Purchase & Sale Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main methods of sale people have regard to these days?

(What are the 4 methods of sale)

(COMMON QUESTION - TaylorMade book)

A
  1. Private Treaty
  2. Informal Tender
  3. Formal Tender
  4. Auction
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2
Q

How would you determine what Method of Sale to use?

What factors determine your method of sale choice?

A

The client’s objectives for the sale

Public accountability

Current and likely future market conditions

Likely level of demand for the property (target market)

Timing requirements.

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3
Q

What is Private Treaty?

A

The most popular method of sale in the UK.

The parties are free to negotiate privately, in their own time and without commitment in the open market.

It is a private matter - purchaser makes private offer in writing.

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4
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of Private Treaty?

A

Pros: Flexibility, the parties control the process, no obligation to sell, confidential, inexpensive.

Cons: Gazumping (bidding higher last minute), Gazundering (chipping at the offer), late decisions not to buy.

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5
Q

What is Informal Tender?

(Informal Tender = ‘Call for Bids’)

A

(Informal Tender = Call for Bids)

Informal Tender is typically used following private treaty - it is a call for bids / offers.

Used when there is a good level of interest in the property and to bring negotiations to a conclusion.

The ‘best bids’ procedure is not legally binding - no obligation to accept the best, highest or indeed any offer.

The agent ‘calls for bids’ in writing and gives a deadline when offers are to be recieved by.

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6
Q

What are the advantages of Informal Tender?

A

Advantages to the Seller:

Allows room for negotiation
The vendor is under no obligation to accept the best, highest or indeed any offer.
Inexpensive (compared to auction)

Advantages to the Purchaser:

They have the ability to alter their offer
They can withdraw their offer after it has been submitted.

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7
Q

What are the disadvantages of Informal Tender?

A

Disadvantages to the Seller:

Possibilities of offers made by bidders who had not secured full finance
Conditional bids (i.e. conditional on planning / finance)
May discourage potential buyers in difficult market conditions (sitting on the fence).

Disadvantages to the Buyer:

From a buyers perspective they can be played off against one another
The vendor is under no obligation to accept the best, highest or any offer.

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8
Q

Is Informal Tender legally binding?

A

No - either party can withdraw at any point up to contract.

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9
Q

Where should ‘best bids’ be opened?

A

In front of the client / independent witness / line manager.

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10
Q

What is included in a ‘Call for Bids’ letter?

What do you include when you call for bids?

A

Bid deadline - required date and time for offers to be recieved no later than (x).

Confirmation the vendor is under no obligation to accept the best, highest or any offer.

Confirmation of any conditions attached to the offer (e.g. subject to planning).

Confirmation of finance arrangements.

Confirmation that offers of a variable nature will not be considered (e.g. offers cannot be linked to other offers).

Confirmation of the applicant’s Solicitor’s Details.

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11
Q

What is Formal Tender?

(Formal Tender = Sealed Bids)

A

(Formal Tender = A Sealed Bids Process).

Often used by a Statutory Body / Public Sector Body to give transparency over the process and prove who got the highest price.

Provides a high level of public accountability

No opportunity for parties to amend / change bids after submission.

Full marketing material & legal pack must be provided in advance of the tender process - including a legally binding contract for sale.

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12
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of Formal Tender?

A

Advantages:

Quicker process to exchange of contracts as there are no lengthy negotiations and the bid can lead direct to a contract for sale.

High level of public accountability and transparency

Removes the risk of Gazumping / Gazundering

Disadvantages:

Can be a complex process
There is no opportunity for a purchaser to change or increase the bid.

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13
Q

What is the typical process for Formal Tender?

A

Full due diligence pack required (including marketing martial, a comprehensive legal pack and contract) MUST be provided in advance.

Letter sent to all prospective purchasers clearly outlining terms and conditions of the sale.

All bids should be opened in front of the client or independent witness.

The exchange of contracts will take place upon the basis of the Terms & Conditions set out in the full DD pack.

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14
Q

Does the vendor HAVE to accept the bid with Formal Tender?

A

No - typically the vendor will state they are under no obligation to accept the best, highest or any offer.

Important wording - this can be used in both informal and formal tender.

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15
Q

What would you advise to be included in any Informal or Formal Tender process to protect your client?

A

A caveat that “the vendor is not obligated to accept the highest, best, or indeed any offer”.

This gives the client more control and they can chose not to sell, without consequence.

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16
Q

What are the differences between Informal and Formal Tender? Can you summarise these for me briefly?

A

Informal Tender = Call for Bids, whereas Formal Tender = Sealed Bids.

Offers are best and final with a formal tender, whereas informal tender has the opportunity to increase of change after submission (gazumping / gazundering).

It is possible that formal tender will lead directly to exchange of contracts, whereas informal tender will not.

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17
Q

When might you use an Auction?

A

Used when the vendor wants a quick transaction & fast means of sale.

Good for unusual property types.

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18
Q

What are the advantages of an Auction?

A

Quick process - auction provides a fast means of sale.

Certainty of sale (assuming reserve price achieved) - you know it has sold.

Potential to generate a higher price if two or more parties are competing.

Transparency

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19
Q

What are the disadvantages of an Auction?

A

Expensive for the vendor (cost of promotion and publicity)

Lack of confidentiality (over the price achieved)

Vendor cannot choose the purchaser

Intensive nature of a short marketing period

May create a negative stigma if the property fails to sell

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20
Q

Are auctions legally binding?

A

Yes - the successful bidder is legally bound to purchase when the hammer falls on the bid.

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21
Q

What actions are required by Purchasers PRIOR to an auction?

A

View property

Take legal advice & due diligence

Read the Notice to Prospective Buyers

Consider commissioning a structural survey

Arrange a 10% deposit for exchange (hammer fall) and insurance.

Provide ID for AML regulations.

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22
Q

What actions are required by the Auctioneer PRIOR to an auction?

A

Conflict of Interest checks must be undertaken.

Terms of Engagement must be signed and agreed with the vendor in advance.

They must have inspected the property

Recommend reserve price (below which the property will not be sold) and guide price to vendor.

Clarify the auctioneer’s rights (e.g. if they can accept telelphone/internet bids, regulate bidding increments).

Provide auction pack for purchasers including all relevant documentation

Prepare catalogue particulars - in line with Consumer Protection Regulations (2008) and Misrepresentation Act (1967).

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23
Q

What are the different bases of agency when marketing a building?

(What are the 3 bases of agency?)

(COMMON QUESTION - TaylorMade book)

A
  1. Sole Agency (only one agent gets the fee).
  2. Joint Agency (Two or more joint agents and the fee is split on a pre-agreed basis).
  3. Multiple Agency (Any number of agents but only the successful agent get the fee)
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24
Q

Which Section of the Estate Agents Act (1979) relates to Bases of Agency?

A

Section 18 of the Estate Agents Act

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25
Q

What are Sole Selling Rights?

A

The agent would be owed a fee, even if they were not involved in introducing the buyer (i.e. the client introduced the buyer themselves).

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26
Q

What’s the difference between Sole Agency and Sole Selling Rights?

A

Sole Agency = Does NOT include private introductions (i.e. client introduces buyer direct).

Sole Selling Rights = Private introductions are included (i.e fee due even if agent didn’t find purchaser).

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27
Q

What are required in agency Terms of Engagement?

What do you include in your Terms of Engagement when selling a property?

A

The Terms of Engagement must contain:

Confirm Basis of Agency (Sole, Joint or Multiple)

Confirm Agents Rights (Sole selling rights)

Proposed Fee (I typically use 1% of the purchase price)

Any Expenses to be paid, marketing costs and disbursements.

Confirm no Conflict of Interest / personal interest.

Confirm AML checks to be undertaken

Timescale for the payment of fees (i.e. fee will be payable upon successful sale).

Make reference to Complaints Handling Procedure

–> These ToE MUST be signed and returned before marketing can begin.

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28
Q

What is the main legislation you have regard for when carrying out Agency work?

Can you name 3 or 4?

A

Estate Agents Act (1979) - the main one.

Consumer Protection Regulations (2008)

Misrepresentation Act (1967)

Extras;

Town & Country Planning Regulations (2007)

Bribery Act (2010)

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29
Q

When does the Estate Agents Act (1979) apply?

A

Disposal or Acquisition

Freehold Property

Leasehold Property

Land as well as buildings

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30
Q

What are the key principles within the Estate Agents Act (1979)? What are the key points and can you give me the main takeaways?

(COMMON QUESTION - TaylorMade book)

A

Agents must act with Honesty and Accuracy

Section 18 - Clear Terms of Engagement and clarity on basis of agency.
- All costs/fees must be specified in advance, in writing, in ToE.
- Sole, Joint or Multiple agency basis (clearly outlined).

Section 21 - Disclosure any Personal Interests.
- Disclose any ‘Connected Person’ who could benefit from the transaction.

EAA says you MUST report ALL offers recieved to the client (promptly and in writing).

EAA says you must not Discriminate against parties (ensure all have equal opportunity)

EAA says you must keep client’s money separate (separate named bank account with the word ‘client’).

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31
Q

What does Section 18 & Section 21 of the Estate Agents Act say?

A

Section 18 - Clear Terms of Engagement and clarity on basis of agency.
- All costs/fees must be specified in advance, in writing, in ToE.
- Sole, Joint or Multiple agency basis (clearly outlined).

Section 21 - Disclosure any Personal Interests.
- Disclose any ‘Connected Person’ who could benefit from the transaction.

32
Q

What are the Penalties for breaching the Estate Agents Act (1979)?

A

Policed by the National Trading Standards:

Warning Order (If agent’s first offence)

Prohibition Order (will prevent the agent from practising). Failure to comply = criminal offence.

33
Q

What is the purpose of The Consumer Protection for Unfair Trading Regulations 2008 (CPRs)? Please outline what they cover. (IMPORTANT ONE)

(COMMON QUESTION - TaylorMade book)

A

Relates to the WHOLE agency process.

CPRs extend agents duty of care to all ‘consumers’ (e.g. existing/potential clients, viewers, tenants) - duty of care beyond your paying clients.

Requires the Agent to give accurate info and DECLARE EVERYTHING known about a property (good and bad). = No more Caveat Emptor (“Buyer Beware”).

Offences include: Exerting undue pressure, omissions, hiding information, misleading information. OMISSIONS = Breach.

Example could include: Not declaring wider information e.g. proposed development next door, flood risk, flight path, listed building etc.

Policed by Trading Standards & is a CRIMINAL OFFENCE.

34
Q

What is the purpose of Misrepresentation Act (1967)?

A

Relates to misrepresentation / false statements made during the PRE-CONTRACT ENQUIRIES (either knowingly or unknowingly) which has the effect of inducing the party to purchase.

  • Agent has obligation to check info is reliable.
  • Disclaimer clauses can protect agent who has done sufficient DD.

Misrepresentation can be either: fraudulent, negligent or innocent. The agent has a duty of care to check info is reliable.

It is a civil offence actionable by tort (not criminal).

35
Q

How do CPRs / BPRs (2008) differ from the Misrepresentation Act (1967)? Name some of the key differences?

A

CPRs (2008) govern unfair treatment and withheld info THROUGHOUT THE WHOLE marketing process, e.g. not declaring a proposed development next door. Agent has a duty of care to the ‘consumer’. Agent must declare everything (good and bad) about a property. Criminal Offence.

Misrepresentation Act (1967) relates to false statement (either knowingly or unknowingly) made during PRE CONTRACT ENQUIRIES that induces a transaction, e.g. false statement on marketing particulars. Civil offence actionable by tort - not criminal.

36
Q

How would you comply with the Misrepresentation Act (1967) as an agent?

What could you do to protect yourself as an agent?

A

Undertake significant due diligence on every new instruction

Ensure that a disclaimer is included on the marketing particulars, stating that these have been produced in good faith and are believed to be correct.

(Prevents the sales particulars being viewed as part of contract).

37
Q

What is a ‘Ready, Willing and Able’ purchasers clause?

A

Set out in Estate Agents Act (1979)

Ensures abortive fees can be chrarged by the agent if a client pulls out of a transaction, even if a purchaser is ready, willing and able to proceed.

38
Q

Tell me about the EPC requirements when marketing property - what would you do?

(COMMON QUESTION - TaylorMade book)

(Also v topical atm)

A

EPCs MUST be commissioned before marketing the property.

The EPC rating (energy rating) MUST be included in the marketing particulars (graph not necessary).

It is the AGENTS RESPONSIBILITY to ensure EPC is in the marketing material.

39
Q

Tell me about the latest MEES regulation requirements please?

A

As of April 2023 - all commercial property must legally have an EPC rating of ‘E’ or above to be let, including existing leases.

I am aware of proposed increases for the MEES to reach band ‘C’ by 2027 and ‘B’ by 2030.

40
Q

What buildings are exempt from having an EPC?

A

Listed Buildings

Religious Buildings + Places of Worship (think big church / mosque)

Temporary buildings

Buildings with no heating

Buildings due to be demolished / redeveloped within 2 years

Stand alone buildings with a total floor area of less than 50 sq m (circa 500 sq ft)

41
Q

How long is an EPC valid for?

A

EPC is valid for 10 YEARS (unless changes made to the property).

42
Q

What would you typically see on the front page of an EPC certificate?

A

Address of property and floor area

Technical information on the proeprty’s energy provision

An energy performance rating from A+ to G

Benchmarking Information

43
Q

What are penalties for non-compliance with EPC Ratings?

A

Enforced by Local Trading Standards teams

Fines. Max penalty equal to 12.5% of the Rateable Value of the building (minimum of £500, max £5,000 fine)

44
Q

What are the regulations for a letting / sales board and which legislation does this relate to?

A

Town & Country Planning Regulations (2007) state that:

Planning Consent is required for non-residential boards over 2 sq m (flat), or 2.3 sq m (if V board).

Only one letting board is allowed per building

No more than 1m projection from face of the building

NO illumination

Must be removed within 14 days after completion of a letting/sale.

45
Q

What would you advise a client to do if they are selling a building and a propsective purchaser is looking like walking away after going under offer?

A

Advise the Vendor they can serve a Notice to Complete - giving the purchaser a deadline to complete. If deadline not met = contract rescineded and property can be remarketed.

46
Q

I see in your example you’ve called for bids before (informal tender) and collated the ‘salient information’ to report to the client. What do you mean by this and what information did you consider when advising your client on offers recieved?

(This will come up as a q 100%)

A

The salient information included:

Offer Price
Source of Funds (Cash or reliance on third-party finance)
Any conditionality attached to the offer (e.g. subject to planning)
Track Record of the bidder
Timescale (Sale & leaseback or delayed completion)
Potential reputational damage

47
Q

What are the 6 principles from the Estate Agents Act (1979)? Name them all!

(COMMON QUESTION - TaylorMade book)

A
  1. Honesty and Accuracy
  2. Clarity of Terms of Engagement and basis of agency (Section 18)
  3. No discrimination (everyone gets a fair shot)
  4. Disclose any Personal Interest (Connected Person)
  5. Duty to report all offers to the client (promptly and in writing)
  6. Keep clients money separate (separate bank account named client)
48
Q

What RICS Guidance do you follow for Investment Agency work?

A

RICS Professional Statement: UK Commercial Estate Agency & Brokerage (2016)

RICS Professional Statement: Conflicts of Interest - UK Commercial Property Market Investment Agency (2017)

RICS Professional Statement: Countering Bribery and corruption, money laundering and terrorist financing (2019)

49
Q

What does the Real Estate Agency & Brokerage (2016) Professional Statement set out and what is it’s purpose?

Please give me some detail as to what it’s about?

A

This mandatory professional statement outlines principles of fairness and transparency that underpin all activities undertaken by real estate agents.

It covers the various stages:
1. Ethics
2. Securing Instructions
3. Acting for the seller - marketing the property
4. Acting for the seller - agreeing sale or lease
5. Acting for buyer
6. Ending instruction
7. Safety and security
8. Agency management

It also sets out 12 core principles such as acting honestly, due diligence, clear terms, no discrimination.

50
Q

What does the Conflicts of Interest - UK Commercial Property Market Investment Agency (2017) outline?

A

Mandatory professional statement

Provides requirements to adhere to when acting on the open market investment transactonis (sale or acquisition) in the UK- in order to avoid Conflicts of Interest.

It covers:

Dual Agency
Multiple Introductions
Incremental Advice

51
Q

What is Dual Agency?

A

Dual Agency is where an agent can have a Conflcit of Interest if acting for both the Seller and Purchaser.

This is BANNED (in the above professional statement)

52
Q

What does the Conflict of Interest - UK Investment Agency (2017) Professional Statement say about Multiple Introductions?

A

Terms of Engagement must be agreed and it must be clear if the agent is acting on an exclusive or non-exclusive basis.

If non exclusive, you should gain informed consent and set infomation barriers (as per RICS PS CoI Investment Agency 2017).

53
Q

What is Incremental Advice?

A

This occurs if an agent acting for a Seller is approached by a purchaser to provide incremental advice.

Incremental Advice (e.g. planning advice) is allowed under the RICS PS CoI Investment Agency (2017).

The client MUST be notified before any advice is provided to a prospective purchaser and INFORMATION BARRIERS must be in place.

54
Q

Would you accept a bid after the ‘Request for Bids’ date / after the property was under offer?

A

Final higher bids may be made after deadline but VERY UNETHICAL (but must still report to client).

You must still inform the client under the Estate Agents Act (1979) to report all offers to the client and advise accordingly based on individual merits.

55
Q

You receive two offers on a property, one is an all equity purchaser who has offered a lower price, whereas the offer is subject to finance, but is offering a higher amount. What would you do?

A

I would report both offers to my client in writing as per the Estate Agents Act (1979).

All equity purchaser (cash) is safer and can provide proof of funds, transact quicker and is not subject to finance.

56
Q

What is Stamp Duty Land Tax (SDLT) and what are it’s commercial bands?

A

SDLT is a tax on the purchase of a FH or LLH interest over a certain value. The commercial brackets are:

Up to £150,000 = Zero

£150,001 to £250,000 = 2%

The remaining amount over £250,000 = 5%

E.g. If you buy a Freehold commercial property for £275,000, the SDTL owed would be:

0% on the first £150,000 (£0)

2% on the next £100,000

5% on the final £25,000

57
Q

What are typical Prime Rents and Prime Yields in central London?

A

Offices:

Prime Yield (West End) = 3.5%
Prime Yield (City) = 4%

Prime Headline Rent (West End) = £125 per sq ft
Prime Headlien Rent (City) = £82.50 per sq ft

58
Q

What are the Charities Act requirements - can you explain a bit about these please?

A

Charities Act (2022) report MUST be required when selling, leasing or otherwise disposing of charity land or property - to demonstrate the charity is obtaining “best value” for the asset.

There have been recent changes to the Charities Act (2022) - this has broadened the scope on who can give advice to now include Estate Agents and Agricultural Valuers who are not RICS members.

It is now termed “Designated Advisor” rather than “Qualified Surveyor” report.

The change also simplified the sections of the report.

59
Q

What is Money Laundering?

(‘Thinking Point’ in TaylorMade book - big area of questioning)

A

Money Laundering is the process of cleaning illicit money from criminal activity so it appears to have been legitimately acquired.

60
Q

What is the key legislation on Money Laundering?

What can you tell me about this?

A

The Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on Payer) Regulations (2017) (as amended in 2022).

All letting agents MUST register with HMRC if they let individual properties for more than the equivalent of €10,000/month.

AML checks MUST be carried out on both PURCHASERS and SELLERS (as a minimum -cannot be delegated).

61
Q

Can you give me 3 or 4 takeaways for what you understand about AML?

A

All letting agents MUST register with HMRC if they let individual properties for more than the equivalent of €10,000/month.

Customer Due Diligence (CDD) checks MUST be carried out on both PURCHASERS and SELLERS at a minimum.

Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) checks MUST be undertaken if RED FLAGS occur (e.g. high-risk country) or you are dealing with PEPs.

A firm MUST appoint a Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) to report Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) to the National Crime Agency.

The MLR (2017) requires firm-wide risk assessments - and firms to provide employees with regular AML training.

(Remember to say firms must register with HMRC).

62
Q

When would YOU carry out CDD checks?

A

With the SELLER (client) e.g. Landlord = at the time of the appointment to dispose of the asset.

With the PURCHASER = When the offer to buy/acquire has been accepted.

63
Q

What are Customer Due Diligence (CDD) checks in respect of AML?

A

MUST carry out CDD checks on PURCHASER and SELLER as a minimum.

Identify the client and verify their identity based on a reliable source (e.g. passport / driving licence photo).

Identify the Beneficial Owners (e.g. check Companies House).

For a Private Company = Its name, company number and address of registered office is required (and names of Directors/Shareholders with 25% or more holding).

For a Public Limited Company = You DONT need names of Directors. This is the most secure! Just check their listing on the London Stock Exchange.

64
Q

What are Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) checks in respect of AML?

A

Obtain further information in the event any ‘RED FLAGS’ occur or you are dealing with a POLITICALLY EXPOSED PERSON (PEP) or associated member.

A PEP presents higher risk for involvement in bribery and corruption by virtue of their position / influence.

Essentially EDD procedures require additional evidence and monitoring.

More detailed examination into Proof of Funds and what the purpose of the transaction actually is.

(E.g. ensure the first payment is made from an account that was opened in the customer’s name).

65
Q

When would you flag a client for Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD)? What are Red Flags to be aware of?

A

Beware of any of these Red Flags:

Unwillingness to provide ID documents (passport/driving licence ID)

Unusual transaction features (unexpected urgency required by parties)

If a ‘high risk third country’ is involved.

Wanting to pay in strange currencies (e.g. cryptocurrency)

If the transaction will be clearly loss making for one party.

66
Q

Who is the relevant AML person at your firm?

Who is your firm’s Money Laundering Reporting Officer?

A

MLRO = James Gray

Compliance Officer = Vicky Moss

67
Q

Who is the industry regulator for AML?

A

Regulated = Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

Enforced in the UK = HMRC and National Crime Agency (NCA)

68
Q

What are the penalties for non-compliance with AML regulations?

A

Max. 14 YEARS prison sentence and/or unlimited fine for ASSISTING with money laundering.

Max. 5 YEARS prison sentence and/or unlimited fine for TIPPING OFF a person they are under investigation.

69
Q

What timeframe would you conduct CDD checks?

A

On the SELLER (Landlord) = BEFORE accepting the instruction to sell the asset.

On the PURCHASER = When the offer to buy/acquire has been accepted.

70
Q

What is the role of the Money Laundering Reporting Officer?

A

Once suspicious activity has been identified, a firm’s MLRO will conduct an independent investigation.

They will then decide whether to submit a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR) to the National Crime Agency.

71
Q

What level of Due Diligence checks do you need for a Private Company?

A

Company Name

Company Number

Address of registered office

Names of Directors/Shareholders with 25% or more holding.

(then I would check if i need to do EDD checks)

72
Q

What level of Due Diligence checks do you need for a Public Limited Company (PLC)?

A

This is the most secure - just requires proof the PLC is listed on the London Stock Exchange.

73
Q

What level of Due Diligence checks do you need for a Private Individual?

A

Verify ID via reliable source (Passport / driving licence)

Copy of bank statement showing proof of address

74
Q

What RICS document is there on Money Laundering?

A

RICS Professional Statement: Countering Bribery & Corruption, Money Laundering and Terrorist Financing (2019).

75
Q

What does RICS Professional Statement: Countering Bribery & Corruption, Money Laundering and Terrorist Financing (2019) say?

(TaylorMade says AML is a high risk area for “Agency Surveyors” and a very common area of questioning….).

A

It is RICS advice to members - provides guidance on how to inerpret and apply the law.

(Covers the same topics as the legislation - must register with HMRC, CDD, EDD, PEPs, Red Flags, have a MLRO etc)