Q3: Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnostic /treatment Mallory vs booger have

A

Mallory
Dx: upper GI endoscopy
Tx: acid suppression , most heal spontaneous

Boerhaave
Dx: esophagography or CT with water soluble contrast
Tx: NPo, abx broad and POI and emergency surgery

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2
Q

Bacterial meningitis in >1 month old
- causes
- symptoms
- management

A

S. Pneu or N. Mening

  • younger babies would have irritable, febrile, bulging/full fontanelas, poor feeding
    older kids- increased intracranial pressure signs such as headache , vomiting and AMS
  • Management
    DO blood cultures first
    Second - LP If no concerning signs of elevated ICP or if there’s sign of ICP and font are open
    Second -closed fontanelles with signs of elevated ICP, or rapid deterioration GIVE EMPIRIC ABX (3rd gen) then do BRAIN CT
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3
Q

Screening for osteoporosis

A

Dxa starting at 65 BUT if RF for osteoporosis (Weight<127, smoking , parental history of hip fracture, early menopause , increased alcohol do FRAX and if high risk do DXA at earlier age

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4
Q

Cardiovascular , GI and hematologic side effects of androgen abuse

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy, inc ldl and Dec hdl,

polycythemia (elevated Hematocrit ) erythrocytoctosis maybe hypercoagulabiltiy

Gi/ hepatotoxic so enlarged liver , dyslipidemia

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5
Q

Ehlers vs Marfans
- MOI and Genetics
-Skin
- MSK
-cardiac
-other

A

Ehlers
- AD/ COL5A1/2 mutation impaired processing of connective tissue
-Skin: hyperextended and transparent, easy brusising bc tissues fragile , poor healing so atrophic cigarette burn scars
MSK- joint hyper mobility, pectins excav, scoliosis, high arched palate
Cardiac- MVP
OTHER- abdominal and inguinal hernias ; uterine prolapse

Marfans

AD/ FBN1 fibrillin 1mutation so CT defects
-Skin: striae
MSK- joint hyper mobility, pectus carinatum/excav, scoliosis, talk with long extremities
Cardiac- MVP, progressive aortic root dilation or other aortic diseases (regurgitation and dissection
OTHER- lens and retinal detachment; spontaneous pneumothorax

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6
Q

52 yo female with vulvar pruiritus for past week plus frequent urination, dysuria and nocturia . Similar symptoms 4 times in past 3 months. Thick white discharge and microscopy reveals pseudohyphae other risk factors for this diagnosis
Which if the following additional testing should be done?
A. FSHIevel
B. Hemoglobin A1c
C. Nucleic acid amplification testing
D. Pap test
E. Vulvar biopsy

A

Hemoglobin A1c
- vulvovagial candiadias
RF - high estrogen (pregnancy)? Immunosuppressive, DIABETEs
Sxs- itching and dysuria

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7
Q

13440
A 31-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 8 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department due to persistent nausea, nonbloody vomiting, epigastric pain, and dizziness. The patient has been unable to toferate any oral intake for tv past day. This pregnancy was conceived through intrauterine insemination with donor sperm. She has a history of esophageal reflux for which she takes an over-the-counter antacid. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure la/ Im Hig, and pulse is 104/min. Current weight is 55 kg (121.3 b), a decrease of 2 kg (4.4 iD) from her prepregnancy wo Cardiac examination shows tachycardia but a regular rhythm with no murmurs. The thyroid is nonenlarged and has no palpable masses. Abdominal examination shows epigastric tenderness with deep palpation but no rebound, guarding, or palpable masses. Ultrasound confirms an 8-week intrauterine gestation with a normal fetal heartbeat. Wiich of the tollow is the best next step in management of this patient? after what next
A. 24-hour-urine-protein eellection
B. Quantitative-B-AGG-level
C. Serum-F3-and-74 levels
D. Upper endoscopy
E. Urinalysis for ketones

A

E. Urinalysis for ketones

Hperemesis gravidarum
RF: previous history, multi gestation, mole
-dx: clinically when severe persistent n/v, signs of hypotension (dry MM, orthostatic hypotension, weight loss of >5% prepregnancy weight) but this patient has subtle signs so check ketones in urine. Decreased intake thereforE LOW GLUCOSE which is converted to ketones
Tx: hospitalize especially if there’s KETONURIA

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8
Q

14/40
N-yearold man comes to the office due to vision disturbances. The patient has a history of ankylosing spondylitis and serienced severe pain and redness of the eyes a month ago. Evaluation at that time showed acute anterior uveilie and solone eye drops were prescribed, which the patient sill uses. The eye symptoms resolved within a weak of treatment, er the past several days the patient has had blurry vision and has needed more light to read. He has also exp
The patient has no other medical conditions, and his only other prescribed medication is naproxen
needed. Vital signs are within normal limits. Ocular examination shows nonerythematous conjunctiva, clear comes, and no hypopyon or opäcities of the lenses. Funduscopic examination is normal. The remainder of the physical examination, including neurologic examination, shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A Fuorescein eye stain
B. Lumbar-puncture
C. MRIefthe-brain
D. No further- intervention
E Tonometry

A

Tononetry
- steroid induced open angle glaucoma which raised the IOP because it decreased outflow of aqueous humor
- sxs/ insidious loss of peripheral vision due to atrophy of optic nerve (enlarged optic cup so increased cup to disc ratio )
Maybe central blurriness due to corneal edema

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9
Q

16/40 ~
REVIEW
A 27-year-old woman comes to the office due to a headache over the past 2 weeks. The patient describes the headache as a
“dull ache,” characterizes it as intermittent and associated with nausea and vomiting, and rates the pain as 5 on a scale of O-
10. She is afobrile and has never had a headache like this before. The patient has no visual symptoms. Her only medication
is oral contraceptive
Her menses are regular, and she has never been pregnant. The patient has no family history of
similar conditions. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F), blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg, pulse Is 80/min, and respirations are 15/min. BMI is 34 kg/mi. Neurologic examination is normal except for papilledema seen on funduscopy: there are no signs of meningeal irritation. MRI and magnetic resonance venography (MRV) of the head are normal. Which of the following complications is likely to develop if this patient is left untreated?
RF, pathophysiology, symptoms diagnostic , treatment

O A. Blindness
O B. Intracranial bleeding
O C. Paralysis
O D. Seizures
O E. Urinary incontinence

A

BLINDNESS

Idiopathic intrancial hypertension
- impaired CSF Reab in Arac granulation leading to increased ICP
- RF: childbearing age , obese/recent weight gain, meds(vita , retinoids, tetracycline, GH, OCP)
- symptoms : signs of ICP( ha, n/v papilladema), visual changes because optic nerve is compressed with further increased ICP from straining bending over , pulsátiles tinnitus. Retrobulbar pain/neck and back pain
Diag- MRI to rule out hydrocephalus and mass lesions, MR venography to rule out venous thrombosis which can be caused by OBESITY AND OCP, LP: elevated opening pressure, eye exam: papilladema and enlarged blind spots

Tx - weight loss or weight loss surgery , carbonic anhydrase inhibitors(topiramate and acetazolamide
Last resort - shunt or optic nerve sheath fenestratiin if progressive visual problems even with other treatments

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10
Q

patient had nasal packing and subsequently developed rapid-onset shock (fever, hypotension), a diffuse macular rash maybe on palms and soles , and gastrointestinal symptoms (N/V), neurologic (eg, confusion, dizziness, seizure), and hematologic (eg, thrombocytopenia)

Diagnosis
Pathophysiology
Treatment

A

indicating toxic shock syndrome (TSS).

TSS is most often linked to growth of Staphylococcus aureus in a foreign body (eg, tampons, nasal packing) or skin/wound infection. It is caused by the refease of bacterial exotoxins (eg.
TSS toxin-1) that indiscriminately activate T cells, leading to a massive release of inflammatory cytokines.
Management includes supportive therapy (eg, intravenous fluids), foreign body removal, and broad-spectrum antibiotics.

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11
Q

Pregnant women with SCD are at increased risk of ? + management

A

PREECLAMPSIA, placental abruption, FGR , preterm delivery

Management: frequent prenatal visits, baseline 24 hour urine collection and protein level, low dose ASA

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12
Q

A 64-year-old woman is brought to the emergéncy department due to sudden-onset double vision for the past few hours. has had no headache, vertigo, or slurring of speech and no focal weakness or numbness. The patient has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus with poor glycemic control, and chronic kidney disease. She smokes cigarettes but does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. Physical examination shows plosis of her right eye. The right eyelid is manually elevated, showing the right eye in a
hdduction
d. Left extraocular movements are normal in all
directions. Bilateral pupils are equal and reactive to light. The remainder of the neurologic examination is normal.
Which of
the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s current condition?
A. Brain demyelination
B. La ar-infaretion
infiltration
D. Myoneural junction diserder
E. Nerve-empression
F. Nerve inflammation
G. Nerve ischemia

A

NERVE ISCHEMIA

. The most common cause of CN Ill palsy in adults is ischemic neuropathy due to poorly controlled diabetes mellitus.

CN III has 2 major components as follows:
• Inner somatic fibers - innervate the levator muscle of the eyelid and 4 of the extraocular muscles (EOMs) (superior rectus, medial rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique)
• Superficial parasympathetic fibers - innervate the sphincter of the iris and the ciliary muscles (controlling pupil constriction).
Because the inner somatic fibers are farther from the blood supply, they are more susceptible to ischemic injury. Therefore patients with ischemic CN III palsy typically have paralysis of the levator muscle (ptosis) and 4 EOMs (*down-and-out-gaze”) with preserved pupillary response.

NERVE INGLAMMATION FROM VASCULITIS OR AI disease

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13
Q

Condylomata accuminata treatment and prevention

A

Treatment-
• Chemical: podophyllin resin, trichloroacetic acid

Immunologic: imiquimod
Surgical: cryotherapy, laser therapy, excision

Prevention
Vaccination
Barrier contraception

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14
Q

22/40~
REVIE
A 38-year-old woman comes to the office with cough and blood-tinged sputum. She developed malaise, nasal congestion, sore throat, and dry cough 10 days ago. Most of her symptome improved, but the cough persisted and became productive a yellowish aputum. For the past 2 days, she has had several episodes of blood-linged sputum. The patient has no chest pal except the discomfort from coughing. Her appetite Is normal, and she has no weight loss. She feels arious as she has never had blood in the sputum before. She is a nonsmoker, has no other medical problems, and denies international trave Her vaccinations are up to date. The patient’s temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), Staod pressure is 132/80 mm Hg. pulse is 821 and respirations are 18/min. Pulse oximetry is 98% on room air. Her BMI Is 29 kg/m?, and the oropharynx is clear. Scatt bilateral wheezes and crackles that clear with coughing are heard on chest auscultatior. Chest X-ray reveals fields. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A. Bronchoscopy
B. 6F-sean-ofthe chest
C. Pulmonary function tests
D. Sputum acid-fast stain
E. Sputum-eytology
F. Sputum Gram stain and culture
G. Symptomatie treatment only

A

Supportive **NO ANTIBIOTICS **

Acute bronchitis- caused by recent upper respiratory. Infection now have cough or persistent cough for 5days - 3 weeks without fever or chills, with chest discomfort, with Rhonchi/wheezing , with yellow purulent sputum and/or small amounts of blood in sputum

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15
Q

Following artificial rupture of membranes, this patient developed increasing pain and anxiety with rapid-onset hypotension, tachycardia, and fetal heart rate decelerations. This constellation of findings is concerning for and NBSIM

A

Send coagulations studies

amniotic fluid embolism syndrome (AFES), a rare but catastrophic obstetric emergency that typically occurs during labor or immediately postpartum.
When amniotic fluid enters maternal circulation, it can initiate a massive anaphylactoid reaction that results in the classic triad of hypoxemia (eg, respiratory failure, pulmonary edema), hypotension, and disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC). This inflammatory reaction generates pulmonary vasoconstrictors (increased respirations and decreased oxygen saturation) and prostaglandins (tense uterus with increasing pain), leading to fetal acidosis (fetal decelerations).
DIC, a hallmark of AFES, occurs when amniotic fluid activates both factor VIl and platelets, triggering the coagulation cascade. Persistent bleeding at line sites (ie, intravenous lines, epidural catheter) is often the earliest clue to a developing coagulopathy, which is confirmed with urgent coagulation studies. This allows for early and aggressive treatment with massive transfusion to reverse the consumptive coagulopathy to prevent devastating hemorrhage.
Additional management focuses on supportive care of the mother to correct the hypoxemia (eg, oxygen, intubation, nechanical ventilation) and hypotension (eg, vasopressors), with prompt delivery of the infant. Despite early recognition, ft romen survive, and those who do have a high incidence of neurologic damage.

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16
Q

He has had no chest pain
A 80-yoar-old man comes to the office due to
or breathlossnoss. The patient has a 16-year history of lype 2 diabetes mellitus, which is currently managed with exercise. dietary modifcation, and oral medications. A month ago, hie hemoglobin Ate was 6.9%. Temperature (98.6 F), bP 146/87 mm Hg, pulso is 76/min, and respirations 15/min. Physical examination shove periorbital edema and bilateral pitting edema around the ankles. The remainder of the examination le normal. Laboratory
Serum chemistry
Sodium
140 mEg/L
Potassium
4.3 mEg/L
Bicarbonate
20 mEg/L
Blood glucose
120 mg/dL.
Blood urea nitrogen
37 mg/dl
Creatinine
2.4 mg/dl.
Total cholesterol
300 mg/dL

Bicarbonate
20 mEG/L
Blood glucose
120 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen
37 mg/dL
Creatinine
2.4 mg/dL
Total cholestero
300 mg/dL
ECG is normal. Urine protein is 3,700 mg/24 hr. Estimated glomerular filtration rate is 28 ml/min/1.73 m. Which of th following measures would have the greatest impact in slowing the progression of this patient’s kidney disease?
A. Aggressive lipid management
O B. Aspirin therapy
O C. Intensive blood pressure control
O D. Intensive glycemic control with insulin
O E. Very-low-protein diet

A

Intensive blood pressure control

This patient has long-standing type 2 diabetes mellitus complicated by significant diabetic kidney disease (DKD). Initially.
DKD is characterized by hyperfiltration (le, increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR]); however, as the disease progresses.
GFR decreases, manifesting as a rising serum creatinine level. Concurrently, glomerular protein losses lead to moderately increased albuminuria (urine protein excretion 30-300 mg/24 hr; previously termed microalbuminuria) and eventually severely increased albuminuria (>300 mg/24 hr). As in this patient, advanced DD can present with frank proteinuria and nephrotic syndrome.
In patients with type 2 diabetes, intensive blood pressure control is associated with reduced progression of DKD; a blood pressure (BP) target of <130/80 mm Hg is recommended for most patients. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are the preferred antihypertensive drugs; these agents lower systemic and intraglomerular pressures, which may be renoprotective.

26/40~
Persistent albuminuria (>3 months apart)
Clinical findings
Initial hyperfiltration followed by progressive decline in GFR
Hypertension usually present
Screen at the time of diagnosis in type 2 DM
• Screen 5 years after the diagriosis in type 1 DM
Evaluation
• Serum creatinine
• Urine spot albumin to creatinine ratio (or 24-hour urine proteín)
Urinalysis/urine microscopy (to exclude other causes)
• Intensive glycemic control
• Target hemoglobin A1c <7% (for most patients)
• SGLT2 inhibitor preferred; GLP-1 agonist
• Blood pressure control
Management/prevention
• Target blood pressure <130/80 mm Hg
• ACE inhibitor preferred (or angiotensin II receptor blocke
• General cardiovascular risk management
• Smoking cessation
• Lipid management

17
Q

A 19-year-old man comes to the office due to a change in bowel habits.
• Six months ago, the patient began having loose.
watery stools with increased frequency to approximately 6 times daily. In addition, he has had crampy, intermittent abdominal pain that usually improves after defecation. No nausea, vorting, melena, fevers, night sweats, or weight loss has occurred.
The patient vacationed in South America 12 months ago. He does not use tobacco or alcohol.
Temperature Is 37.4 C (99.3
F). blood pressure is 138/87 mm Hg, puise is 75/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient appears comfortable and Is not in acute distross. There is no conjunctival pallor, scleral icterus, or palpable fymphadonopathy. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. The abdomen is nontender and nondistended. Rectal examination reveals scant blood in the stool but no hemorrhoids or fissures. Laboratory results are as follows:

Complete blood count
Hemoglobin low 11.7
Platelets 435 K
C-reactive protein
12.1 mg/L (<3 mg/L.)

Stool studies are negative for ova and parasites as well as Clostridioides (formerly Clostridium) diffielle. Which of the
following is the best next step in management?
A. Check-fecal-caiproteotin
B. Check-serum-tissue transgiutaminase
C. Obtain-e-barium-enema
D. Obtein-a-colonoscopy
E. Obtain a CT of the abdomen and pelvis O F. Preseribe-e-course-of-azithromyein
O G. Recommend loperamide and a low FODMAP diet

A

Obtain colonoscopy to differentiate UC from Chrons
- both have diarrhea, abdominal pain, anemia, elevated inflammatory markers

18
Q

Precocious puberty
- pathophysiology
- diagnostic
- treatment (central!

Premature thelarche /adrenarxhe
- diagnostic

A

Central
- activation of the HPG axis then increase fsh and lh
- dx: check bone age (advanced bone age and increased skeletal growth/ growth spurt
- Tx: Gnrh analog

Peripheral - final or adrenal release of sex hormones, low fsh and lh
- diagnostic dx: check bone age (advanced bone age and increased skeletal growth/ growth spurt

Premature thelarche /adrenarxhe
- diagnostic - bone age (Normal) with isolated breast development or isolated pubic hair development

19
Q

6 week old with inconsolable crying continuously up to ; hours every evening for the past 3 weeks

Diagnosis
Pathophysiology
Treatment

A

Colic - peaks at 6 weeks to 3-4 months
- uncontrollable crying for >3= days / week , >=3 hours per day
- treatment : soothing technique
- pathophysiology unknown guy immaturity or suboptimal feeding techniques

20
Q

Kawasaki

NBSIM (not medications)
Séquelae prognosis

A

Echo (at risk for coronary aneurysm especially if fever for weeks or delay in treatment ) - repeat agin in a few weeks becuase diameter can continue to increase after acute illness

If have large aneurysms can lead to MI OR coronary artery stenosis or thrombosis but most aneurysms regresses over years

21
Q

Management of hemorrhoids

A

Initial - inc fluid and fiber, Dec fat and etoh
Topical agents
Last resort - band ligation and hemorrhoidectomy if refractory symptoms or prolapsed

22
Q

54 yo male complaint of several days of persistent abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting and LG fever , appetite loss. Does not drink . Being treated for seizures disorder, last seizure was 3 months ago

A

Drug induced Pancreatitis caused by valproate (also Hepatotoxic )
Ct showed fat stranding on pancreas

23
Q

Patient wants to stop meds. How long should patient be on sertraline if achieved remission after acute phase treatment for their first episode? If high risk of recurrent >2 epi etc? If highly recurrent, strong family history or severe episodes (suicide attempt ?

A

Continue for an additional 6 months after first epi

Continue maintenance for 1-3 years

Continue maintenance indefinitely

24
Q

A 58-year-old man comes to the office due to a hard mass on the posterior left elbow. The mass has been growing for the past 3 years. The patient has had no fever, pain, weight loss, or trauma. Medical history includes hypertension, chronic kidney disease, and gout. On examination, there is a 3 x 3 cm, nontender, hard mass just under the skin in the posterior left elbow. The elbow is not red, warm, or tender. Elbow imaging shows a 3-cm, soft tissue mass and bone erosions with overhanging edges of cortical bone at the olecranon process. Serum crèatinine is 1.7 mg/dL. Which of the following conditions most likely explains this patient’s findings?
A. Chronìc kidney disease-mineral and bone disorder
O B. Chronie-eleeranon-bursitis
O C. Osteoarthritis
O D. Osteosarcoma
O E. Tophaceous-gout

A

Topacepus gout in the olecranon bursa presenting as a mass . Edges of the joint is eroded
- usually radiolucent but can be opaque if calcium binds the monosodium
- RF- chronic untreated gout or CKD ( can’t excrete uric acid)

25
Q

A 42-year-old man comes to the office due to fatigue and dark urine. Medical history is insignificant and he takes no medications. He used intravenous drugs in the remote past, The patient is an eX-smoker with 25 pack -year history, His ather died of colon cancer at age 52. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min.
›MI is 30 kg/mR. The sclera and skin are icteric. The abdomen is nondistended and nontender. NBSIM
Laboratory results:

Direct bili: 8
Alk phos 822
AST alt 39, 36

A
  • predominant ALK PHOS (malignancies, choledoxho, cholestasis of pregnancy) do Abdomen US and/or AMA
26
Q

40140
A 62-year-old woman comes to the office due to a weeklong history of brief episodes of sharp chest pain that worsen with deep inspiration. She has had no cough or dyspnea but has had fatigue and stiffness and pain in the hands and knees.
Medical history is alonificant for obesity, hypertension, and rionischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%. She has a history of intolerance to angiotensin system infibitor therapy. Medications include carveditol, furosemide. hydralazine, and isosorbide mononitrate. Her medications were adjusted 6 months ago. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37.8 C (100 F), blood pressure is 134/78 mm Hg, and puise is 74/min and regular. Physical examination shows nondistended jugular veins and no heart murmurs. Lung auscultation reveals no crackles, but an inspiratory rub is present. There is moderate swelling and tenderness of the hand and knee joints bilaterally. No rash is present. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s current symptoms?
A. Drug-adverse effects
B. Granulomatosis-with-polyangiitis
C. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
D. Polyarticular gout
E. Thrombeembelism

A

Drug induced lupus- hydralazine lead to serositus (rub and new pleuritic chest pain; less likely to have skin symptoms