Hematuria, dysuria, prolonged urination, and apparent abdominal pain are also common signs. The most important step of evaluation is exteriorization of the penis and examination of the urethral process because this is the most common site of blockage. In severe cases the entire urethra may be filled with calculi.
A ten-year-old male neutered Irish setter is presented with an acute onset of severe abdominal distension, non-productive retching, and collapse. Physical exam reveals a tense, distended abdomen.
A right lateral abdominal radiograph is shown below.
Bloodwork reveals prerenal azotemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, increased serum ALT and AST levels, and hyperlactatemia of 4.5 mmol/L [normal is < 2 mmol/L].
Which choice is the best message to communicate to the owner about next steps to take in light of these findings?
A - Dog will need a splenectomy but not gastropexy
B - The prognosis is poor, and humane euthanasia may be the best course
C - Gastric decompression via stomach tube will resolve abnormality
D - Abdominocentesis is necessary to address hemoabdomen
E - Good prognosis for survival with surgery
Which of these is the most common cause of seizures in the adult ferret?
Hypoglycemia
Hepatic encephalopathy
Intracranial neoplasia
Hypocalcemia
Idiopathic epilepsy
The correct answer is hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia secondary to insulinoma is the most common cause of seizures in the adult ferret. Keep in mind, a prolonged seizure can actually cause hypoglycemia, so the finding of low blood glucose in a seizuring ferret does not necessarily confirm a diagnosis of insulinoma. Idiopathic epilepsy has not been reported in ferrets. Hypocalcemia and hepatic encephalopathy can cause seizures, but are not as commonly reported as hypoglycemia.
What kind of organism causes equine granulocytic anaplasmosis?
A - Protozoa
B - Ehrlichia
C - Chlamydia
D - Spirochete
E - Anaplasma
anaplasma
A 4-year old female spayed mixed Chihuahua presented to the emergency service at approximately 5am this morning after presumptively being attacked by a coyote. The patient has a flail chest and it is questionable if there is direct communication between the thoracic cavity and the environment (it was difficult to examine the dog due to her fractious nature). Exploration of the wound was performed, and once anesthetized, it was apparent she had a pneumothorax. The patient must be ventilated, as there is no vacuum present in the chest for lung expansion to occur. What pressure should the anesthetist not exceed if manually bagging the patient during anesthesia?
24cm H2O
12cm H2O
8cm H2O
20cm H2O
Pressures above 20cm H20 may result in barotrauma. In an otherwise healthy patient it is not recommended to exceed this pressure. In patients with chronic atelectasis, anesthetists will be much more apprehensive about over ventilating or ventilating the lungs too quickly, as acute expansion can trigger re-expansion pulmonary edema, which may then lead to acute respiratory distress syndrome and death.
An eight-year-old female spayed Boston terrier is presented with a solitary well-circumscribed mass two-cm in diameter on the left hip area, shown below. The owner reports that the mass occasionally appeared inflamed, and that the dog has a history of allergies.
A fine needle aspirate of the mass stained with Diff-Quik is shown below.
Based on the clinical presentation, cytological findings, and presumptive diagnosis, the owner opts for surgical resection.
What pre-operative treatment is indicated?
A- bacteriocidal beta-lactam antibiotics ; calcium channel blocker (vasodilatator)
B- H1 histamine bloquer (diphenhydramine) ; corticosteroids
C- no pre-operative treatment is indicated
D- AINS analgesics ; H2 histamine bloquer
E- adrenergic agonist (epinephrine) ; bronchodilator (aminophylline, theophylline)
A 4-year old male neutered Pit Bull mix comes in to your clinic because his owner thinks he might have gotten into rodenticide while she was out of the house 2 hours ago but is not sure. You send her to bring back the box of rodenticide and induce emesis by administering subconjunctival apomorphine. Within 5 minutes, the dog vomits the material shown in the image below. You rinse out the conjunctiva and administer oral activated charcoal. The owner returns with a box of rodenticide that says brodifacoum. What should you recommend?
Treat the dog with vitamin K1 for 6 weeks
Check serum calcium levels today and once weekly for 6 weeks
Hospitalize the dog for 24 hours to monitor and treat potential neurologic signs
No additional treatment or monitoring is needed
Treat the dog with vitamin E and selenium
The bright green vomit confirms the owner’s suspicion of rodenticide ingestion because many rat poisons contain a bright green dye. Dogs that ingest these products may have bright green vomit or stool. Brodifacoum is a vitamin K antagonist commonly used in rodenticides. Ingestion of this compound causes hemorrhaging after several days due to a lack of production of new clotting factors. Treatment for this condition requires vitamin K1 administration for 4-6 weeks.
A 6-month old feedlot steer, which entered the feedlot 4 weeks ago, has lost weight and is now showing an enlarged left flank as shown in the image below. On exam, you find the left side of the abdomen to be gas-filled under moderate pressure, and the rumen to be otherwise poorly filled and with poor motility. Based on percussion and auscultation, the animal also appears to have chronic bronchopneumonia. What is the most likely cause of the rumen malfunction?
Cecal dilation
Free gas bloat, failure to eructate
Type 3 vagal indigestion
Left displaced abomasum
Frothy bloat
This is sometimes called Type 1 vagal indigestion, or free gas bloat. It is frequently associated with swollen mediastinal lymph nodes caused by pneumonia. The signals to or from dorsal rumen receptors, which detect gas pressure and open the cardia, are compromised such that eructation does not occur normally and free gas bloat occurs. This in turn causes the calf to feel full and it eats poorly and loses weight. One needs to treat the pneumonia and perhaps create a temporary rumen fistula to allow the escape of gas until eructation returns to normal.
A farmer recently purchased a sheep from a salebarn. The sheep soon became ill, with progressive depression, lethargy, and inappetance.
He had respiratory problems, breathing hard with abdominal effort, and died after three days with a frothy nasal discharge just prior to death.
At necropsy, the lungs had the appearance shown below.
What was the most likely cause of death?
A- Mannheimia haemolytica
B- Perilla frutescens
C- Ovine progressive pneumonia
D- Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
E- Dictyocaulus filaria
What do the blue arrows indicate in the lower incisors of this horse?
A- Cavities
B- Stars
C- Cups
D- Galvanyne’s groove
E- Equine odontoclastic tooth resorption and hypercementosis (EOTRH)
A horse is suspected of having the muscle disease rhabdomyolysis, and you are seeking a laboratory test to help confirm the diagnosis. Of the following, which test would likely be the most helpful?
Ionized phosphate
Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT)
Sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH)
Creatine kinase (CK)
Anion gap
CK, also called, CPK, is found in muscle cells and is elevated in the serum when muscle damage occurs.
A 3-year old, indoor-only, male castrated Maine Coon cat is presented to you for acute-onset of hindlimb pain and paresis. Physical examination reveals a grade III left parasternal heart murmur and minimal movement in the hind legs. Femoral pulses are bilaterally absent, and the hindlimb toes are cold to the touch. The cat is tachypenic, but lung sounds are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Tetanus
Lymphoma of the spinal cord
Chlorpyrifos toxicity
Thrombus at the aortic bifurcation (saddle thrombus)
T3-L3 intervertebral disc disease
Maine Coon cats are predisposed to development of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy at a young age. Consequently, left atrial enlargement predisposes to atrial thrombus formation, and these clots frequently lodge in the arterial supply to the hindlimbs. The trifurcation is where the aorta divides into the two external iliac arteries and the common origin of the internal iliac arteries. Classic findings due to a clot at the aortic trifurcation include posterior paresis/paralysis, hindlimb pain, cyanotic nailbeds, absent femoral pulses, and a firm leg musculature. Other signs of cardiac disease/failure (murmur or pulmonary edema) are often but not always evident at presentation.
Neither cord lesions, tetanus, nor toxicities should cause the vascular compromise evident on this cat’s physical exam.
A pig farm has several sick and dying adult pigs. Affected animals are febrile and depressed.
Some seem constipated and others have diarrhea. A few are ataxic.
A necropsy on one of the dead pigs shows widespread petechial and ecchymotic hemorrhages in the kidneys (“turkey egg kidneys”), bladder, spleen, and larynx.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Anthrax
B- Postweaning multisystemic wasting syndrome
C- Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
D- Glaesserella parasuis (formerly Haemophilus parasuis)
E- Classical swine fever
A four-month-old calf from a small beef herd in Louisiana presents with a fracture of the right metatarsus.
He was normal last night. The owner found the calf this morning after rounding up the herd for deworming.
This is the fifth calf this season with fractured bones.
One had a vertebral fracture, two calves had humeral fractures, and one other had a cannon bone fracture.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely problem in this herd?
A- High dietary phosphorus
B- High dietary calcium
C- Low dietary protein
D- Low dietary copper
E- Hypovitaminosis D
A 4 year old mare has bilateral swelling and drainage of the mandibular lymph nodes. Rectal temperature is 101.8F (38.8 C). Which of the following is the most appropriate plan for this horse?
Culture the discharge for bacteria
Administer penicillin
Inform the state veterinarian
Administer corticosteroids
The correct answer to this question is to culture the discharge for bacteria. The most likely diagnosis for this horse is equine strangles. Strangles most commonly affects younger horses (<5 years of age), but can cause disease in any age horse. The etiologic agent of this disease is Streptococcus equi subsp. equi. Currently, the diagnostic test of choice to confirm equine strangles is bacterial culture, but recently there is a trend towards PCR testing on guttural pouch samples. While awaiting test results, the horse should be separated from any other horses, as strangles is highly contagious to other horses. Antibiotic therapy is controversial and thought to lengthen the course of disease rather than shorten it when given at this stage; also, it may possibly interfere with the natural immunity acquired from natural infection. Don’t forget to report positive cases of S. equi to the state veterinarian! As of March 2020, S.equi is a monitorable disease in the United States, meaning individual veterinary practitioners are not mandated to report Strangles to the USDA/APHIS. State veterinarians and laboratories include S. equi cases as part of their monthly disease reports to APHIS.
A hobbyist fish owner is concerned because many of the fish in his freshwater tank have cloudy eyes, inflammation and necrosis of the gills, and excess mucus covering them. They seem to be moving slowly.
Based on this history, what is the most important question to ask?
A- Have you cleaned with chlorine recently?
B- What are the levels of vitamin A in the feed?
C- Were any new fish added to the aquarium in the last month?
D- When were these fish last treated with ivermectin?
E- How often do you measure ammonia levels in the tank water?
When performing a subtotal colectomy on a feline patient, what blood vessel limits the amount of colon that you are able to remove?
Caudal mesenteric artery
Pudendal artery
Left colic artery
Ileocolic artery
The correct answer is ileocolic artery. The site for colonic resection is limited by tension on the ileocolic artery when trying to suture your new end of colon to the rectum. Sometimes the tension is too great and instead of a colocolic anastomosis, an ileocolic anastomosis must be performed. Essentially you are trying to connect a section of ascending colon to the rectum. Now that can be pretty far! Performing an ileocolic anastomosis is not ideal because you eliminate the ileocecal valve, and that may predispose the animal to bacterial overgrowth. The caudal mesenteric artery gives branches to the rectum and descending colon. The left colic artery also feeds the descending colon. The pudendal artery supplies the external genitalia. The ileocolic artery provides blood supply to the ascending and transverse colon.
A 11-year old male castrated Golden Retriever presents for collapse with muffled heart sounds on examination. You ultrasound the heart and obtain the following image; the right atrium (RA) and right ventricle (RV) are labeled. A large mass is seen in the right atrioventricular groove with pericardial effusion. What is the likely diagnosis?
Hemangiosarcoma
Chemodectoma
Pulmonary adenocarcinoma
Idiopathic pericardial hemorrhage
Lymphoma
The correct answer is hemangiosarcoma. Hemangiosarcoma of the heart has a predilection for the right auricle of dogs, with Golden Retrievers being predisposed. Stabilization of this patient will require pericardiocentesis; prognosis is guarded and may include chemotherapy, pericardiectomy, or rarely auriculectomy. Chemodectoma arises from the ascending aorta and heart base; lymphoma is rare in the heart of dogs and is more commonly metastatic than a single mass. Idiopathic pericardial hemorrhage is incorrect because of the clear evidence of a mass.
*hémangiosarcome ; peut pas slmt retirer la masse car risques de métastases très élevé (cellules sont déjà en circulation) => donc il faut chimiothérapie en plus
Where, anatomically, is the predominant abnormality located in these radiographs from an 11-year-old English sheepdog?
Liver
Pancreas
Stomach
Spleen
Right kidney
A 1-year old mixed breed stray dog is presented for extreme pruritis and the lesion shown in the picture. The dog was recently found and adopted off the street and has been itching despite being bathed and treated with flea preventatives. The owner reports that she has been itching and developing rashes on her own body since adopting this dog. Your physical exam shows that the dog has several additional similar lesions on the other legs, chest, and ventral abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Cutaneous lymphoma
Demodex infection
Sarcoptes infestation
The key to this question is that Sarcoptic mange is extremely pruritic and can be transmitted to people, including this dog’s owner. Diagnosis of this disease is usually based on clinical impression and potential for exposure to the mites. A positive skin scraping would be most definitive, but scrapes often come back negative and trial therapy would need to be instituted.
Demodex is not transmittable to people and does not typically cause extreme pruritus like Sarcoptes.
Lymphoma and squamous cell carcinoma are less likely because they typically would occur in older animals and neither are usually particularly itchy.
What behavior is the mare displaying in the image below?
Cribbing
Flehmen
Lignophagia
Aggression
Windsucking
Many turkeys on a poultry farm develop whitish “wart-like” nodules and scabs on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent. Which management intervention would help prevent spread of the disease?
Tick control
Thoroughly disinfect pens and equipment
Raise the room temperature 5 degrees
Immediate removal of fecal waste
Mosquito control
Add antibiotics to the drinking water
The condition described here is the dry form of avian (fowl) pox. This is a relatively slow spreading disease that can be spread by contact or by mosquitoes that may harbor infective virus for greater than a month.
In the dry form of the disease, the main sign is raised, whitish wart-like lesions on unfeathered areas (head, legs, vent, etc.). The lesions heal in about 2 weeks. Unthriftiness, decreased egg production and retarded growth may be seen. Mortality is low with this form of the disease. The wet form mainly involves the oral cavity and upper respiratory tract. Lesions are diphtheritic and can ulcerate or erode mucous membranes. Marked respiratory involvement can lead to mortality.
A diagnosis is usually based on flock history and presence of these lesions. This is a pox virus and there is no specific effective treatment but there is a vaccine. Disease control is best accomplished by preventive vaccine as sanitation alone will not prevent spread of disease. Several vaccines are available and a single application results in permanent immunity.
There are not many tick borne poultry diseases but they may include spirochaetosis and Pasteurella infection.
Raising the temperature 5 degrees may be part of the treatment for infectious bronchitis in chickens. Disinfecting pens +/- quarantine is done for quail bronchitis, aspergillosis, and ulcerative enteritis. Antibiotics in the drinking water are most effective for preventing secondary bacterial infections and for mycoplasma but not preventing spread of the virus.
An obese eight-year-old Labrador Retriever is presented for annual vaccinations.
The owners claim that they have restricted his diet and try to exercise him but he still keeps the weight on.
There is alopecia on the dorsum of his tail and he has an unusual worried facial expression.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
Sarcoptic mange
Hyperadrenocorticism
Hypothyroidism
Hypoadrenocorticism
Male pattern alopecia
What species is the principle carrier and vector of Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF) virus in North America?
Sheep
Horse
Bison
Cattle
Donkey
MCF virus is ovine herpes virus-2 (OvHV-2) and is carried by 95-99% of sheep in North America which show no symptoms. It is also carried by 75% of domestic goats, 40% of muskox, 37% of bighorn sheep, 25% of pronghorn antelope, 62% of mouflon sheep, and by a small percentage of elk, mule deer, and white tailed deer. Susceptible hosts include cattle, water buffalo, deer, pigs, and bison; bison are the most susceptible
What is the neuroanatomic cause of extensor rigidity in the forelimbs of a patient with Schiff-Sherrington posture?
A- Interruption of inhibitory neuron input from lumbar spinal cord
B- Subdural white matter compression at C6-T3
C- Brachial plexus trauma
D- Damage to thoracic spinocerebellar tracts in superficial white matter
E- Polyradiculoneuritis of peripheral nerve sheaths at cervical intumescence
Which of these drugs is a neuromuscular blocker when given to a dog?
Atracurium
Fentanyl
Naloxone
Edrophonium
Neostigmine
The correct answer is atracurium. Atracurium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Other neuromuscular blockers include pancuronium, d-tubocurarine and succinylcholine. Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Fentanyl is an opioid. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist. Edrophonium and neostigmine are cholinesterase inhibitors used to reverse neuromuscular blockers.
Which nerve block would most specifically relieve lameness resulting from fracture of the navicular bone?
Palmar digital
Tibial and peroneal
Abaxial sesamoidean
Low four-point
Median and ulnar
Several 16 to 20 month old Holstein dairy heifers who have been out in pasture have developed large areas of skin sloughing, which appears to affect mainly the white unpigmented areas (see photo). Based on this observation, what is the best diagnosis?
Malignant catarrhal fever, skin form
Ordinary sunburn
Photosensitization
Insect hypersensitivity
Allergic dermatitis
Photosensitization mainly affects unpigmented skin where photodynamic agents have accumulated making the skin hyper-reactive to UV light. The cause of this photosensitization can be primary, in which case a plant-derived compound (such as hypericum) or chemical is injected, ingested or topically applied, is the cause. Alternatively, the cause can be secondary due to hepatic damage/failure where the liver fails to remove ingested chlorophyll-breakdown products like phylloerythrin, which accumulates in the skin and results in UV damage (sunburn). You need to determine whether this is primary or secondary by checking liver enzymes and bilirubin levels.
A high-producing dairy cow that freshened three weeks ago is off feed. On physical exam her heart and respiratory rates are within normal limits. T=101.2°F (38.4°C) [N=100.4–102.8°F (38.0–39.3°C)]
There is decreased rumen motility and a urine test for ketone bodies is positive. There is no evidence of mastitis and the uterus is clear of infection.
On the left side, a high-pitched musical “ping” is audible via stethoscope during percussion over the ribs on a line between the elbow and tuber coxae (hip).
What acid-base abnormality is most likely in this cow?
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Depends on severity of displacement
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
You are called one hot summer day to see a group of horses in New Mexico which are slobbering and not eating their hay. Three out of 20 horses seem to be visibly affected. On physical exam of the first one, you find fever of 104 F (40 C) and obvious oral ulcers as shown in the image, mainly on the tongue. What is your tentative diagnosis?
Bovine papular stomatitis
Foot-and-Mouth disease (FMD)
Glanders
African Horse Sickness
Vesicular stomatitis
VS affects horses, cattle and pigs with similar clinical signs. It is a viral disease of high morbidity and low mortality that appears about every 7 to 10 years in the Southwestern United States. Yearly outbreaks occur in southern Mexico and northern South America. Black flies and midges appear to be the vectors. Affected premises should be quarantined.
A nine-year-old male neutered German shepherd is presented with unchecked bleeding from a cut on the gums above the right canine tooth. The owner relates that the dog has lost weight and had an episode of collapse three days ago, but he recovered.
On physical exam, the gums are pale with petechiae and ecchymotic hemorrhages. There is tachycardia and a palpable cranial abdominal mass.
A coagulation profile shows the following:
Thrombocytes= 82,533 per microliter. [N=200,000-900,000]
Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT), increased
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), increased
Prothrombin time (PT), increased
Fibrin degradation products (FDPs), increased
What disorder of coagulation best fits this pattern?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
Von Willebrand’s disease
Hepatic insufficiency
Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
A 1-year old female spayed Doberman Pinscher has presented after being hit by a car. Initial chest radiographs show mild contusions, and the patient appears to be otherwise stable. A right mid-shaft long oblique femoral fracture has been identified. Routine pre-operative blood work is unremarkable. A buccal mucosal bleeding test (BMBT) is elevated at 6 minutes. What will you administer prior to surgery?
1,25 dihydrocholecalciferol
Desmopressin acetate
Vitamin K
Whole blood transfusion
The correct answer is desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). Administration of desmopressin results in release of von Willebrand factor, which will help this patient with clotting. Given this dog’s breed and elevated BMBT there is a very strong likelihood she is afflicted with von Willebrand’s disease. In Dobermans this results in an inability to form a clot. This can be life threatening if the dog is taken to surgery.
A whole blood transfusion does not provide an adequate source of von Willebrand factor but may be necessary if the patient’s bleeding cannot be controlled despite appropriate pre-operative measures. 1,25 dihydrocholecalciferol is the active form of vitamin D which aids intestinal resorption of calcium. The BMBT does not assess factors 2, 7, 9, or 10 and therefore vitamin K is not indicated.
The goose shown in the image below was found weak on the shore of a local pond where oil had been dumped. The goose was covered in oil, dehydrated and weak but responsive. Which of the following is an important acute clinical effect of oil on affected birds?
Contact dermatitis
Hepatotoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Disruption of function of the plumage
Lead toxicity
Feathers serve a critical waterproofing and insulatory function which is disrupted by oil and can rapidly result in hypothermia. Other concerns for oiled birds include GI irritation from ingestion of oil during preening, hemolytic anemia, and pneumonia due to inhalation of oil.
Treatments include heat, supportive care, and activated charcoal. Once stabilized, frequent high pressure, warm, mild detergent baths and clean warm water rinses until water beads freely off of the feathers is important. Birds should be placed in warm air flow until dry and they should be maintained on self-skimming ponds for several days after washing to ensure full waterproofing.
A four-year-old Rat Terrier is presented with a three day history of progressive stumbling and falling.
Physical exam reveals a right head tilt, left sided hypermetria, generalized ataxia and vertical nystagmus.
Which one of the following choices is at the top of the differential list?
A- Ascending and descending myelomalacia
B- Granulomatous meningoencephalitis
C- Fibrocartilagenous embolism
D- Central pontine myelinolysis
E- Amyotrophic lateralizing sclerosis
Which infectious agent causes the clinical presentation of pigs most similar to that of Haemophilus parasuis (Glasser’s disease)?
Mycoplasma hyosynoviae
Streptococcus suis
Fusobacterium necrophorum
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
The correct answer is Streptococcus suis. Streptococcus suis and H. parasuis both cause polyarthritis, polyserositis, fever, and pneumonia in young piglets up to several weeks of age. Both can cause fibrinopurulent inflammation as well as meningitis and convulsions.
Erysipelas and M. hyosynoviae typically occur in grower and finisher pigs and do not result in pneumonia. Diamond-shaped skin lesions (thus the name “diamond skin disease”) are pathognomonic for Erysipelas. Fusobacterium necrophorum causes lameness via footrot or laminitis.
Two eight-week old calves are presented down and extremely weak.
They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood.
Another calf died suddenly the previous night with no prior signs.
The down calves are dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2° and 105.6° F (40.7° – 40.9° C) [N=101.5°-103.5°F, N=37.8°-39.7° C], respectively.
What is the treatment plan?
A- IV fluids; NSAIDS; frequent milk feedings
B- Cull sick calves; prophylactic oxytetracycline in feed for well animals
C- Isolate sick calves; oral electrolytes
D- Corticosteroids; amprolium in water; rumensin in feed
E- Immunize calves and adult cattle with MLV vaccine; probiotics for sick calves
At what age do a cow’s permanent 4th incisors begin to erupt in the mandible?
3 years
5-6 years
2 to 2.5 years
3.5 to 4 years
7-8 years
If a mass appears in the lungs on a right lateral radiograph but not on a left lateral radiograph, where is the mass located?
Left lung
Right lung
Mediastinum
Body wall
The correct answer is left lung. On a right lateral radiograph, the right side is down. In this situation, the right lung lobes are compressed and the left lung lobes inflated, accentuating a mass in the left lung. On a left lateral radiograph, the left lobes are compressed and a mass in the left lung can be concealed due to compression of the lung surrounding the mass.
A four-year old dog is presented with a history of sudden onset of collapse and respiratory distress.
Physical exam shows pale mucous membranes, jugular distention and a jugular pulse. There is abdominal distention with a palpable fluid wave.
On an echocardiogram, a mass of worms is noted in the right atrium and caudal vena cava.
What is the treatment of choice?
A- grave prognosis, recommend euthanasia
B- prescribe furosemide and imidocarb
C- start ivermectin and doxycycline
D- surgical worm removal
E- immediately administer melarsomine
D-
A 10 year male castrated German Shepherd dog presents for an acute onset of ptosis, drooping of the lip, and drooping of the cheek all on the left side. What nerve has been damaged?
CN V
CN III
CN VI
CN VII
The correct answer is CN VII. This is the facial nerve which is responsible for motor of the facial muscles as well as sensation in the ear and lacrimation. CN V is mostly responsible for sensation. CN III is the oculomotor nerve and serves in movement of the eye. CN VI is also involved in movement of the eye.
A ten-year-old Arabian gelding in California is presented because of an interesting finding in his manure.
The owner mentions that he’s had a couple of mild colic episodes over the past months that resolved with just walking and oral flunixin meglumine administered by the owner.
The manure is shown below:
What diagnostic should be recommended to the owner to determine how to proceed?
Ultrasound per rectum
Gastroscopy and duodenal biopsy
Fecal occult blood test
McMasters fecal flotation on fresh manure
Abdominal radiographs
You have a 6-kg cat that you wish to raise his PCV from 15 to 25%. You plan to administer packed red blood cells. How many milliliters of packed red blood cells will this cat need?
15 ml
60 ml
120 ml
30 ml
The correct answer is 60 ml. In order to raise the PCV 1% you will need to give 1ml/kg of packed red blood cells. So it takes 6mls to raise this cat’s PCV by 1%. If we are going to increase it by 10% we will need 60ml of packed red blood cells.
A 16-year-old retired Thoroughbred mare is presented for spring vaccinations. Her feet look like this (see image below). Which one of the following would be recommended?
A- Check serum vitamin E and selenium levels
B- Measure resting ACTH and insulin
C- Recommend 24/7 pasture turnout with grazing
D- Ask if she’s being fed a diet with excessive wheat bran, leading to an imbalance in the calcium:phosphorus ratio
E- Start on a course of systemic steroid therapy
You are called to examine and treat a valuable 3 year old show cow that appeared normal yesterday but has collapsed and is too weak to get up (see photo). You examine her and find T=102F or 38.9 C, HR=130, and RR=42. Her heart is pounding very loudly. The mucous membranes of her eyes, mouth and vulva are all very pale. You diagnose an acutely bleeding abomasal ulcer. What is the most important treatment?
4 to 8 liters of fresh whole blood IV
4 liters of commercial plasma IV plus vitamin K
40 liters of saline IV
20 liters of 1.3% sodium bicarbonate IV
40 liters balanced electrolytes orally
You are called to examine and treat a valuable 3 year old show cow that appeared normal yesterday but has collapsed and is too weak to get up (see photo). You examine her and find T=102F or 38.9 C, HR=130, and RR=42. Her heart is pounding very loudly. The mucous membranes of her eyes, mouth and vulva are all very pale. You diagnose an acutely bleeding abomasal ulcer. What is the most important treatment?
4 to 8 liters of fresh whole blood IV
4 liters of commercial plasma IV plus vitamin K
40 liters of saline IV
20 liters of 1.3% sodium bicarbonate IV
40 liters balanced electrolytes orally
In the case of an acute blood loss such as this, the most important treatment is whole blood. Other sodium-containing fluids may be beneficial while the blood is being collected if this will not result in losing time in getting the whole blood into this cow. In most cases the single blood transfusion results in recovery. After about 24 hours the cow will exhibit melena as the digested blood reaches the rectum.
