Pumping and Aerial Flashcards
Main purpose of fire department pumper
Provide adequate pressure for water streams
This standard requires a minimum pump capacity of 750 gpm and water tank of at least 300 gallons
NFPA 1901
These vehicles are designed with more compartment space than a standard pumper
Rescue pumper
Class A foam is for:
Class B foam is for:
-Ordinary combustibles
-Flammable and combustible liquid and gas
Foam tanks usually range from
20-100 gallons
Scaled down versions of full size pumpers are called
Initial attack fire apparatus
These are used to transport water to areas where water systems are non existent or inadequate
Water tanker/tender
Tender and tankers are equipped with a water tank of at least
1,000 gallons
This practice is prohibited by what NFPA standard
Riding on the outside of apparatus
NFPA 1500
These are effective in attacking wildland fires and protecting exposures
Class A foam agents
Step up transformer that converts a vehicles 12 or 24 DC volt current into 110-220 volt AC current
Inverter
The most common power source for the fire service
Generators
What is the largest capacity for portable generators
5,000 watts
These are used to supply power to several connections from one supply source
Junction box
This refers to keeping apparatus in a state of readiness
Maintenance
This means to restore that which has become inoperable
Repair
This standard requires drivers to perform certain maintenance tasks
NFPA 1002
Why is diesel fuel problematic
Sticks to anything it touches
During first 6 months an apparatus is received how should it be washed
Frequently with cold water to harden paint
How long should you wait to wax or polish a new apparatus
6 months
What are the 2 types of inspections during a walk around inspection
Operational readiness
Pretrip road readiness
How should the driver work around the apparatus in a walk around inspection
Clockwise pattern
What types of tires should not be mixed on an apparatus
Radial and bias-ply tires
Tire selection for apparatus is based on what
Gross axle weight ratings
The maximum amount of weight an axle system can safely carry
Gross axle weight rating
How often should tires be replaced
7 years
These are intended to prevent an overload of a vehicles electrical generation system
Load management system
Operation of equipment or a conductor in excess of its rated capacity
Overload
Load management systems may incorporate
Load sequencers and load monitors
This turns on lights at specified intervals so that the load for all devices doesn’t happen at once
Load sequencer
This “watches” the system for any added electrical loads that threaten to overload system
Load monitor
The load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment in order to prevent the overload known as
Load shedding
Amount of travel the clutch has before it begins to disengage the engine from the transmission
Free play
The amount of travel between turning the wheel and the steering system moves. It should be no more than?
Steering wheel play
No more than 10 degree in either direction
The weight of an empty fire apparatus fresh off the assembly line
Curb weight
Per NFPA 1901 and 1911, a side to side variance in weight should not exceed
7%
Modern fire department pumping apparatus are equipped with what braking system
Air actuated
Air horns and other nonessential devices won’t operate when the air pressure in the reservoir drops below
80 psi
These reduce the possibility of an apparatus from jack knifing, sliding, or spinning during heavy braking
Antilock braking system
Devices used in air brake systems that connect between activation pads and brake pads
Slack adjusters
Process in which exhaust temps are raised in order to burn off particulate matter in filter
Regeneration
Act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger
Reckless disregard
Loss of braking function due to excessive use of the brakes
Brake fade
Failing to keep the DEF tank full may do what to the apparatus
Reduce torque and limit vehicle speed
This occurs when the throttle is applied when a manual transmission is in too high of a gear for the demand on the engine
Engine lugging
What speeds can an emergency vehicle outrun its audible warning device
Above 50 mph
When multiple emergency vehicles are responding along the same route they should travel how far apart
300 to 500 feet apart
Time needed to stop the apparatus or perform evasive maneuver at current rate of speed
Visual lead time
Distance vehicle travels from time brakes are applied to complete stop
Braking distance
Sum of drivers reaction distance and braking distance
Total stopping distance
What are the 2 common types of skids
Acceleration and locked wheel skid
The drive wheels lose traction on road surface in this skid
Acceleration skid
Results from braking too hard at a high rate of speed
Locked wheel skid
What are the 4 types of auxiliary brakes
Exhaust
Engine compression
Transmission output retarder
Electromagnetic retarder
If feasible, at an incident where no fire is showing, what should the driver do
Pull past the building
For wildland fires, where should the driver place the appartus
Downhill of main body of fire
Considered the safest position should a collapse occur
Corners of building
Apparatus and personnel should maintain a collapse zone of at least
1 to 1 1/2 times height of building
Buildings less than 5 stories, how are apparatus placed
Engine (closest to building)
Aerial (outside)
Buildings greater than 5 stories, how are apparatus placed
Engine (outside)
Aerial (closest to building)
This is used to increase volume of water at fire scene, while this is used to increase water pressure
-Relay pumping
-Tandem pumping
Natural or man made barrier that prevents fire from encircling vehicle and crew
Anchor point
Apparatus with side mounted pumpers should position facing
Incident scene
Which zone can be used for decon for personnel exiting hot zone
Warm zone
Water converted to steam occupies approximately
1,700 times original volume
Simple measure of weight and expressed in pounds or Newtons
Force
Atmospheric pressure at sea level is what
14.7 psi
This refers to the height of a water supply above the discharge orifice
Head
This refers to the center line of the pump or bottom of static supply source above or below ground level
Elevation
This refers to position of object in relation to sea level
Altitude
What are the 3 types of master stream appliances
Fixed
Combination
Portable
What is the only true way to measure pressure loss in a hose lay
Measure pressure at both ends of hose line and subtract difference
What is the formula for friction loss
FL = CQ(squared)L
What is the assumed friction loss for master stream appliances
25 psi
What is the assumed friction loss for each appliance in a hose assembly
10 psi
What is the formula for elevation pressure loss in a multistory building
5psi x # of stories minus 1
In order to determine the required pressure for a standpipe system, what needs to be calculated
Total pressure loss
The total amount of pressure being discharged from the pump is called
Pump discharge pressure
What are the safe and efficient nozzle pressures for these fire streams:
Solid stream (handline)
Solid stream (master stream)
Fog nozzle
Low pressure fog nozzle
50 psi
80 psi
100 psi
50-75 psi
This pressure represents the action of water into the pump, through it, and discharged out
Net pump discharge pressure
In the case of a pumper being supplied by a hydrant or another pumper, the net pump discharge pressure is the difference between
Pump discharge pressure and pressure from supply source
These reduce the number of pressure calculations for the driver
Flowmeter
Every discharge outlet equipped with a flowmeter should also be equipped with
Pressure gauge
Flowmeters must display flow in increments of
10 gpm or less
What are the 2 types of flowmeters
Paddlewheel and spring probe
Each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within
6 inches of control valve
Apparatus involved in relay pumping operations should operate in
RPM mode
What is the condensed Q formula and when can it be used for operations
FL = Q(squared)
To determine friction loss in 3, 4, and 5 inch hose
These pumps are self priming, deliver a definite volume of water or air, and exhaust air from the pump and deliver water
Positive displacement pumps
Positive displacement pumps are considered constant flow machines in that they
Produce same flow at given speed regardless of discharge pressure
Positive displacement pumps are now used primarily as
Priming devices
What is the most common type of pump used to prime a centrifugal fire pump
Rotary vane pump
Centrifugal pumps are considered what type of pump
Nonpositive displacement pumps
What dictates the amount of pressure that is developed in a centrifugal pump
Speed of impeller
Spiral, divergent chamber of a centrifugal pump in which velocity energy given to water by the impeller blades is converted into pressure
Volute
What are the 3 main factors that influence a centrifugal pumps discharge pressure
Amount of water discharged
Speed of impeller
Pressure of water from pressurized source
What are the 2 types of centrifugal pumps in the fire service
Single and multistage
Hinged valve that permits the flow of water in one direction only
Clapper valve
These may be replaced to maintain the preferred spacing between the hub of the impeller and the pump casing
Wear rings
Pumps powered by gasoline or diesel engines independent of the vehicle drive engine are considered
Auxiliary pumps
The piping system and fire pump must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of
500 psi
This is designed to regulate the engine speed to match the pump discharge requirements
Pressure governor
Electronic governors feature what kind of protection and what does it do
Cavitation protection
Idles engine when intake pressure drops below 30 psi
What are the different categories of primers
Positive displacement
Exhaust
Vacuum
Air primer
This displays engine speed in rpm
Tachometer
A gradual increase in the amount of rpm required to pump the rated capacity indicates what
Wear in pump and possible need for repair
This provides a relative indication of battery condition
Voltmeter
This indicates the status of the vehicles alternator and charging system
Ammeter
The driver should close what valve after transitioning to an external water supply
Tank-to-pump valve
When a pumper is connected to a hydrant and not discharging water, the pressure shown on the intake gauge is
Static pressure
When the pumper is discharging water, the intake gauge displays
Residual pressure
What are the methods used to determine how much more water a hydrant can supply
Percentage
First-digit
Squaring-the-lines
Most pumps are able to develop a vacuum capacity of approximately
22 inches of mercury
For drafting, all fire pumps are rated to pump their capacity at
10 feet of lift
A gradual increase in the vacuum may be noted with no change in flow rate indicates what
Blockage developing
If no specific info is given, the general guideline is to discharge ____ into the FDC
150 psi
This is the difference in elevation between the surface of the static water supply and the center of the pump intake
Lift
The scientific height that a column of water may be lifted by atmospheric pressure in a true vacuum
Theoretical lift
What is the height at sea level for theoretical lift to occur
33.9 feet
For every 1,000 feet of altitude, the atmospheric pressure decreases by approximately
0.5 psi
Defined as the greatest height which any water can be raised through an intake hose to the pump
Maximum lift
In most circumstances, maximum lift is approximately
25 feet
The height a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable flow
Dependable lift
Every fire pump should have a dependable lift of approximately
14.7 feet
What depth should strainers be submerged for drafting operations
At least 2 feet
An underground water storage receptacle usually found in an area not serviced by a hydrant system
Cistern
How many gallons does a cistern usually range from
10,000-100,000 gallons
The overall capacity of the relay system is determined by what
Smallest pump and smallest diameter hose used
What are the 2 primary types of large tank discharges used on water tenders
Gravity and jet assisted dumps
Water tenders dump what percent of their load before leaving the site
90%
The most common foam in use, they must be ____ and ____ before use
Mechanical foam
Proportioned and aerated
Raw foam liquid in its storage container before being combined with water and air
Foam concentrate
Device that injects correct amount of foam concentrate into water stream
Foam proportioner
Mixture of foam concentrate and water before air is introduced
Foam solution
Class B fuels are divided into what 2 categories
Hydrocarbons and polar solvents
These are petroleum based and have a specific gravity of less than one and will float on water
Hydrocarbons
These are known as miscible liquids and will mix with water
Polar solvents
Class B foam is designed solely for what type of fuel
Hydrocarbons
How does foam extinguish or suppress vapors
Separating
Cooling
Smothering
The act of mixing water with foam concentrate
Proportioning
What are the 4 basic methods foam is proportioned
Induction
Injection
Batch mixing
Premixing
This method uses the pressure of a water stream to draft foam into the fire stream
Induction
This method uses an external pump to force foam into the fire stream
Injection
This method is when an appropriate amount of foam is poured directly into the tank
Batch mixing
The formula of class A foam includes this
Hydrocarbon surfactants
Chemical that lowers the surface tension of a liquid
Surfactant
What is the shelf life of properly stored foam
20 years
What is the concentration of foam for hydrocarbons and polar solvents
3% (hydro)
3% or 6% (polar)
Foam expansion is described as being low, medium, or high. What the ratios for each
Low 20:1
Medium 20:1 up to 200:1
High 200:1 up to 1,000:1
This is a combination of protein-based foam and synthetic foam
Fluoroprotein
What is he most common used synthetic foam concentrate
AFFF
What are the techniques for applying foam
Direct
Roll on
Bank down
Rain down
What is the minimum amount of time and pressure for a hydrostatic test
10 minutes
500 psi
This test evaluates the priming device, pump, and intake hose for air leaks
Vacuum test
What test must be conducted on any apparatus with an onboard water tank
Tank-to-pump flow test
This device measures the velocity of light that travels through a medium
Refractometer
The amount of foam concentrate present in the solution is measured using
Refractometer
Aerial devices are grouped into what 3 categories
Aerial ladders
Elevating platforms
Water towers
Assembly of bars or rods to form a rigid framework. Engineers have proven that these lend more strength when they form what?
Trusses
Triangles
What are the 4 main components of a hydraulic system
Actuator
Hydraulic fluid
Hydraulic pump
Hydraulic reservoir
A safety device that prevents a component from functioning when another component is functioning
Interlock
This places the max amount of stress on an aerial device
Long extensions at low angles
Loads that involve motion
Dynamic loads
Electricity will arc across a gap as large as
10 feet
The long standing standard has been to provide how much clearance between the aerial and overhead energized lines
10 feet
If you’re inside a vehicle that contacts or is energized by a power line what should you do
Stay inside the vehicle
The aerial apparatus is most stable when the aerial device is operated
Directly over front or rear axle
What are the 2 positions which an aerial device can be designed to operate
Unsupported and supported
Most railroad companies advise that vehicles be kept how far from the tracks
At least 25 feet
Theoretical safety zone that surrounds the center of gravity on an aerial apparatus
Gravity circle
What are the more common types of stabilizers for aerial apparatus
Post type
Box
A-frame/scissor/X-style
To deploy the stabilizers and aerial device, what needs to be engaged
Power take off (PTO)
Pneumatic PTO systems require how much air pressure for operation
50 to 140 psi
Due to the potential for chassis and torque box damage what should not be done
One stabilizer never fully activated alone
Where are the primary and secondary controls for an aerial device
Primary at the turntable
Secondary at upper tip or platform basket
What is the sequence for operating an aerial device
Elevate, rotate, extend
What is the 75-80-80 guideline for quick ladder use
75 degree elevation, 80% extended length, 80 psi nozzle pressure
If high temperatures are encountered, what can be done to allow for the hydraulic oil to cool
Shut off PTO
What is the order of priority for victim rescue for an aerial ladder
Severely threatened
Largest group
Remainder in hazard area
The best position for victim removal for an aerial device is one in which the extended and rotated device is
Perpendicular to the building
When maneuvering the aerial device to reach a victim, the aerial device should initially be aimed
Above victim then lowered
Once an aerial device is in place for a rescue, what is the next important step
Engage extension locks
When using aerial platforms, most fire departments prefer the platform be placed where at the window
Top rail of platform is even with windowsill
When removing victims from a roof, the tip of the aerial ladder should be placed
At least 6 feet above edge of roof
When providing access for ventilating a flat roof, the D/E should position the apparatus
On unburned side
What is the constant for GPM formula
29.7
Friction loss must consider what 2 things
Length and diameter of hose
Friction loss is insignificant where flows through appliance are less than
350 gpm
What is the formula to calculate gpm
29.7 x D(squared) x square root NP
Pumps rated for 750 gpm should have how many discharges
Two 2 1/2 in discharges
Gate valves are operated by
Butterfly valves are operated by
-Handwheel
-Quarter turn
