Quesmed 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Features of constrictive pericarditis

A

Pericardial rub
Breathlessness
Chest pain
Raised JVP

May have Hx of radiotherapy as this can predispose to it

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2
Q

Most likely route of spread of breast cancer to the spine

A

Haematogneous

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3
Q

Methods of cancer spreading

A

Local invasion
Iatrogenic (surgery)
Haematogenous
Lymphatic

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4
Q

Delayed effects of radiotherapy

A

Increased risk of cancer, e.g. lung from breast cancer radiotherapy
Constrictive pericarditis
Scarring

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5
Q

Signs of testicular cancer
Hyperechoic lesion on USS
Raised aFP
Most likely type of testicular lesion?

A

Non-seminoma testicular cancer

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6
Q

Causes of raised aFP

A
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Pancreatic carcinoma
Neural tube defects
Germ cell tumours (testicular)
Biliary atresia
Chronic hepatitis
Cirrhosis
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7
Q

Prostate radiotherapy can lead to ….

A

Proctitis

May get bleeding per rectum

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8
Q

What type of lung cancer may result in weakness in legs that gets better with movement?

A

Small cell lung cancer resulting in paraneoplastic lambert-Eaton syndrome
Its like Myasthenia but its more in the legs and involves voltage gated channels

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9
Q

What hormone might squamous cell carcinomas of the lung secrete?

A

Parathyroid hormone related peptide

May result in hypercalcaemia

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10
Q

First line treatment of VTE in cancer patients?

A

LMWH for 6 months
1mo at treatment dose and 5 months at 80% dose
Cancer patients are at high risk of VTE because hypercoaguable

Injected into your stomach each day

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11
Q

Lung cancer patient with new clubbing and joint pain, what is this condition called?

A

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteodystrophy
HPOA
Treat by treating the cancer and giving NSAIDs for the pain

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12
Q

Side effects of chemotherapy

A

Peripheral nerve damage (vincristine)
Otoxicity
N+V

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13
Q

Orphan ann nuclei present in which type of cancer histology?

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

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14
Q

Ix for spinal cord compression

A

MRI of the entire spine

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15
Q

Morphine sulphate 30mg BD, how much can you presecibe IR for breakthrough pain?

A

6mg

1/6 of the total (60mg)

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16
Q

First line Mx for ?neutropaenic sepsis

A

IV tazocin STAT

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17
Q

Most common lung cancer in non-smokers

A

Adenocarcinoma

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18
Q

Features of lung adenocarcinoma

A

Pleuritic chest pain
Non-smokers
Peripheral lung
Can present with pleural effusion

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19
Q

Symptoms of hypercalcaemia

A
Confusion
Muscle weakness
Constipation
Abdominal pain
Nausea
Depression
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20
Q

First line Mx of hypercalcaemia

A

Fluid bolus

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21
Q

Causes of confusion in oncology patients

A
Metabolic disturbance (hypoglycaemia, hypercalcaemia)
Infection (pneumonia, UTI)
Metastatic spread to the brain
Anaemia
Intense pain
Side effects of pain medication
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22
Q

Whats the best Ix for cerebral metastases?

A

CT head with contrast

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23
Q

Whats the best Ix for cerebral metastases in a pt with renal failure?

A

Brain MRI

The contrast in CT head with contrast is too bad for the kidneys

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24
Q

Cause of bilateral lung fibrosis (apical)

A

Previous TB

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25
What is T3 in S1Q3T3?
T wave inversion in lead III
26
More positive in lead III than I or II indicates which axis deviation?
Right axis deviation
27
What might you feel with right axis deviation?
Right ventricular heave
28
What do you add to look for a posterior MI?
3 more leads | Do a 15 lead ECG to check for posterior infarction
29
ECG change in WPW
Delta waves (curved upstroke)
30
What is bipartite patella?
Patella is made of 2 bones rather than 1 Normal varient 75% superolateral
31
What causes complete heart block?
Inferior MI
32
What examination finding may you find in complete heart block?
Cannon A waves | Contracting against a closed tricuspid valve because the timings all off
33
Mx of proximal thrombi causing strokes? | Which Ix should you do before hand
Thrombectomy | CT angiogram of the intracranial vessels
34
Features of prion disease
Rapidly progressing dementia | Muscle spasms
35
Ix for prion disease
EEG -> sharp wave complexes | Tonsillar biopsy
36
Features of Steven's Johnson syndrome
Often after starting a new drug Large blisters Mucosal involvement Very unwell
37
Features of subdural haematoma
Gradually worsening cognition Usually in the elderly Crescent shaped hyperdense opacity along the edge
38
Features of extradural haematoma
Lucid interval | Lens shaped hyperdense opacity
39
``` Features of specific focal epilepsy syndromes Temporal Frontal Parietal Occipital ```
Temporal lobe - Automatisms (eg. lip-smacking); déjà vu or jamais vu, emotional disturbance (eg. sudden terror); olfactory, gustatory, or auditory hallucinations. Frontal lobe - Motor features such as Jacksonian features (walks up the arm), dysphasia, or Todd's palsy. Parietal lobe - Sensory symptoms such as tingling and numbness; motor symptoms - due to spread of electrical activity to the pre-central gyrus in the frontal lobe. Occipital lobe - Visual symptoms such as spots and lines in the visual field
40
Management of absence seizures
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for absence seizures.
41
Management of focal seizures
Gabapentin Carbamazepine Phenytoin
42
Good drugs for all seizure types
Lamotrigine | Valproate
43
Patient with limb weakness No sensory loss Reflexes intact Anti-GBM positive
Multifocal motor neuropathy
44
First line investigation for SAH
Non-contrast CT
45
When should you order a high contrast CT rather than a normal CT?
Looking at spaces e.g. bowel
46
Diagnosistic Ix for bronchiectasis
High resolution CT scan
47
First line treatemnt of relapsing remitting MS
Injectable B interferon
48
How does a lesion in the left medial longitudinal fasciculis present in the left eye?
Can't look to the right | This is because the abducens pulls to the right but also the left side adducts to turn the eye
49
How might corticobasal degeneration present?
Unable to follow instructions of movement but can do them voluntarily (because they can't coordinate movement) They also have Parkinsonian symptoms (bradykinesia, rigidity, shuffling gait, tremor It's a Parkinson's + syndrome
50
Features of Friedrich's ataxia
``` Cerebellar issues Peripheral neuropathy high arched foot Difficulty in balance Its a trinucleotide repeat disorder ```
51
Features of Charcot Marie Tooth
``` Neurological issues High arched foot Neuropathy usually goes up the leg Loss of sensation Weakness Its autosomal dominant ```
52
When should ACEi be taken?
At night
53
Side effects of tacrolimus and whats its indication?
Cardiomyopathy, peripheral neuropathy, diabetes, pancytopenia, tremor Transplant
54
Side effects of ciclosporin and whats its indication?
Gingival hypertrophy, hypertrichosis, nephrotoxicity Transplant
55
Mx of acute pulmonary oedema
``` Oxygen Diuretics (Furosemide 20-80mg IV STAT) Nitrates (SL then infusion) Consider: CPAP, inotropes, furosemide infusion Daily weights and daily UEs thereafter ```
56
First line management of mastitis
Flucloxacillin
57
1st line SSRI in children
Fluoxetine
58
Side effects of SSRI
GI upset, peptic ulcer, insomnia, reduced libido The S's Stomach ulcers, sleep, sex, serotonin syndrome
59
GTN spray advice
2 sprays sublinguially with chest pain Repeat after 5 mins Then 5 mins Then call ambulance Can cause headache
60
Maintenance fluid prescribing in children, calculate for 28kg child
- 1st 10kg = 100ml/kg/day = 1000mL - 2nd 10kg = 50ml/kg/day = 500mL - Remaining = 20ml/kg/day = 8kg x 20ml/kg/day = 160mL So 1660 for this child over 24hr
61
How much in a fluid bolus?
500ml over 15minutes
62
What type of drug is tamsulosin?
a blocker | Can cause orthostatic hypotension
63
Mx of orthsostatic hypotension | Conservative medical
Medication review Fluid, salt, compression stockings Medical = midodrine or fludrocortisone
64
Why should you perform an ECG before starting donepezil?
Because it is CI in bradycardia
65
What drug might you give if cancer has ?spread to bone? High calcium for example
Pamidronate aswell as IV fluids for the hypercalcaemia
66
Small pituitary tumour, pt on cabergoline for 1 year, what do you do?
Wean off the dopamine agonist because will probably have made the tumour shrink already
67
An 18 year old female patient with known type 1 diabetes was admitted 4 days previously with DKA. She has been switched to her normal subcutaneous insulin and was due for discharge following diabetic team review. A nurse has taken her blood sugar (9:00am) before breakfast and informs you that her blood glucose is 2.5 she has no symptoms. The patient is alert. What would be the next appropriate step?
Glucogel because her sugar is very low and indicates a hypo Need a fast response so give glucogel DO NOT omit the next dose of insulin (can get rebound hyperglycemia)
68
Which drug can be used in Cushings to decrease levels?
Metyrapone
69
What are the investigations for Cushing's?
To identify cortisol excess: 24 hour urinary free cortisol Low-dose Dexamethasone suppression test Localisation: ``` Plasma ACTH High-dose dexamethasone suppression test Inferior petrosal sinus sampling MRI of the pituitary CT Chest and Abdomen (suspected tumour) ```
70
When might you consider screening for GDM?
High BMI First degree relative with diabetes Previous macrosomia
71
Normal T4 Low TSH High T3 Dx?
T3 toxicosis | Often the predroma for an actual thyroid disease e.g. Graves
72
Drug to reduce symptoms of hyperthyroidism
Propranolol
73
Most important hormone to replace in hypopituitarism
Cortisol
74
Medical treatment for Grave's disease
Carbimazole
75
A 40 year old woman with known Grave's disease has recently been started on treatment with Carbimazole. She has begun to respond to treatment. Unfortunately she has been experiencing problems over the past 1 week with a bad chest infection. Now she has developed symptoms of agitation, confusion, high temperature, palpitations and tachycardia, and vomiting. On examination, she is jaundiced has pulmonary oedema and is clinically dehydrated. What is the likely diagnosis?
``` Thyroid storm High mortality (30-50%) ```
76
Management of thyroid storm
ITU | IV anti-thyroid medication
77
Signs of cocaine overdose
Sweaty Tachycardic DILATED PUPILS (becasue sympathetic!)
78
What is a Stokes-Adams attack?
Sudden attack of bradycardia
79
Mx of Stokes-Adams attacks?
IV atropine
80
Pt with confusion, nausea and vomiting Cherry red skin Dx? Mx?
CO poisoning | Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
81
Major haemorrhage, pt on warfarin, the order of priority for Mx
Major haemorrhage protocol Deal with the bleed by tourniquet if possible IV vit K IV Prothrombin complex (needs the vit K to work!) BLOOD
82
A 60-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with severe, sudden onset chest pain. This was soon associated with weakness in both of his legs. On examination, the patient is found to have a flaccid paraparesis and a new early diastolic murmur that is loudest over the lower left sternal edge. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Aortic dissection | False lumen grows and compresses branches of the aorta
83
Most common cause of bronchiolitis
RSV
84
Signs of respiratory distress
``` Increased RR Use of accessory muscles Intercostal and subcostal recessions Nasal flaring Head bobbing Tracheal tugging Cyanosis Abnormal airway noises ```
85
What is the incubation period for chickenpox
21 days
86
When are children with chickenpox infective?
When the rash appears until they all crust over
87
1st line management of ?intussception?
Abdominal ultrasound | Looking for target sign
88
Management of acute hypoglycaemia. Pt may have injected too much insulin or missed a few meals
If not too serious -> biscuit or lucozade If drowsy and no IV -> IM glucagon If IV access -> dextrose infusion
89
Causes of precocious puberty
Causes of Gonadotrophin-dependent precocious puberty (GDPP): ``` Idiopathic (>90%) Brain neoplasms and cranial radiotherapy Cranial disability conditions such as hydrocephalus, cerebal palsy or post-infection (meningitis) Traumatic head injury Associated with sexual abuse ``` Gonadotrophin independent precocious puberty (GIPP): Ovarian causes: follicular cysts of the ovary, granulosa cell tumours, Leydig's cell tumours, and gonadoblastoma. Testicular causes: Leydig's cell tumours and a defect of luteinising hormone (LH) receptor function (testotoxicosis or familial GIPP). Adrenal causes: 21-hydroxylase congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) in males results in GIPP. CAH in females presents with signs of virilisation (e.g., pubic and axillary hair and clitoromegaly) but no breast development. McCune-Albright syndrome (MAS)
90
What are the WETFLAG criteria?
When you are unsure of the childs weight, can use these criteria for crucial initiatial management ``` Weight: (Age + 4) * 2 Energy: 4J/kg Tube size: (Age/4) + 4 Fluids: 20ml/kg normal saline bolus (10ml/kg if septic, trauma or in heart failure) Lorazepam: 0.1mg/kg Adrenaline: 10 micrograms/kg Glucose: 2ml/kg of 10% dextrose ```
91
Management of nephrotic syndrome
Fluid restriction and reduced salt intake Corticosteroid therapy: prednisolone Human albumin and furosemide
92
Cause of inguinal hernia in children
Failure of the processus vaginalis to obliterate So, there is a patent processes vaginalis
93
Components of a baby check
She is alert, moving all limbs spontaneously, and appears pink. The fontanelles are soft. The chest is clear with heart sounds I and II with no extra sounds or murmurs. You see a red reflex on ophthalmoscopy. Check the hips and genitalia and a general inspection for any abnormalities