qbq new Flashcards

1
Q

Number needed to treat

A

Risk that you’ll get disease with placebo (got/total) - risk that you’ll get it without (got/total). 1 divided by that.

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2
Q

There’s a serological test that is negative in 95% of people without a disease. Used this test on 8 samples who don’t have disease, what is probability of getting at least 1 positive?

A

.98^8 probability of no positives, 1 minus that for probability of at least one

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3
Q

Big organ transplants for GVHD, symptoms?

A

Liver and BM. Skin, liver, and GI are the big symptoms

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4
Q

Someone has a black eschar thing in nose. You think it’s mucormycosis. How do you dx? And if that comes back positive and you treat for it, what should you give them as a supplement?

A

Dx with biopsy –> nonseptate hyphae with right angle branching. Treat with amp B. Need to give K and Mg because Amp B is nephrotoxic and increases distal tubular membrane permeability–> hypoK and hypoMg

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5
Q

Wtf is Cheyne Stokes

A

In CHF. PCO2 allowed to increase too much, then hyperventilate, then too low. Overshooting all over the place

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6
Q

Protein M

A

Major virulence factor for GAS. Allows strep to inhibit phagocytosis and complement activation so can be free in blood

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7
Q

Streptolysin O

A

GAS. Kills PMNs and RBCs, but doesn’t have anything to do with resisting phagocytosis. Also antigen for detection

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8
Q

Streptokinase

A

GAS and meds. In extracellular space: plasminogen –> plasmin to eat up fibrin so strep can move around easier

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9
Q

DNase

A

GAS. In EC space: depolymerizes DNA in PMNs so can move around easier in tissues. Nothing to do with inhibiting phagocytosis though, that’s all protein M

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10
Q

Mechanism for genetic gestational diabetes

A

Pancreas has glucokinase, not just liver! How else does the pancreas sense the amount of glucose around? Lets it all in, converts it all to ATP, then the ATP closes the K channel and voltage calcium opens and insulin released! SO if you have a defective glucokinase, not enough insulin!

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11
Q

How does N-acetylcysteine work as a mucolytic?

A

Cleaves disulfide bonds within glycoproteins –> loosens thick sputum

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12
Q

Main side effect of thiazolidinediones

A

Don’t use with CHF because increased fluid retention. Remember, these are the PPAR gamma guys for decreasing insulin R via increased adiponectin

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13
Q

Cromolyn sodium blocks asthma how?

A

Blocks mast cell degeneration! Nedocromil is same class. NOT muscarinic antagonist, that’s ipatropium bromide!

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14
Q

Beta 2 receptors and K levels?

A

Cause hyperkalemia because K+ can’t go into cells. Insulin does the opposite, puts K+ into cells. BUT beta 2 increases insulin release! Alpha inhibits it.

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15
Q

Acyclovir AE

A

Nephrotoxic because can crystallize, treat with hydration

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16
Q

What is the vegetation of Staph aureus endocarditis consist of?

A

Platelet and fibrin deposition because tissue factor activated by bacterial binding

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17
Q

When do astrocytes come in with stroke? What’s before?

A

2 weeks. Before is microglia (1 week), before that is neutrophils, before that is red neurons (48 hrs)

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18
Q

Borders for thoracentesis in midaxillary, posterior scap, midclavicular

A

Midaxillary = above 9th rib bc of liver. Post scap = 11. Midclavicular = 7th. Always do on lower border bc artery vein and nerve run on upper border

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19
Q

How many BBB does blasto have?

A

1.

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20
Q

Hist, cocc, blasto, are all ____ in ambient temp?

A

Hyphae

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21
Q

Aspergillus = dimorphic? Crypto?

A

Both no. Asp is only hyphae, crypto is only yeast

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22
Q

How does nocardia stain

A

Weakly acid fast and gram +

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23
Q

Wtf is transepithelial potential difference

A

Epi surface compared to fluid. With CF, Cl- trapped inside cell so draws in Na+ –> increased negative charge outside of cell compared to most of the ECF, so increased transepithelial potential difference

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24
Q

Heavy menses, passing clots, palpable mass in abdomen, African American 32 year old woman

A

Leiomyoma (made of uterine SM)

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25
Q

RAS

A

GTP-coupled –> signal transmission from cell membrane –> nucleus. Pro-oncogene in MAP kinase pathway

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26
Q

How does lactulose work?

A

Acidifies gut tube to trap NH4+

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27
Q

Osteomalacia hits what bone deposit?

A

Osteomalacia –> decreased vit D and increased PTH. Stripping bone down and dumping the excessive unmineralized osteiod around normally mineralized trabeculae

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28
Q

Compact vs spongy bone

A

Compact (hard) on outside, spongy (cancellous) on inside. Spongy is network of thin bony trabeculae separated by BM spaces.

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29
Q

Lamellar vs woven bone

A

Lamellar is strong straight parallel. Woven is precursor.

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30
Q

Pt with DM has cramping pain in calf– thinned skin and ulcer on toe, worse with walking

A

Femoral atherosclerosis. Peripheral artery disease

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31
Q

How/where does HPV replicate?

A

In nucleus using host enzymes

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32
Q

Where does pox replicate?

A

In cytosol

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33
Q

Acute onset anemia in African American male treated with a sulfonamide

A

G6PD

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34
Q

Pre or post ANS demyelinated?

A

Post

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35
Q

What is standard error?

A

Stdev/ sqrt (n). Multiple by Z and you get +/- CI

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36
Q

Most common cause of infant pneumonia? Croup?

A

RSV. Parainfluenza. Both paramyxo.

37
Q

MHC I vs II

A

MHC I have TAP to take proteins to ER where MHC I is and then pairs with beta2 microglobulin to take to cell surface. MHC II, antigen loaded following release of invariant chain (clip) in acidified endosome

38
Q

Decreased taste, burning in mouth, lip dryness in a 39 y/o female with microcytic anemia

A

Iron def. Don’t get fucked by symptoms

39
Q

ATP produced by glycolysis vs TCA?

A

5%. 2 vs 38

40
Q

White patches of thinned skin involving labia majora

A

Lichen sclerosis. Autoimmune, can lead to squamous cancer. Use steroids. VS leukoplakia which is white on MUCOSAL surfaces, major not mucosal. And this is thickened, due to EBV

41
Q

Dark urine in a shocky patient with high WBC, then treated with antibiotics and feels better but creatinine is 3.6. Where is the damage?

A

ATN, NOT interstitial nephritis. Renal medulla, because most susceptible to ischemia. Could also get damage from aminoglycoside –> nephrotoxin, would ALSO be ATN

42
Q

What causes Prader WIlli, once and for all

A

Caused by deletion on dad or from total mom, when DAD is lost. Hungry for dad. So Angelman is wanting mom

43
Q

What layer of skin = involved in callus

A

Stratum corneum

44
Q

Scrotal mass that disappears when lying down

A

Varicocele

45
Q

HIV + with proteinuria. Glomerular epithelial enlargement and vacuolization, glomerular cap wall collapse. Tubules show cystic dilation and are filled with proteinaceous material.

A

FSGS. Heroin, HIV, sickle, think FSGS. The enlargement is of the remaining viable epi cells.

46
Q

How do you treat pneumothorax?

A

Chest tube placement. Remember, PEEP can CAUSE it!

47
Q

Fatigue, conjuctival pallor, white patches in gingiva and buccal mucosa, hemorrhage in eyes. What do you expect to see in blood smear?

A

Blasts. Acute leukemia. Immune, blood, and platelets knocked out by proliferating blasts, explaining symptoms

48
Q

Bloody vomiting with hx of alcohol and IV use, decreased BP, abdomen dull to percussion. Decreased Hb, platelets, nl MCV and WBCs. What will the spleen look like?

A

Enlarged red pulp. Cirrhosis –> congestion –> expansion of red pulp of spleen

49
Q

Ectopic lens, osteoporosis, MR, thin hair and fine skin, common thromboses

A

Homocysteinuria–> can’t make cysteine from homocysteine. Also see increased methionine

50
Q

Where are the GI stem cells?

A

Crypts of Lieberkuhn

51
Q

CAAT box is similar to?

A

TATA. Both are promoters/ transcription initiators located 20-80 bps upstream, act as binding sites for RNA poly II

52
Q

Vitamin def with easy bruising?

A

C

53
Q

Another word for shift in flu?

A

Genetic reassortment

54
Q

Pee darkens when pee standing up. Skin is blueish gray. Risks?

A

Alkaptonuria. Homogentisic acid buildup –> arthritis

55
Q

Ethanol + amniotic fluid –> foam

A

Surfactant

56
Q

DNA poly I v III?

A

DNA poly III does most of the work. On lagging strand, DNA poly I does primers in between strands, and then ligase seals up what I did and what III did. Poly I also has 5–>3 exonulcease and III has 3–>5 exonuclease

57
Q

Metoclopromade

A

For gastroparesis in DM. D2 antagonist that enhances ACh. Don’t use with PD

58
Q

Which antibiotics inhibit 23rRNA of 50S subunit

A

Macrolides and clindamycin

59
Q

What causes lactase def in adults?

A

Decreased expression

60
Q

Biochem of tardive dyskinesia

A

Upreg of DA and decreased ACh

61
Q

Veins and lymph draining rectum. How could rectal CA spread to the liver?

A

Sup rectal –> IMV –> portal. Middle rectal –> internal iliac –> caval. Inf rectal –> internal pudendal –> caval. Superior rectum –> inferior mesenteric nodes. Inf rectum –> internal iliac

62
Q

Which amino acids could hang in the inner core of a phospholipid bilayer?

A

Hydrophobic: gly, ala, val, leu, ile, phenylala, tryp, meth, proline

63
Q

Lateral gaze palsy with mucormycosis?

A

Cavernous sinous thrombosis via facial vein system. VI in cavernous sinus

64
Q

Mumps and decreased sex drive?

A

Give testosterone

65
Q

Lumbar lordosis is caused by…

A

Contracture of hip flexores

66
Q

Tumor + nephrotic

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis

67
Q

New onset respiratory acidosis/ hypoxemia in a patient on a ventilator

A

Increased physiologic dead space and/or R-L shunt

68
Q

Red/blue nodule on bladder with increased frequency, urgency, and dyspareunia.

A

Endometriosis, risk for infertility.

69
Q

HIV patient with abdominal pain. On colonoscopy see mucosal erythema, erosions, ulcerations. Histo: enlarged epithelial cells with large ovoid nuclei containing prominent basophilic deposits.

A

CMV colitis. It’s a thing.

70
Q

HIV patient presents with watery diarrhea and see basophilic clusters on surface of intestinal mucosal cells

A

Crypto. Usually CD4 < 200

71
Q

HIV patient presents with blood diarrhea. On colonoscopy, see friable, inflamed mucosa in rectum and sigmoid and neutrophils in crypt lumen.

A

UC. Can have more than one thing!

72
Q

What can you give with niacin to help with an SE?

A

Aspirin. Flushing and vasodilation secondary to PGD2, aspirin inhibits

73
Q

Leucovorin

A

Folic acid

74
Q

Paclitaxel and coronary stents

A

Microtubule inhibitor –> stuck in M phase –> prevents intimal hyperplasia with coronary stents

75
Q

Only RNA viruses that replicate in nucleus

A

Retro and influenza

76
Q

Pec mino

A

Coracoid process of scap to ribs – holds scap against thoracic wall.

77
Q

Spread of pus along psoas leads to abscess where?

A

Groin area.

78
Q

Probenecid

A

Inhibits reabsorption of uric acid AND inhibits secretion of PCN!

79
Q

CDKN2A gene mutation on chrom 9p21

A

Random, I know. p16 –> at risk for melanoma (dysplastic nevus syndrome) because removes inhibition on cyclin dependent kinase 4

80
Q

Pain with flexing hip against resistance

A

Iliopsoas test. Psoas is major hip flexor

81
Q

Construction worker with TMJ that interferes with eating. Difficulty opening and closing jaw

A

Tetanus –> first symptom is usually lockjaw

82
Q

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and lung tumor?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma –> PTHrp –> hypercalcemia and too much calcium makes it so you can’t concentrate urine for some reason (not due to osmotic diuresis).

83
Q

Short alpha helix protein with lots of leucine (every 7th position)

A

Leucine zipper–> binds transcription factor to DNA.

84
Q

Which embryo is cerebellum from?

A

Metencephalon, part of rombencephalon

85
Q

Caspofungin

A

Cell wall inhibitor in fungi. Amp B, nystatin and azoles do membrane.

86
Q

Relative risk reduction

A

Absolute risk control - absolute risk treatment / absolute risk in control. RRR = difference in risk / control risk

87
Q

MAC prophylaxis?

A

Azithromycin

88
Q

Glands dilated and coiled

A

Progesterone, proliferative phase. Estrogen = secretory phase

89
Q

1st line for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine, first line for like everything