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Driver Test > Pumping and Aerial > Flashcards

Pumping and Aerial Flashcards

1
Q

Main purpose of fire department pumper

A

Provide adequate pressure for water streams

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2
Q

This standard requires a minimum pump capacity of 750 gpm and water tank of at least 300 gallons

A

NFPA 1901

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3
Q

These vehicles are designed with more compartment space than a standard pumper

A

Rescue pumper

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4
Q

Class A foam is for:
Class B foam is for:

A

-Ordinary combustibles
-Flammable and combustible liquid and gas

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5
Q

Foam tanks usually range from

A

20-100 gallons

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6
Q

Scaled down versions of full size pumpers are called

A

Initial attack fire apparatus

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7
Q

These are used to transport water to areas where water systems are non existent or inadequate

A

Water tanker/tender

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8
Q

Tender and tankers are equipped with a water tank of at least

A

1,000 gallons

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9
Q

This practice is prohibited by what NFPA standard

A

Riding on the outside of apparatus
NFPA 1500

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10
Q

These are effective in attacking wildland fires and protecting exposures

A

Class A foam agents

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11
Q

Step up transformer that converts a vehicles 12 or 24 DC volt current into 110-220 volt AC current

A

Inverter

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12
Q

The most common power source for the fire service

A

Generators

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13
Q

What is the largest capacity for portable generators

A

5,000 watts

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14
Q

These are used to supply power to several connections from one supply source

A

Junction box

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15
Q

This refers to keeping apparatus in a state of readiness

A

Maintenance

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16
Q

This means to restore that which has become inoperable

A

Repair

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17
Q

This standard requires drivers to perform certain maintenance tasks

A

NFPA 1002

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18
Q

Why is diesel fuel problematic

A

Sticks to anything it touches

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19
Q

During first 6 months an apparatus is received how should it be washed

A

Frequently with cold water to harden paint

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20
Q

How long should you wait to wax or polish a new apparatus

A

6 months

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21
Q

What are the 2 types of inspections during a walk around inspection

A

Operational readiness
Pretrip road readiness

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22
Q

How should the driver work around the apparatus in a walk around inspection

A

Clockwise pattern

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23
Q

What types of tires should not be mixed on an apparatus

A

Radial and bias-ply tires

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24
Q

Tire selection for apparatus is based on what

A

Gross axle weight ratings

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25
Q

The maximum amount of weight an axle system can safely carry

A

Gross axle weight rating

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26
Q

How often should tires be replaced

A

7 years

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27
Q

These are intended to prevent an overload of a vehicles electrical generation system

A

Load management system

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28
Q

Operation of equipment or a conductor in excess of its rated capacity

A

Overload

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29
Q

Load management systems may incorporate

A

Load sequencers and load monitors

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30
Q

This turns on lights at specified intervals so that the load for all devices doesn’t happen at once

A

Load sequencer

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31
Q

This “watches” the system for any added electrical loads that threaten to overload system

A

Load monitor

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32
Q

The load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment in order to prevent the overload known as

A

Load shedding

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33
Q

Amount of travel the clutch has before it begins to disengage the engine from the transmission

A

Free play

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34
Q

The amount of travel between turning the wheel and the steering system moves. It should be no more than?

A

Steering wheel play
No more than 10 degree in either direction

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35
Q

The weight of an empty fire apparatus fresh off the assembly line

A

Curb weight

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36
Q

Per NFPA 1901 and 1911, a side to side variance in weight should not exceed

A

7%

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37
Q

Modern fire department pumping apparatus are equipped with what braking system

A

Air actuated

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38
Q

Air horns and other nonessential devices won’t operate when the air pressure in the reservoir drops below

A

80 psi

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39
Q

These reduce the possibility of an apparatus from jack knifing, sliding, or spinning during heavy braking

A

Antilock braking system

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40
Q

Devices used in air brake systems that connect between activation pads and brake pads

A

Slack adjusters

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41
Q

Process in which exhaust temps are raised in order to burn off particulate matter in filter

A

Regeneration

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42
Q

Act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger

A

Reckless disregard

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43
Q

Loss of braking function due to excessive use of the brakes

A

Brake fade

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44
Q

Failing to keep the DEF tank full may do what to the apparatus

A

Reduce torque and limit vehicle speed

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45
Q

This occurs when the throttle is applied when a manual transmission is in too high of a gear for the demand on the engine

A

Engine lugging

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46
Q

What speeds can an emergency vehicle outrun its audible warning device

A

Above 50 mph

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47
Q

When multiple emergency vehicles are responding along the same route they should travel how far apart

A

300 to 500 feet apart

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48
Q

Time needed to stop the apparatus or perform evasive maneuver at current rate of speed

A

Visual lead time

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49
Q

Distance vehicle travels from time brakes are applied to complete stop

A

Braking distance

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50
Q

Sum of drivers reaction distance and braking distance

A

Total stopping distance

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51
Q

What are the 2 common types of skids

A

Acceleration and locked wheel skid

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52
Q

The drive wheels lose traction on road surface in this skid

A

Acceleration skid

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53
Q

Results from braking too hard at a high rate of speed

A

Locked wheel skid

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54
Q

What are the 4 types of auxiliary brakes

A

Exhaust
Engine compression
Transmission output retarder
Electromagnetic retarder

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55
Q

If feasible, at an incident where no fire is showing, what should the driver do

A

Pull past the building

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56
Q

For wildland fires, where should the driver place the appartus

A

Downhill of main body of fire

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57
Q

Considered the safest position should a collapse occur

A

Corners of building

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58
Q

Apparatus and personnel should maintain a collapse zone of at least

A

1 to 1 1/2 times height of building

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59
Q

Buildings less than 5 stories, how are apparatus placed

A

Engine (closest to building)
Aerial (outside)

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60
Q

Buildings greater than 5 stories, how are apparatus placed

A

Engine (outside)
Aerial (closest to building)

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61
Q

This is used to increase volume of water at fire scene, while this is used to increase water pressure

A

-Relay pumping
-Tandem pumping

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62
Q

Natural or man made barrier that prevents fire from encircling vehicle and crew

A

Anchor point

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63
Q

Apparatus with side mounted pumpers should position facing

A

Incident scene

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64
Q

Which zone can be used for decon for personnel exiting hot zone

A

Warm zone

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65
Q

Water converted to steam occupies approximately

A

1,700 times original volume

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66
Q

Simple measure of weight and expressed in pounds or Newtons

A

Force

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67
Q

Atmospheric pressure at sea level is what

A

14.7 psi

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68
Q

This refers to the height of a water supply above the discharge orifice

A

Head

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69
Q

This refers to the center line of the pump or bottom of static supply source above or below ground level

A

Elevation

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70
Q

This refers to position of object in relation to sea level

A

Altitude

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71
Q

What are the 3 types of master stream appliances

A

Fixed
Combination
Portable

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72
Q

What is the only true way to measure pressure loss in a hose lay

A

Measure pressure at both ends of hose line and subtract difference

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73
Q

What is the formula for friction loss

A

FL = CQ(squared)L

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74
Q

What is the assumed friction loss for master stream appliances

A

25 psi

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75
Q

What is the assumed friction loss for each appliance in a hose assembly

A

10 psi

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76
Q

What is the formula for elevation pressure loss in a multistory building

A

5psi x # of stories minus 1

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77
Q

In order to determine the required pressure for a standpipe system, what needs to be calculated

A

Total pressure loss

78
Q

The total amount of pressure being discharged from the pump is called

A

Pump discharge pressure

79
Q

What are the safe and efficient nozzle pressures for these fire streams:
Solid stream (handline)
Solid stream (master stream)
Fog nozzle
Low pressure fog nozzle

A

50 psi
80 psi
100 psi
50-75 psi

80
Q

This pressure represents the action of water into the pump, through it, and discharged out

A

Net pump discharge pressure

81
Q

In the case of a pumper being supplied by a hydrant or another pumper, the net pump discharge pressure is the difference between

A

Pump discharge pressure and pressure from supply source

82
Q

These reduce the number of pressure calculations for the driver

A

Flowmeter

83
Q

Every discharge outlet equipped with a flowmeter should also be equipped with

A

Pressure gauge

84
Q

Flowmeters must display flow in increments of

A

10 gpm or less

85
Q

What are the 2 types of flowmeters

A

Paddlewheel and spring probe

86
Q

Each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within

A

6 inches of control valve

87
Q

Apparatus involved in relay pumping operations should operate in

A

RPM mode

88
Q

What is the condensed Q formula and when can it be used for operations

A

FL = Q(squared)
To determine friction loss in 3, 4, and 5 inch hose

89
Q

These pumps are self priming, deliver a definite volume of water or air, and exhaust air from the pump and deliver water

A

Positive displacement pumps

90
Q

Positive displacement pumps are considered constant flow machines in that they

A

Produce same flow at given speed regardless of discharge pressure

91
Q

Positive displacement pumps are now used primarily as

A

Priming devices

92
Q

What is the most common type of pump used to prime a centrifugal fire pump

A

Rotary vane pump

93
Q

Centrifugal pumps are considered what type of pump

A

Nonpositive displacement pumps

94
Q

What dictates the amount of pressure that is developed in a centrifugal pump

A

Speed of impeller

95
Q

Spiral, divergent chamber of a centrifugal pump in which velocity energy given to water by the impeller blades is converted into pressure

A

Volute

96
Q

What are the 3 main factors that influence a centrifugal pumps discharge pressure

A

Amount of water discharged
Speed of impeller
Pressure of water from pressurized source

97
Q

What are the 2 types of centrifugal pumps in the fire service

A

Single and multistage

98
Q

Hinged valve that permits the flow of water in one direction only

A

Clapper valve

99
Q

These may be replaced to maintain the preferred spacing between the hub of the impeller and the pump casing

A

Wear rings

100
Q

Pumps powered by gasoline or diesel engines independent of the vehicle drive engine are considered

A

Auxiliary pumps

101
Q

The piping system and fire pump must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of

A

500 psi

102
Q

This is designed to regulate the engine speed to match the pump discharge requirements

A

Pressure governor

103
Q

Electronic governors feature what kind of protection and what does it do

A

Cavitation protection
Idles engine when intake pressure drops below 30 psi

104
Q

What are the different categories of primers

A

Positive displacement
Exhaust
Vacuum
Air primer

105
Q

This displays engine speed in rpm

A

Tachometer

106
Q

A gradual increase in the amount of rpm required to pump the rated capacity indicates what

A

Wear in pump and possible need for repair

107
Q

This provides a relative indication of battery condition

A

Voltmeter

108
Q

This indicates the status of the vehicles alternator and charging system

A

Ammeter

109
Q

The driver should close what valve after transitioning to an external water supply

A

Tank-to-pump valve

110
Q

When a pumper is connected to a hydrant and not discharging water, the pressure shown on the intake gauge is

A

Static pressure

111
Q

When the pumper is discharging water, the intake gauge displays

A

Residual pressure

112
Q

What are the methods used to determine how much more water a hydrant can supply

A

Percentage
First-digit
Squaring-the-lines

113
Q

Most pumps are able to develop a vacuum capacity of approximately

A

22 inches of mercury

114
Q

For drafting, all fire pumps are rated to pump their capacity at

A

10 feet of lift

115
Q

A gradual increase in the vacuum may be noted with no change in flow rate indicates what

A

Blockage developing

116
Q

If no specific info is given, the general guideline is to discharge ____ into the FDC

A

150 psi

117
Q

This is the difference in elevation between the surface of the static water supply and the center of the pump intake

A

Lift

118
Q

The scientific height that a column of water may be lifted by atmospheric pressure in a true vacuum

A

Theoretical lift

119
Q

What is the height at sea level for theoretical lift to occur

A

33.9 feet

120
Q

For every 1,000 feet of altitude, the atmospheric pressure decreases by approximately

A

0.5 psi

121
Q

Defined as the greatest height which any water can be raised through an intake hose to the pump

A

Maximum lift

122
Q

In most circumstances, maximum lift is approximately

A

25 feet

123
Q

The height a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable flow

A

Dependable lift

124
Q

Every fire pump should have a dependable lift of approximately

A

14.7 feet

125
Q

What depth should strainers be submerged for drafting operations

A

At least 2 feet

126
Q

An underground water storage receptacle usually found in an area not serviced by a hydrant system

A

Cistern

127
Q

How many gallons does a cistern usually range from

A

10,000-100,000 gallons

128
Q

The overall capacity of the relay system is determined by what

A

Smallest pump and smallest diameter hose used

129
Q

What are the 2 primary types of large tank discharges used on water tenders

A

Gravity and jet assisted dumps

130
Q

Water tenders dump what percent of their load before leaving the site

A

90%

131
Q

The most common foam in use, they must be ____ and ____ before use

A

Mechanical foam
Proportioned and aerated

132
Q

Raw foam liquid in its storage container before being combined with water and air

A

Foam concentrate

133
Q

Device that injects correct amount of foam concentrate into water stream

A

Foam proportioner

134
Q

Mixture of foam concentrate and water before air is introduced

A

Foam solution

135
Q

Class B fuels are divided into what 2 categories

A

Hydrocarbons and polar solvents

136
Q

These are petroleum based and have a specific gravity of less than one and will float on water

A

Hydrocarbons

137
Q

These are known as miscible liquids and will mix with water

A

Polar solvents

138
Q

Class B foam is designed solely for what type of fuel

A

Hydrocarbons

139
Q

How does foam extinguish or suppress vapors

A

Separating
Cooling
Smothering

140
Q

The act of mixing water with foam concentrate

A

Proportioning

141
Q

What are the 4 basic methods foam is proportioned

A

Induction
Injection
Batch mixing
Premixing

142
Q

This method uses the pressure of a water stream to draft foam into the fire stream

A

Induction

143
Q

This method uses an external pump to force foam into the fire stream

A

Injection

144
Q

This method is when an appropriate amount of foam is poured directly into the tank

A

Batch mixing

145
Q

The formula of class A foam includes this

A

Hydrocarbon surfactants

146
Q

Chemical that lowers the surface tension of a liquid

A

Surfactant

147
Q

What is the shelf life of properly stored foam

A

20 years

148
Q

What is the concentration of foam for hydrocarbons and polar solvents

A

3% (hydro)
3% or 6% (polar)

149
Q

Foam expansion is described as being low, medium, or high. What the ratios for each

A

Low 20:1
Medium 20:1 up to 200:1
High 200:1 up to 1,000:1

150
Q

This is a combination of protein-based foam and synthetic foam

A

Fluoroprotein

151
Q

What is he most common used synthetic foam concentrate

A

AFFF

152
Q

What are the techniques for applying foam

A

Direct
Roll on
Bank down
Rain down

153
Q

What is the minimum amount of time and pressure for a hydrostatic test

A

10 minutes
500 psi

154
Q

This test evaluates the priming device, pump, and intake hose for air leaks

A

Vacuum test

155
Q

What test must be conducted on any apparatus with an onboard water tank

A

Tank-to-pump flow test

156
Q

This device measures the velocity of light that travels through a medium

A

Refractometer

157
Q

The amount of foam concentrate present in the solution is measured using

A

Refractometer

158
Q

Aerial devices are grouped into what 3 categories

A

Aerial ladders
Elevating platforms
Water towers

159
Q

Assembly of bars or rods to form a rigid framework. Engineers have proven that these lend more strength when they form what?

A

Trusses
Triangles

160
Q

What are the 4 main components of a hydraulic system

A

Actuator
Hydraulic fluid
Hydraulic pump
Hydraulic reservoir

161
Q

A safety device that prevents a component from functioning when another component is functioning

A

Interlock

162
Q

This places the max amount of stress on an aerial device

A

Long extensions at low angles

163
Q

Loads that involve motion

A

Dynamic loads

164
Q

Electricity will arc across a gap as large as

A

10 feet

165
Q

The long standing standard has been to provide how much clearance between the aerial and overhead energized lines

A

10 feet

166
Q

If you’re inside a vehicle that contacts or is energized by a power line what should you do

A

Stay inside the vehicle

167
Q

The aerial apparatus is most stable when the aerial device is operated

A

Directly over front or rear axle

168
Q

What are the 2 positions which an aerial device can be designed to operate

A

Unsupported and supported

169
Q

Most railroad companies advise that vehicles be kept how far from the tracks

A

At least 25 feet

170
Q

Theoretical safety zone that surrounds the center of gravity on an aerial apparatus

A

Gravity circle

171
Q

What are the more common types of stabilizers for aerial apparatus

A

Post type
Box
A-frame/scissor/X-style

172
Q

To deploy the stabilizers and aerial device, what needs to be engaged

A

Power take off (PTO)

173
Q

Pneumatic PTO systems require how much air pressure for operation

A

50 to 140 psi

174
Q

Due to the potential for chassis and torque box damage what should not be done

A

One stabilizer never fully activated alone

175
Q

Where are the primary and secondary controls for an aerial device

A

Primary at the turntable
Secondary at upper tip or platform basket

176
Q

What is the sequence for operating an aerial device

A

Elevate, rotate, extend

177
Q

What is the 75-80-80 guideline for quick ladder use

A

75 degree elevation, 80% extended length, 80 psi nozzle pressure

178
Q

If high temperatures are encountered, what can be done to allow for the hydraulic oil to cool

A

Shut off PTO

179
Q

What is the order of priority for victim rescue for an aerial ladder

A

Severely threatened
Largest group
Remainder in hazard area

180
Q

The best position for victim removal for an aerial device is one in which the extended and rotated device is

A

Perpendicular to the building

181
Q

When maneuvering the aerial device to reach a victim, the aerial device should initially be aimed

A

Above victim then lowered

182
Q

Once an aerial device is in place for a rescue, what is the next important step

A

Engage extension locks

183
Q

When using aerial platforms, most fire departments prefer the platform be placed where at the window

A

Top rail of platform is even with windowsill

184
Q

When removing victims from a roof, the tip of the aerial ladder should be placed

A

At least 6 feet above edge of roof

185
Q

When providing access for ventilating a flat roof, the D/E should position the apparatus

A

On unburned side

186
Q

What is the constant for GPM formula

A

29.7

187
Q

Friction loss must consider what 2 things

A

Length and diameter of hose

188
Q

Friction loss is insignificant where flows through appliance are less than

A

350 gpm

189
Q

What is the formula to calculate gpm

A

29.7 x D(squared) x square root NP

190
Q

Pumps rated for 750 gpm should have how many discharges

A

Two 2 1/2 in discharges

191
Q

Gate valves are operated by
Butterfly valves are operated by

A

-Handwheel
-Quarter turn

Driver Test (5 decks)

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