5 Flashcards
Over the past two weeks, several pigs in a herd have been febrile and depressed. Many were constipated, then had diarrhea.
A few were incoordinated and one had seizures. A few have died. Necropsy revealed petechial hemorrhages on the kidneys and larynx, and a hemorrhagic urinary bladder.
Of the following choices, which one is most consistent with a presumptive diagnosis?
Classical swine fever
Erysipelas
Glasser’s disease
Streptococcus suis infection
Swine dysentery
A one-month old foal develops fever, icterus, and diarrhea acutely. Bloodwork shows hyperfibrinogenemia, hypoglycemia, and elevated liver enzymes. Which of these conditions is most likely?
Herpesviral hepatitis
Theiler’s disease
Tyzzer’s disease
Clostridium novyi type B
The correct answer is Tyzzer’s disease. This is the most likely cause because of the age of the foal and the acute nature of the disease. Tyzzer’s disease is caused by Clostridium piliformis, which causes an acute necrotizing hepatitis. It affects only foals from about 1-6 weeks of age. Theiler’s disease is a condition of adult horses. Clostridium novyi is rare in horses and seen much more in sheep and cattle. Herpesvirus can cause hepatitis but is usually seen at or very soon after birth.
A two-year-old Angus cow is presented with weakness of the hind limbs and a staggering gait.
On physical exam, the heart rate and respiratory rate are slow and irregular, and the pupils are dilated.
The cow’s breath and urine smell like the odor of mouse urine.
Suddenly the cow’s pulse becomes rapid and thready, she collapses, and dies of apparent respiratory failure.
Which one of the following plants is most likely to have caused this spectrum of clinical signs?
A- Pinus ponderosa (Western yellow pine)
B- Veratrum spp (False hellebore, Skunk cabbage)
C- Tetradymia spp (Horsebrush)
D- Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock)
E- Centaurea spp (Knapweed, Yellow star thistle)
An 11-year old female Pomeranian presents to you for coughing and exercise intolerance. On exam: Wt: 9.25 lbs, T: 101.2F (38.4 C), HR: 132 bpm, RR: Panting, mucous membranes are pink. She has mild tracheal sensitivity and a grade III-IV/VI left apical holosystolic murmur and grade II/VI right apical holosystolic murmur. Femoral pulses are strong and synchronous, with a regular rhythm. She has harsh lung sounds bilaterally. On abdominal palpation, you note hepatomegaly. You find bilateral luxating patellas. You take chest radiographs (see image) and decide to treat the dog based on these findings. Which medication plan is most appropriate?
Furosemide and enalapril
Clavamox and enrofloxacin
Immiticide (Melarsomine)
Atropine and a temporary pacemaker
Oxygen and atenolol
The radiograph here shows a severe symmetrical alveolar pattern in the perihilar region extending to the right and left caudal lung lobes. The heart is tall on the lateral view causing dorsal elevation of the trachea.
This, in conjunction with the physical findings, is compatible with congestive heart failure (CHF) secondary to mitral valve regurgitation. The dog also has hepatic congestion evident by enlargement on the radiograph. Treatment for CHF include diuretics (furosemide/Lasix, hydrochlorothiazide, spironolactone), arterial vasodilators (enalapril, benazepril, amlodipine, hydralazine), positive inotropes (pimobendan), and venodilators (nitroglycerine).
Clavamox and enrofloxacin are antibiotics which could be used to treat pneumonia, but that is not this dog’s problem. Immiticide is the treatment for heartworm. Atenolol is a beta blocker and not part of the management of mitral regurgitation or CHF. Atropine or a pacemaker would be indicated for conduction problems.
Annotations:
There is marked elongation of the cardiac silhouette on the lateral views (yellow line) resulting in dorsal displacement of the trachea (red area), consistent with left ventricular enlargement.
A large focal bulge is noted at the caudodorsal aspect of the cardiac silhouette consistent with left atrial enlargement. (Purple circle)
A focal soft tissue opaque bulge is also noted in the region of the left auricle on the DV view. (Pink circle)
There is concurrent mild widening of the cardiac silhouette on the lateral views consistent with right-sided cardiomegaly (orange line).
The cranial lobar pulmonary veins are larger than the corresponding arteries. There is mild distension of the caudal lobar pulmonary arteries and veins with right caudal lobar pulmonary vein slightly larger than the corresponding artery. (green lines)
There is a marked diffuse unstructured interstitial pattern to early alveolar pattern (blue circle), most severe in the dorsal aspects of the right caudal and left caudal lung lobes.
The liver is mildly enlarged, extending beyond the costal arch with rounded caudoventral margins. (brown circle)
Radiographs provided by Adrien Hespel, DVM, MS, DACVR and University of Tennessee College of Veterinary Medicine
An outbreak of diarrheal disease of piglets has occurred which affected the healthiest animals in the herd, one to two weeks after weaning.
Some affected piglets had no signs except peracute death.
Other affected piglets exhibit diarrhea, ataxia, paralysis, and recumbency.
What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?
Epidemic transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE)
Streptococcus suis
Clostridium perfringens type C enteritis
Edema disease
Porcine proliferative enteritis
A 6-month old cat presents for having ptyalism and for being underweight. On physical examination, you note a bright copper color to the cat’s iris bilaterally. What is this suggestive of?
Hemolytic anemia
Portal systemic shunt
Polycystic kidney disease
Toxoplasmosis
The correct answer is a portal-systemic shunt. Ptyalism is a sign commonly seen with PSS in cats but not dogs, and the copper-colored iris is a striking and almost pathognomonic finding in conjunction with other clinical findings. Hemolytic anemia could cause icterus but not the change in iris color. Animals with polycystic kidney disease would not have a copper-colored iris. Toxoplasma can cause ocular signs such as uveitis but would not have a copper iris.
Which one of the following choices includes the cardinal sign of trigeminal neuritis?
A- Inability to close the mouth
B- Dysphagia, dysphonia and stridor
C- Circling and head tilt toward side of lesion, no other signs
D- Masseter muscle pain associated with chewing
E- Paralyzed eyelid, ear or lip on one or both sides of the face
Which of these are used in the minor cross match for blood products when looking for a compatible blood donor for a dog?
A- Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma
B- Donor red blood cells, donor plasma
C- Recipient red blood cells, recipient plasma
D- Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma
The correct answer is recipient red blood cells, donor plasma. In a minor crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the donor are going to react to the recipient’s red blood cells.
What condition is associated with rectal stricture in pigs?
Salmonella typhimurium
Rotavirus
Coccidiosis
Intussusception
Intestinal spirochetosis
A 6-year old male neutered Weimaraner presents for right forelimb lameness. Radiographs are shown below and show a mixed productive and destructive lesion affecting the right distal radius with accompanying soft tissue swelling. The lesion does not cross the joint. What is the most common primary bone tumor in the dog?
Fibrosarcoma
Multiple myeloma
Chondrosarcoma
Hemangiosarcoma
Osteosarcoma
The correct answer is osteosarcoma. Chondrosarcoma, fibrosarcoma and hemangiosarcoma can all be primary bone tumors but are much less common in dogs than osteosarcoma.
Annotations:
Yellow: Amorphous periosteal proliferation
Orange: Geographic lysis and expansile appearance of the mid-radius
Blue: soft tissue swelling
A nine-year-old Irish setter is presented for vomiting.
The owner states that the dog does not really retch, but just spits up food soon after eating.
The dog is normal otherwise.
Based on the lateral radiograph below, which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
Persistent right aortic arch
Gastric foreign body
Megaesophagus
Mediastinal mass
Pulmonary bullae
Which of these nerve blocks is used to examine the eyes of a horse?
Oculomotor nerve block
Trigeminal nerve block
Auriculopalpebral nerve block
Corneal nerve block
The correct answer is auriculopalpebral nerve block. Blocking this branch of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) disrupts the motor innervation to the orbicularis oculi, which is the muscle that closes the eye. In the horse, this muscle is very strong and can prevent a thorough ocular exam. To perform this block, lidocaine is injected subcutaneously at the caudal aspect of the zygomatic arch where the nerve is palpable. Because this is a motor nerve, the eye will not be able to close as well, but there is no anesthesia of the tissue.
A two-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat is presented after a suspected fall from a height of approximately 35 feet (over ten meters).
The cat is initially stabilized with intravenous fluids and oxygen therapy. Four hours later, the cat has not urinated and no urinary bladder is palpable.
An abdominal focused assessment with sonography for trauma, triage, and tracking (AFAST) reveals a moderate volume abdominal effusion, with no visible urinary bladder.
What test would confirm the top differential?
A- Abdominocentesis with Gram stain and cell count
B- Total protein and microscopic analysis of the ascites
C- Lactate and glucose levels of peritoneal sample and blood
D- Measurement of BUN in blood and fluid
E- Paired plasma and effusion potassium and creatinine
A horse presents to you with a corneal ulcer. You are concerned because it appears to be infected, as shown in this image. You perform cytology and find gram negative rods. What is the most likely organism infecting the corneal ulcer in this horse?
Pasteurella multocida
E. coli
Staphylococcus spp.
Pseudomonas
The correct answer is Pseudomonas. Pseudomonas is the most common agent causing bacterial keratitis in the horse. The gram negative cytology provides further evidence that it is the likely culprit. Staphylococcus can cause keratitis in horses but is gram positive. E. coli and Pasteurella are not agents that are commonly involved with keratitis in the horse.
Which group is most at risk of developing the lesion evident in this image?
A- Young horses ingesting Perilla mint; Standardbreds
B- Cattle without reticular magnets; Charolais
C- Obese cats, any breed; Burmese cats
D- Old, small-breed dogs; Cavalier King Charles Spaniel
E- Sheep or goats pastured above 2000 meters; Saanens
A 10-year old male castrated cat that you have previously diagnosed with hyperthyroidism presents to you for acute onset of blindness. You perform an ophthalmic exam and note retinal hemorrhage. What diagnostic test should you perform first?
Coagulation times
Free T4 levels by equilibrium dialysis
Serum BUN and creatinine
Total T4 levels
Blood pressure
The correct answer is blood pressure. Cats with hyperthyroidism are likely to develop hypertension. If this is severe enough (>180-200 mmHg systolic), they can be at risk for acute retinal detachment or hemorrhage resulting in blindness. Prompt resolution of the hypertension is critical to prevent further damage to the eye and other organs.
A middle-aged, depressed, coughing, exercise-intolerant Doberman pinscher is presented.
The dog has a rapid and irregular heart rate.
Which initial diagnostic step is most appropriate?
A- Ultrasound for pericardial effusion
B- Thoracic radiographs to evaluate for congestive heart failure
C- Abdominal focused assessment with sonography for triage, trauma, and tracking rapid (AFAST) for hemoabdomen
D- CBC to identify anemia
E- Bronchoscopy for airway assessment
A three-year-old white rat is presented with yellowing fur and a brownish, granular sebaceous secretion at the base of affected hair shafts.
What should the owner be told?
A- Normal age-related change
B- Probable ringworm, resolves spontaneously with sunlight exposure
C- Moisture-related dermatitis, cage needs more frequent cleaning
D- Staph dermatitis, responsive to antiseptic shampoo
E- Common manifestation of chorioptic mange
A 6-year old female spayed English Pointer presents for lethargy and weight gain. The owner notes that the dog is eating and drinking a normal amount, but the dog is still gaining weight. A physical exam reveals weak pelvic limbs, facial nerve paralysis, a symmetrically patchy haircoat, and seborrhea. Lab work reveals a normocytic, normochromic anemia with a PCV of 29% (35-57%), lipemic serum, and cholesterol of 1090 mg/dl (135-278 mg/dl). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Hypothyroidism
Pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism
Hyperthyroidism
Adrenal dependent hyperadrenocorticism
The correct answer is hypothyroidism. The clinical signs, physical exam findings, and lab work abnormalities are classical for hypothyroidism. Other common abnormalities seen with hypothyroidism include pyoderma, neuromuscular signs (ataxia, knuckling, vestibular signs, etc), markedly elevated triglycerides, and a mild normocytic, normochromic anemia. Hyperthyroidism rarely occurs in dogs. You would expect to see polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia with hyperadrenocorticism.
A five-year-old female spayed domestic short-haired cat is presented with chronic vomiting, anorexia, and weight loss.
Physical examination reveals icterus, dehydration, and fever.
Thickened small intestinal loops are appreciated with abdominal palpation, and serum biochemistry shows increased bilirubin and liver enzymes.
The cat is diagnosed with extrahepatic biliary obstruction with accompanying cholangitis and inflammatory bowel disease.
Which one of the following normal anatomic features may predispose cats to this triad of diseases?
A - Narrowing of the duodenum distal to the entry of the common bile and pancreatic ducts
B - Enlarged duodenal papilla in comparison to other species
C - Decreased proportion of alpha-smooth muscle actin in muscle fibers of the wall of the gall bladder in cats
D - Common opening of the pancreatic and common bile ducts into duodenum
E - Decreased diameter and increased branching of the hepatic ducts in comparison to other species
You are visiting a small “back-yard” flock of chickens and examining the animals. You find several small gray-red mites (approx 0.7 mm) on several of the chickens which you recognize as Dermanyssus gallinae and Ornithonyssus sylviarum. How are these mites best controlled?
A- Control of both Dermanyssus gallinae and Ornithonyssus sylviarum relies on thorough insecticidal treatment of the environment
B- Control of both Ornithonyssus sylviarum and Dermanyssus gallinae relies on application of approved pesticides to affected birds
C- Ornithonyssus sylviarum is controlled primarily by thorough insecticidal treatment of the environment and Dermanyssus gallinae must be controlled by application of approved pesticides to affected birds
D- Dermanyssus gallinae is controlled primarily by thorough acaricidal treatment of the environment, and Ornithonyssus sylviarum must be controlled by application of approved pesticides to affected birds.
Dermanyssus gallinae (the common red mite) maintains the majority of the population in the environment so it is important to monitor and treat the environment including the cracks and crevices where mites tend to reside. Ornithonyssus sylviarum mites (northern fowl mites) spend their entire life cycle on the bird. This allows them to multiply more rapidly and makes it essential to treat the birds themselves to control the problem.
What is the earliest stage post-breeding that an experienced practitioner can reliably rectally palpate fremitus in the uterine artery of the gravid uterine horn in a pregnant cow?
A - 90-120 days
B - 60-75 days
C - 120-150 days
D - 70-80 days
E - 45-60 days
Which of these is an adrenergic vasopressor in dogs?
Dopamine
Atropine
Hydralazine
Glycopyrrolate
The correct answer is dopamine. Adrenergic vasopressors are frequently used to treat hypotension during anesthesia. Drugs in this category are dopamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, phenylephrine, and norepinephrine. Atropine and glycopyrrolate are anticholinergic drugs. Hydralazine is a vasodilator used to treat hypertension.
Which diseases are associated with a high anion gap (AG)?
A - Grain overload, ethylene glycol toxicity, renal failure
B - Hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoadrenocorticism, displaced abomasum
C - Eosinophilic enteritis, hypothyroidism, gastrinoma
D - Prostatic adenocarcinoma, pleural effusion, lymphangiectasia
E - Diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis, chronic diarrhea
Several litters of 2 to 3 day old pigs have recently died rapidly with hemorrhagic enteritis. Post mortem lesions include mucosal hemorrhage, necrosis and emphysema in the small intestines. What pathogen is most likely to cause these signs?
Haemophilus parasuis
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
Salmonella choleraesuis
Clostridium perfringens type C
The age of these affected pigs along with the rapid course of hemorrhagic and necrotic enteritis help you come to this conclusion. As with many Clostridial diseases, vaccination is the most effective means of control. Other important clostridial diseases of swine include C. perfringens type A, C. difficile, C. tetani, C. botulinum, C. novyi, C. septicum, and C. chauvoei.
A five-year-old female spayed cat is presented with a two-day history of vomiting and anorexia.
Physical exam reveals 5% dehydration and abdominal discomfort. Plain abdominal radiographs are shown below.
Which choice is the most appropriate step to take next?
A - Gastroduodenoscopy with biopsy
B - Non-iodinated contrast series
C - IV fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics
D - Exploratory laparotomy
E - Specific feline pancreatic-lipase assay
The cat in the image below presents for lethargy, depression, and weakness. The cat can’t seem to lift his head (as seen in this image). You recommend running a chemistry panel on the cat. What potential finding explains can explain the findings?
High glucose
Low calcium
Low phosphorus
High urea nitrogen
Low potassium
The cat in the image is exhibiting cervical ventroflexion, which is a general sign of weakness. The most common cause for this presentation is hypokalemia (low potassium), which can be caused by a variety of reasons (such as chronic renal failure).
This weakness can also be caused by a number of different problems other than low potassium, including myasthenia gravis; polymyopathies caused by toxoplasmosis, immune-mediated disease, or hyperadrenocorticism; and neuropathies caused by organophosphate poisoning, thiamine deficiency, or botulism.
When a sow is giving birth, what is the shortest time interval between passage of piglets that indicates dystocia?
A - 15 minutes
B - 4 hours
C - 1/2 hour
D - 1 hour
E - 2 hours
A two-day-old pup has a GGT level of 500 times the adult upper reference range.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely interpretation?
A - Related to bone development
B - Associated with neonatal cholestasis
C - Caused by traumatic placental detachment
D - Due to colostrum absorption
E - Suggestive of a congenital liver shunt
An owner brings her 4-year old female Labrador Retriever to your clinic because she believes she might be pregnant. She does not remember when the dog’s last heat cycle was. The dog’s abdomen appears fairly distended and you take a lateral abdominal radiograph which is shown below. What would be the earliest time you would expect to be able to see fetal skeletons on abdominal radiographs in the dog?
A- 53 days gestation
B- 23 days gestation
C- 33 days gestation
D- 43 days gestation
The correct answer is 43 days gestation. The fetal skeleton ossifies at 42-45 days in the dog and 35-39 in the cat.
In the dog, a mineralized fetus can usually be seen around 42-46 days. The scapula, humerus, and femur can be made out around 46-51 days. The ribs can be seen at 52-59 days. Teeth and toes can be seen at 58-63 days
A 7-year old male intact Chesapeake Bay Retriever presents to your clinic with the presenting complaint of an intermittent cough. On exam, the dog is bright and alert with a temperature of 100.5F (38.1 C), heart rate of 110 beats per minute and respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. You perform chest radiographs which are shown below. A CBC shows a hematocrit of 39% (35-57%), neutrophil count of 8,659/ul (2,900-12,000/ul), monocyte count of 984/ul (100-1,400/ul) and eosinophil count of 1,980/ul (0-1,300/ul). What is the treatment of choice for the most likely diagnosis?
A) Pericardiocentesis
B) Enrofloxacin
C) Terbutaline
D) Furosemide
E) Immiticide (Melarsomine)
The correct answer is Immiticide (melarsomine). The dog in this radiograph has the classic findings for heartworm disease, including right sided ventricular enlargement with very prominent pulmonary arteries.
Heartworm in the dog is caused by Dirofilaria immitis. The treatment of choice for heartworm is Immiticide which is given by intramuscular injection.
Furosemide is a treatment for congestive heart failure, which this dog shows no evidence of. Terbutaline is a bronchodilator, which would be of little use in this case. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are useful for the treatment of pneumonia and other infections but are not effective against heartworm. Pericardiocentesis is obviously the treatment for pericardial effusion, but this dog’s radiographs do not show the classic globoid heart you might see with pericardial effusion.
Annotations:
Green arrow: apex of the heart shifted towards the left hemithorax indicative of right cardiac enlargement
Blue: right sided cardiac enlargement of right atrium and right ventricle
Yellow: Severely enlarged main pulmonary artery
Red: pulmonary arteries are enlarged and mildly tortuous.
All the changes are indicative of pulmonary hypertension secondary to heartworm disease.
Throughout the lungs there is a moderate diffuse bronchointerstial pattern throughout, most suggestive of eosinophilic pneumonitis.
Which canine parasite can cause cutaneous larva migrans in people?
A - Spirocerca sp.
B - Ancylostoma spp.
C - Trichostrongylus spp.
D - Habronema spp.
E - Trichuris spp.
A middle aged MN stray cat is left on the doorstep of your clinic. The cat has a large dry crusted area of alopecia over his nose. A skin scraping of the area is negative. The lesion fluoresces under Wood’s lamp examination (see image). Which of the following would be the best treatment?
A- Povidone-iodine scrub
B- Full body lyme sulfur dip, itraconazole
C- Lufenuron
D- Doxycycline
E- Athlete’s foot cream (clotrimazole)
This cat has a ringworm infection caused by Microsporum canis. This fungi fluoresces blue under a Wood’s lamp in 50% of cases.
The best treatment for ringworm infection would include a combination topical and oral therapy. Lyme sulfur dip or an antifungal shampoo containing miconazole would be acceptable. Oral antifungals such as itraconazole or fluconazole are most effective with the least side effects.
Povidone-iodine scrub has not been shown to be effective against ringworm.
Lufenuron is classified as an insect development inhibitor because of its ability to inhibit chitin synthesis, thus in the past has been said to have some effect against fungal infections. This has been debated and not widely supported as a treatment for ringworm.
Doxycycline is an antibiotic and would not be effective in treatment of fungal disease.
Athlete’s foot cream (clotrimazole) may have some effect at treating the lesion. Most over-the-counter creams such as this also include a steroid like betamethasone which would not be desired. Although this lesion appears to be localized to the nasal area, ringworm may also be subclinical and this cat may have infection elsewhere in the skin that is not grossly visible. Therefore, the best therapy is a combination of topical and oral.
A one-year-old female llama is presented with hyperkeratosis around the nose and mouth.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Zinc-responsive dermatosis
B - Wry face
C - Dermatophilosis
D - Dorsal nasal alopecia
E - Munge
A six-year-old male neutered Yorkshire terrier is presented for routine examination. The owner has no current concerns.
Exam reveals a grade 3/6 left-sided systolic heart murmur. Pulse quality is strong and synchronous and there are no other abnormalities.
What is the most likely cause of the heart murmur?
A - Myxomatous mitral valve disease
B - Aortic stenosis
C - Patent ductus arteriosus
D - Carnitine-deficient dilated cardiomyopathy
E - Physiologic
A commercial pig farm experiences an explosive outbreak of respiratory disease with high mortality, primarily in young pigs under six months of age.
Affected pigs show severe respiratory distress, fever up to 107°F (41.5°C), anorexia, and reluctance to move. Some animals display open-mouth breathing with a blood-stained, frothy nasal and oral discharge.
On necropsy, the lungs are bilaterally dark and swollen and ooze bloody fluid from the cut surface, as shown in the image below.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Fusobacterium necrophorum
B - Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
C - Haemophilus parahaemolyticus
D - Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
E - Swine influenza
A client brings the one-half inch grub shown in the image to you one spring day, telling you it emerged from a hole in the back of one of his prize show cattle. He wants to know what to treat his cattle with and when.
A- Ivermectin in early fall
B- Thiabendazole in early fall
C- Ivermectin in February
D- Moxidectin now, in spring
E- Organophosphates in summer
This is a cattle warble called Hypoderma. The 2 species are H. bovis and H. lineatum. They undergo a long migration in tissues and only emerge from the back of the animal in spring. The crucial treatment time is early fall when larvae are just beginning to migrate in tissues. Organophosphates or one of the macrocyclic lactones (ivermectin, doramectin, eprinomectin or moxidectin) are effective.
A herd of ewes has had an abortion storm in which 80% of animals are affected.
All stages of gestation are affected, and lambs that are born are very weak.
On the placentas, cotyledons have white foci of necrosis.
Which one of the following choices is the primary differential diagnosis?
A - Listeria monocytogenes
B - Chlamydiosis
C - Histophilus ovis
D - Brucella
E - Toxoplasma gondii
A one-year-old female spayed German Shepherd is presented for a two-week history of lameness.
Although the dog limps on the right foreleg as it enters the exam room, the owner reports that the dog was lame on the left hindleg last week.
On physical exam, the dog reacts painfully on palpation of the long bones of the right foreleg.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Value Normal
99.8°F (37.7°C) 99.5-102.5°F (37.2-39.2°C)
HR=100 bpm 80-120
RR=24 brpm 15-34
A - Panosteitis
B - Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
C - Hypertrophic osteopathy
D - Osteosarcoma
E - Multiple cartilaginous exostoses
For the last ten years, your state has had a mandatory vaccination program against “pedunculated giblet disease” in fur-bearing turtles and the prevalence of this terrible disease has decreased markedly.
How does this decrease in prevalence affect the predictive value positive (PVP) of the best serologic test for pedunculated giblet disease?
A - PVP increases as prevalence decreases
B - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases
C - PVP stays the same as prevalence decreases
D - PVP is affected by specificity, not prevalence
E - PVP depends on the number tested, not prevalence
A flock from a turkey farm is presented with a mysterious illness. Several dead birds are notable, mostly younger animals.
Sick turkeys are listless, with drooping wings, unkempt feathers, yellow droppings. Sick older birds are emaciated.
Necropsy shows a yellowish green, caseous exudate in the ceca, cecal ulcerations, and thickening of the cecal wall. A typical liver looks like the image below.
What is the diagnosis?
When a foal is being treated with erythromycin (for Rhodococcus equi, for example), the mare is at risk of developing enterocolitis due to which one of the following organisms?
A - Lawsonia intracellularis (a.k.a. proliferative enteropathy)
B - Escherichia coli
C - Clostridium novyi
D - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)
E - Rhodococcus equi
When a foal is being treated with erythromycin (for Rhodococcus equi, for example), the mare is at risk of developing enterocolitis due to which one of the following organisms?
A - Lawsonia intracellularis (a.k.a. proliferative enteropathy)
B - Escherichia coli
C - Clostridium novyi
D - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)
E - Rhodococcus equi
A 4-month-old terrier cross presents for inability to eat. The puppy is bright, alert, and responsive on exam. Heart rate is 148, respiratory rate is panting, and temperature is 101.8 F (38.8 C). The puppy is extremely painful when his lower jaw is palpated, and cries and pulls away when you attempt to open his mouth. Sedated oral exam is unremarkable. Radiographs are available for review (see image). What do you tell the owner about prognosis?
A- Chemotherapy can prolong quality of life for a few of months, however prognosis is grave.
B- This will regress within a year, and symptomatic support is needed for discomfort.
C- This can be cured with antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity. NSAIDs can be used for discomfort.
D- Surgical removal of dentigerous cysts will likely be curative, however long term dental disease is common.
Craniomandibular osteopathy (CMO) is seen in young dogs and is exemplified in this radiograph. Terrier breeds predominate, but CMO can be seen in any breed. The disease is usually self-limiting and typically regresses by 1 year old, although not always. It is thought to be a type of hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD) and occurs mostly in the mandible but can also affect the tympanic bulla, temporal bones, and temporomandibular joints. Treatment is supportive with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories to control pain, similar to HOD. Prognosis is highly dependent upon whether the patient is able to open/close the mouth, prehend and chew food, and generally sustain themselves through the course of the disease. Radiographic signs will also regress with time.
Damage to which tissues can cause increases in serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels in dogs and cats?
A - Pancreas and intestine
B - Red blood cells and brain
C - Liver and muscle
D - Spleen and adrenals
E - Heart and kidneys
A stray dog is presented after being hit by a car.
The dog has hypotonic forelimbs and spastic paresis in the hinds.
All four limbs have proprioceptive deficits and sensation loss-signs are worse in the forelimbs.
Where is the lesion?
A - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
B - Cannot say without cutaneous trunci reflex results
C - Lumbosacral L4-S3
D - Thoracolumbar T3-L3
E - Cranial cervical: C1-C5
A four-month-old filly is presented with a four-day history of lethargy, heavy breathing, cough and decreased appetite.
Value Normal
104.9°F (40.5°C) 99.0–100.6°F (37.2–38.1°C)
HR=72 bpm 28-40 bpm
R=44 brpm 10-14 brpm
On lung auscultation asymmetrically-distributed crackles and wheezes are audible. Some areas have no breath sounds and a dull resonance on thoracic percussion. A lateral chest radiograph shows consolidated nodular lung lesions and mediastinal lymphadenopathy.
Pneumonia due to Rhodococcus equi infection is confirmed based on culture and polymerase chain reaction results on a transtracheal wash.
Which one of following choices is the most appropriate treatment?
A - Chloramphenicol and aminophylline
B - Clarithromycin and rifampin
C - Tilmicosin
D - Procaine penicillin G and gentamicin
E - Vancomycin and atropine (if bronchospasm is observed)
From which animal was this blood sample collected?
One description of a typical heart sound is “lub-dub.”
What makes the first heart sound (S1) (i.e., the “lub”)?
A - Atrial contraction
B - Rapid atrial and auricular expansion due to cranial and caudal vena cavae contraction
C - Aortic and pulmonic valves shut and the mitral and tricuspid valves open
D - Closure of atrioventricular valves, opening of semilunar valves
E - End of rapid ventricular filling period
A five-year-old female spayed Cocker Spaniel is presented with a drooping right ear and lip and drooling.
There is ptosis OD (right eye) but the remainder of the physical exam is unremarkable. She is otherwise bright, alert, and responsive.
What anatomic structure is damaged?
A - Trigeminal nerve
B - Facial nerve
C - Left side inner ear
D - Left side medulla, motor tract
E - Right side cranial cervical ganglion
A 6-year old West Highland White Terrier comes in to see you for the mucopurulent ocular discharge as seen in the photo below. A Schirmer tear test shows no tear production. What is the treatment of choice for chronic canine keratoconjunctivitis sicca?
A) Systemic cyclosporine and antibiotics
B) Topical cyclosporine and systemic corticosteroids
C) Systemic antibiotics and corticosteroids
D) Topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid
The correct answer is topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid. The treatment of KCS is aimed at reducing immune destruction of the lacrimal glands. Topical cyclosporine (Optimmune) and a topical steroid (frequently in a triple antibiotic/steroid ointment) are the treatment of choice. You should be cautious using steroids in acute cases due to the risk of corneal ulceration.
You are asked to perform a necropsy on a 17-year old Standardbred mare on a large horse ranch. Although not related to the cause of death, you notice the parasite shown in the image within the stomach. You tell the owner that this parasite is also responsible for the eggs that he sees seasonally on the hair of the front legs of his horses. The owner asks what should be done about this. You discuss the importance of promptly cleaning up feces and transporting feces away. In addition, which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for ongoing control of this parasite?
A) Administer fenbendazole twice annually, once in the early summer and again in late summer
B) Administer ivermectin twice annually, once in the early spring and again in the winter
C) There is no need to treat these parasites because they are not associated with disease in horses
D) Administer fenbendazole twice annually, once in the early spring and again in the fall
E) Administer ivermectin twice annually, once in the early summer and again in the fall
This case describes the appearance of the horse bot fly, Gasterophilus spp. Gasterophilus is frequently asymptomatic but treatment is recommended because bots can cause gastritis and frequently are a source of annoyance and stress to horses. In addition, the larval instars can cause stomatitis, and colic.
The key to answering this question regarding optimal treatment and management is an understanding of the Gasterophilus life cycle. Gasterophilus undergoes complete metamorphosis, including three larval instars and only one generation is produced per year. The general cycle typically begins with the female ovipositing 150-1,000 eggs on a horse during the early summer months directly on single hairs of the horse’s front legs (especially around the cannon bone area) as well as the abdomen, flanks, and shoulders. The eggs are approximately 1-2mm long and are pale to grayish yellow attached near the tip of the hair.
The eggs develop into first instar larvae within five days and they are stimulated to emerge by the horse licking or biting at the fully developed eggs. The larvae then crawl to the mouth or are ingested and subsequently bury themselves in the tongue or gingiva and remain for approximately 28 days. The larvae molt to the second stage and move into the stomach. The second and later third stage larvae typically attach to the lining of the stomach in the non-glandular portion near the junction of the esophageal and cardiac regions where they remain immobile for the following 9 to 12 months.
The third instar larvae are relatively large, between 1-2cm long with a rounded body, narrow, hooked mouthparts, and spines. The hooked mouthparts enable the larvae to securely attach to the lining of the stomach and intestinal tract. After the third instar larvae have matured, they detach from the gastrointestinal tract and pass from the horse’s body in the feces. The larvae burrow into the soil or dried manure where they pupate and remain for the next one to two months. This stage of the life cycle occurs between late winter and early spring.
Based on this life cycle, the recommended management protocol is typically to treat with an avermectin to control adults and all larval stages by administering in the early summer, shortly after any eggs are seen and again in the fall at the end of the botfly season. Such a control program will substantially reduce fly numbers.
You are doing a summer externship in South America and performing physical exams on a variety of animals. You are performing a fundic exam on the eye of a horse and note what appears to be a worm migrating through the conjunctiva (see image). Because of the location and appearance of this parasite, you suspect this is which of the following?
Oxyuris
Dirofilaria
Toxocara
Thelazia
Thelazia is a genus of nematode worms (eyeworms) which are found in the ocular tissues. Adults are usually found in the eyelids, tear glands, tear ducts, or the nictitating membrane. They may be found in the eyeball itself under the conjunctiva or in the vitreous. Thelazia are transmitted by Diptera (flies) which do not bite but feed on tears.
Toxocara, which causes ocular larval migrans, usually causes granulomas which may be seen in the retina and appear more circular.
