Qbank must know 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Indocyanine green (ICG) wavelength

A

ICG dye absorbs light of wavelength 805nm and reflects light of wavelength 835nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

botulinum toxin (mechanism)

A

Botulinum toxin inhibits the release of ACh from PREsynaptic nerve terminals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

largest cranial nerve is:

A

the trigeminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sympathetic trunk extends

A

extends from the base of the skull to the coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

sympathetic trunk enters the thorax

A

It enters the thorax through the neck of the first rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CMO cystoid macular oedema. Which retinal layer accounts for the petalloid appearance in fluorescein angiography?

A

Outer plexiform layer

The radiating fibres of Henle in the outer plexiform layer lead to the cystic spaces in CMO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Jaw opening muscles

A

lateral pterygoid and mylohyoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Short posterior ciliary artery supply

A

choroid and and outer4 layers of retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Argyll Robertson pupil

A

light near dissociation

light absent
near present

defect afferant pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Adie’s tonic pupil

A

mid dilated
lesion in ciliary ganglion

sluggish everyway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

corneal clarify factors

A

regular arrangement of epithelium
regular arrangement of lamellar laminin (GAG keratan sulphate)
Endothelial pump Action
avascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

diameter of the adult cornea

A

11.7 mm horizontally and 10.6 mm vertically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diploë

A

is the name of the spongy bone that separates tables of compact bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sutures

A

immobile, rigid articulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Site of opening into nose: Middle meatus
? sinus

A

Frontal
Maxillary
Ethmoidal (anterior and middle groups)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Site of opening into nose: Superior meatus ? sinus

A

Ethmoidal (posterior group)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Site of opening into nose: recess or superior meatus ? sinus

A

Sphenoidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

posterior blepharitis

A

Meibomian gland dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Meibomian glands

A

are modified sebaceous glands which produce an oily substance that forms part of the precorneal tear film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

chalazion

A

A chalazion is a lipogranulomatous inflammatory cyst resulting from a blocked
Meibomian gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

important differences between extraocular muscles and normal skeletal
muscle

A

1.The connective tissue of the extraocular muscles,
including the epimysium (a sheath surrounding the whole muscle) is generally thin
and delicate by comparison

2.The muscle fbres are more loosely packed, with the
larger diameter (10–40 μm) fbres occupying the centre and the smaller fbres (5–15
μm) placed peripherally in the muscle.

3.Extraocular muscle also has many specialised
sensory and proprioceptive endings, including long muscle spindles almost 1 mm in
length, which provide feedback about muscle activity to the central nervous system

Lastly, extraocular muscle is more vascular than normal skeletal muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Schwalbe’s line marks the termination of

A

Descemet’s membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

lens capsule is thinnest at

A

Posterior pole

posterior pole 2–3 µm
The anterior pole is 9–14 µm
peri-zonular region the capsule is 17–28 µm thick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

vitreous base attaches

A

peripheral retina and pars plana

vitreous base is a three-dimensional band that extends approximately 2 mm
either side of the ora serrata and is usually attached to the peripheral retina and pars plana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bruch’s membrane is composed of 5 layers (basement)

A

the basement membrane of the choriocapillaris, an outer collagenous layer, an elastin layer, an inner collagenous layer and the basement membrane of the RPE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

lateral canthal tendon inserts into

A

Whitnall’s tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Whitnall’s tubercle

A

is a small prominence of bone lying just inside the lateral orbital rim. Eisler’s fat pad lies immediately anterior to the lateral canthal tendon, deep to the orbital septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Nerve innervation of iris (parasympathetic, sympathetic, and sensory)

A

The parasympathetic nerves supplying the iris originate in the Edinger–Westphal nucleus and synapse in the ciliary ganglion. Their postganglionic fibres travel via the
short ciliary nerves and supply the sphincter pupillae muscle

The dilator pupillae is predominantly innervated by unmyelinated sympathetic fibres originating in the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion

The sensory innervation of the iris is via both the long and short ciliary nerves, which derive from the nasociliary nerve (and ultimately V1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

optic canal connects

A

middle cranial fossa and the orbital apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

posterior to anterior orientation of the optic canal

A

Inferolateral

posterior to anterior the optic canal runs slightly inferiorly and around 36o
laterally through the sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

optic canal narrowest part

A

orbital opening and widens posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ciliary body

A

ciliary body has a greater anteroposterior length temporally than nasally, and is generally at its longest inferotemporally. It varies with the size of the globe, measuring 5.6–6.3 mm temporally and 4.6–5.2 mm nasally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A The blood supply to the ciliary body

A

via the anterior ciliary arteries and the long posterior ciliary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

middle radial layer of the ciliary muscle is continuous with

A

corneoscleral meshwork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

outer longitudinal layer of the ciliary muscle attaches

A

scleral spur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The ciliary body stroma lies between

A

ciliary body stroma lies between the ciliary muscle and the ciliary epithelium.

37
Q

Iris capillaries are fenestrated/ non-fenestrated

A

Iris capillaries are non-fenestrated with
tight junctions and pericytes, contributing to the blood–ocular barrier

38
Q

Iris blood supply

A

The major arterial circle (which is often incomplete) derives its blood supply from the anterior ciliary arteries (which travel anteriorly with the extraocular muscles before piercing the sclera)
and the long posterior ciliary arteries (which pierce the sclera near the
optic nerve and run anteriorly between the sclera and choroid to the ciliary body)

The minor arterial circle of the iris is at the level of the collarette, and is also often
incomplete. From here vessels continue inwards to the pupillary border.

39
Q

lymphatic drainage
1) right side of the head and neck, and the right arm
2) the rest of the body

A

1) right lymphatic duct - right subclavian vein
2) thoracic duct - left subclavian vein

The blood from the subclavian veins returns to the heart via the brachiocephalic
veins and superior vena cava

40
Q

three principal layers (tunica) of blood vessels

A
  1. Intima
  2. Media
  3. Adventitia

The intima contains the endothelium supported by the internal elastic lamina. The
latter is typically fragmented in giant cell arteritis

The media is the main muscular layer of the vessel, containing smooth muscle cells,
and varying amounts of elastic fibres (principally in medium to large arteries).

The adventitia (sometimes called tunica externa) is the MAIN connective tissue layer, and in arteries this contains the external elastic lamina.

41
Q

Veins vs artery

A

Veins have a thinner media, larger lumen and contain proportionally less muscle
and less elastic tissue than arteries.

42
Q

plasma vs aqueous

A
  • Higher levels of lactate and ascorbate
  • Similar concentrations of sodium, potassium and magnesium;
  • Slightly lower levels of bicarbonate;
  • Lower levels of glucose and calcium (about half that of plasma), and much lower levels of albumin.
43
Q

Transcription

A

DNA → RNA

44
Q

Translation

A

RNA → peptide formation

45
Q

Matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) are dependent endopeptidases

A

zinc and calcium-dependent endopeptidases

46
Q

MMPs are released by

A

neutrophils during the acute inflammatory response (they mediate cell and tissue damage, along with free radicals from the
respiratory burst),

and also by cells in normal tissues for growth, maintenance,
repair and remodelling.

47
Q

Matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) are keep in check by

A

They are kept in check by endogenous tissue inhibitors of MMPs (TIMPs).
Endogenous inhibitors called TIMPs are present in normal tissues

48
Q

which growth factor stimulates the differentiation of anterior lens epithelial cells into lens fibres.

A

Fibroblast growth factor (FGF) is one of the principal factors that stimulates
the differentiation of anterior lens epithelial cells into lens fibres.

49
Q

weight of the lens is protein

A

1/3

50
Q

90% of the lens protein

A

crystallins

51
Q

Differentiation of anterior lens epithelial cells into lens fibres describe

A

This change is characterised by elongation, withdrawal from the cell cycle, expression of large amounts of crystallins and eventually the loss of organelles and the nucleus.

52
Q

Lens fibres are densely packed with cytoplasmic interdigitations, and intercellular,
gap junction-like channels formed by

A

MIP26 (main intrinsic polypeptide 26),
which was subsequently recognized as an aquaporin and named aquaporin-0

53
Q

The genes encoding the two types of α-crystallin (known as αA and αB) are found
on chromosomes

A

21 and 11

The genes encoding the two types of α-crystallin (known as αA and αB) are found
on chromosomes 21 and 11, respectively

54
Q

The corneal endothelial cell pump moves what (sodium/ potassium) from the stroma to the aqueous by active transport

A

Sodium and bicarbonate

The corneal endothelial cell pump moves sodium and bicarbonate from the stroma to the aqueous by active transport. This is mediated by a sodium/potassium-dependent ATPase and a bicarbonate-dependent ATPase, and is facilitated by co-transporters.

55
Q

Potassium and chloride move to the aqueous predominantly by

A

passive diffusion

56
Q

Pericyte

A

Pericytes are contractile cells embedded in the basement membrane of vessels, to which they contribute. They are involved in a number of regulatory functions, communicating with the endothelial cells by paracrine signalling and direct contact.

They play a key role in maintaining the blood–brain barrier, where they regulate permeability. They may also have a role in controlling cerebral blood flow.

57
Q

Pericyte coverage is highest in

A

Retinal vessels

Pericyte coverage is highest in the retinal vessels, with a relative frequency of 1:1
pericytes to endothelial cells. This may be because of the meticulous metabolic
demands of the retina and the requirement to maintain the blood–retinal barrier.

58
Q

Melatonin is synthesized by photoreceptors in conditions of light/ darkness

A

darkness

Melatonin is synthesized by photoreceptors
in conditions of darkness and suppresses dopamine production

59
Q

Rod outer segments complete their renewal cycle

A

About 10% of the rod outer segment is phagocytosed daily, and it takes 9–10 days
for the renewal cycle to be complete

60
Q

Colobomas are

A

Colobomas are a result of failed or incomplete closure of the embryonic optic
fissure, and are thus found inferonasally

61
Q

Main constituents of adult vitreous are (collagen)

A

Other than water, the main constituents of adult vitreous are type II collagen
and hyaluronate

62
Q

which part of vitreous first to liquefy?

A

The central vitreous is the first to liquefy. The vitreous reduces in size, and liquefied
vitreous (from pooling of hyaluronate) escapes into the subhyaloid space, leading to
posterior vitreous detachment.

63
Q

mitochondrial-inherited condition (2)

A

Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy
Kearns–Sayre syndrome

64
Q

Histones and DNA charge

A

Histones have a high positive charge, allowing them to associate with DNA
which has a negative charge

65
Q

Histone contains

A

Lysine and arginine

Lysine and arginine are positively charged
(basic) amino acids, and are found in large numbers in histones

66
Q

corneal dystrophy (inheritance)

A

it is safe to assume that a corneal dystrophy is autosomal dominant
Apart from macular corneal dystrophy, which is autosomal
recessive

67
Q

Reis–Buckler is characterised by / stain

A

Reis–Buckler is characterised by granular deposits in the epithelial basement
membrane. These stain with Masson’s trichrome. It manifests clinically as
recurrent corneal erosion and corneal opacification which may require corneal
grafting

68
Q

Antigen presenting cells (APCs) include

A

monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, some B cells, and activated endothelial cells. They constitutively express MHC class II molecules.

NOT T CELLS

69
Q

MHC class I molecules are present on

A

every nucleated cell

HLA-B27 is an example of an MHC class I molecule.

70
Q

MHC class II molecules are only expressed by

A

antigen presenting cells (APC)

71
Q

The electrooculogram (EOG) measures the

A

resting electrical potential between the retinal
pigment epithelium (electrically negative) and cornea (positive)

CORNEA POSITIVE

72
Q

involved in colour vision

A

P pathway. area V8 of visual cortex . geniculate layer 3-6

73
Q

Purkinje shift

A

Purkinje shift refers to a shift in peak spectral sensitivity, from 555 nm to 505 nm, with dark adaptation. Dark adaptation does increase light sensitivity by a factor of 1,000, but this is not the Purkinje shift.

74
Q

Light adaptation (time)

A

5 minutes

75
Q

dark adaptation (time)

A

20 minutes

76
Q

Dark adaptation

A

It is biphasic The dark adaptation time is related to the time required to build up rhodopsin stores

77
Q

decrease levels of IL-2

A

Cyclosporin and tacrolimus

78
Q

anti-TNF agents

A

Infliximab and etanercept

79
Q

monoclonal antibody against the CD20 protein

A

Rituximab

80
Q

During a cataract operation, the intraocular lens is accidentally placed in the sulcus rather than within the capsular bag.

This will result in:

A

myopic shift

The lens is placed more anteriorly and therefore results in a myopic shift compared to the predicted outcome.

81
Q

disciform scar

A

fibrous metaplasia of RPE cells with deposition of collagen causing the disc-shaped mass

82
Q

retinoic acid

A

Hox gene

83
Q

FMR-1 gene

A

Fragile-X Syndrome

84
Q

PAX-3 gene

A

Klein-Waardenburg syndrome

syndrome is characterised by pigmentary abnormalities such as hair and iris hypopigmentation, dystopia canthorum and congenital sensorineural hearing loss.

85
Q

Rb gene

A

retinoblastoma

86
Q

Bcl-2

A

anti-apoptotic gene

87
Q

corneal stroma is composed of ??? layers of flattened collagenous lamella

A

200-250 layers

The corneal stroma is composed of 200-250 layers of flattened collagenous lamellae

88
Q

major functions of the complement system

A

three main functions:
opsonisation,
cytolysis of pathogenic organisms,
production of inflammatory mediators

Complement plays no role in presenting antigens

89
Q
A