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MRI exam > Pulse sequences > Flashcards

Pulse sequences Flashcards

1
Q

an IR SE sequence begins with a
A) 90 RF pulse
B) 180 RF pulse
C) 45 deg RF pulse
D) a or b

A

b

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2
Q

a typical SE uses pulses
A) 90, 90
B) 90, 180
C) 180, 180
D) 180, 90

A

b

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3
Q

typical IR SE uses pulses
A) 90, 180, 180
B) 180, 90, 180
C) 5 def RF
D) a or b

A

b

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4
Q

T2 weighted fluid attenuated IR FLAIR are used for evaluation of
A) MSK contusions
B) fat
C) retro orbital fat
D) periventricular white matter disease

A

D

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5
Q

a typical GE pulse sequence begins with a
A) 90 deg RF pulse
B) 180 deg RF pulse
C) alpha angle that varies with desired contrast
D) alpha angle below 10 deg

A

c

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6
Q

STIR sequences are typically used for evaluation of the following except
A) MSK contusions
B) fat suppression
C) lesions within the retro-orbital fat
D) fluid (CSF)

A

D

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7
Q

STIR can suppress all of the following except
A) fat within bone marrow
B) gad enhancing lesions
C) retro-orbital fat
D) fluid (CSF)

A

d

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8
Q

to produce an echo, a GE pulse sequence uses a
A) gradient MF only
B) RF pulse only
C) a combination of a and b
D) slight magnetic susceptibility effects
E) all of the above

A

c

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9
Q

the 180 pulse that follows the initial 90 pulse in a spin echo sequence will cause a NMR signal to reappear while correcting for
A) slight magnetic field inhomogeneity
B) chemical shift
C) slight MF susceptibility effects
D) all of the above

A

d

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10
Q

the gradient that is on during the production of an echo is called the
A) phase encoding gradient
B) slice select gradient
C) frequency encoding gradient
D) flow encoding gradient

A

c

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11
Q

if the TR of a gradient echo sequence is considerably less than the T2 (and the T2*) a condition will exist known as the
A) steady state
B) spin dephasing
C) spin rephasing
D) spin cancellation

A

a. in steady state there will be residual transverse magnetisation at the time of the next excitation pulse

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12
Q

phase encoding is performed
A) after the frequency encoding
B) prior to the frequency encoding
C) in place of frequency encoding
D) during frequency encoding

A

b

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13
Q

the gradient that is on during the production of an echo is the
A) phase
B) slice selection
C) frequency
D) oblique

A

c

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14
Q

the readout gradient is also known as the
A) phase
B) slice select
C) frequency
D) oblique

A

c

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15
Q

is a phase resolution of 256 is desired, then the TR must be repeated for 1 NSA
A) 192
B) 256
C) 512
D) twice

A

b

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16
Q

in the multi echo-spin echo sequence the # of short TE images created within a 20 slice sequence will be
A) 2
B) 4
C) 20
D) 40

A

c

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17
Q

in the multi echo spin echo sequence the number of long TE images created with a 20 slice sequence will be
A) 2
B) 4
C) 20
D) 40

A

c

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18
Q

in the multi echo spin echo sequence the number of images per slice location created will be
A) 2
B) 4
C) 20
D) 40

A

a

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19
Q

in the multi-echo spin echo sequence the total number of images created with a 20 slice sequence will be
A) 2
B) 4
C) 20
D) 40

A

d

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20
Q

in the multi echo spin echo sequence the images will be acquired with varying amounts of
A) T1
B) T2
C) T2*
D) PD

A

b

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21
Q

if the pulse sequence shown were a FSE the number of lines of k-space filled during each TR period would be
A) 4
B) 2
C) 8
D) 2

A

d

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22
Q

if a SE takes 12 minutes to acquire, a FSE with an ETL of 6 with everything else remaining the same would take how many minutes
A) 2
B) 1
C) 6
D) 4

A

a

23
Q

in a FSE the effective TE is performed with the
A) outer views of k-space
B) high amplitude phase encoding gradients
C) low amplitude phase encoding gradients
D) first phase encoding steps

A

c

24
Q

in FSE the spatial resolution is associated with
A) central lines of k-space
B) high amplitude phase encoding gradients
C) low amplitude phase encoding gradients
D) first phase encoding steps

A

b

25
Q

what do the central lines of k-space represent

A

these are weighted with the image contrast and SNR

26
Q

what does the outer edges of k-space represent

A

these are weighted with spatial resolution information

27
Q

in a FSE, acquired with a short effective TE (T1 or PD), blurring can be reduced by the selection of
A) shorter ETL
B) longer ETL
C) changing the ETL does not effect the blurring
D) larger FOV

A

a

28
Q

in a FSE, acquired with a long effective TE (T2), scan time can be reduced by selection of
A) shorter ETL
B) longer ETL
C) there is no ETL change that will effect the scan time
D) larger FOV

A

b

29
Q

a GE sequence in which any residual transverse magnetisation is removed prior to the next excitation is known as
A) non phasic
B) incoherent/spoiled
C) non residual
D) magnetisation prepared

A

b

30
Q

when a gradient echo sequence is acquired for dynamic contrast-enhanced imaging of the liver _____ is performed
A) additional 180˚ pulse
B) initial 180˚ pulse
C) spoiling
D) coherence

A

c

31
Q

gradient echo sequences acquired for high signal from fluid are known as all of the following except
A) coherent gradient echoes
B) incoherent gradient echoes
C) steady-state gradient echoes
D) T2* gradient echoes

A

b

32
Q

dynamic enhanced MRA sequences of the renal arteries are performed with the use of
A) incoherent gradient echoes
B) coherent gradient echoes
C) steady state gradient echoes
D) T2* gradient echoes

A

a

33
Q

gradient echo sequences can either yield T1 or T2* characteristics
A) True
B) False

A

a

34
Q

gradient echo sequences can yield either T1 or T2* characteristics, with influences caused by all of the following except
A) susceptibility
B) inhomogeneity
C) chemical shift
D) aliasing

A

d

35
Q

gradient echo sequences acquired for the evaluation of hemorrhagic lesions rely on
A) susceptibility
B) inhomogeneity
C) chemical shift
D) aliasing

A

a

36
Q

a FLAIR sequence is utilised to suppress signal from
A) MS plaques
B) gadolinium
C) Fat
D) CSF

A

d

37
Q

which of the following field strengths would have the shortest TI time to suppress signal from fat for a STIR sequence
A) 0.35T
B) 1T
C) 1.5T
D) 3T

A

a

38
Q

If one desires to null the signal from a specific tissue using an IR sequence, one should select an inversion time that is ____ of the T1 relaxation time of that tissue
A) 43%
B) 69%
C) 80%
D) 37%

A

b

39
Q

which of the following best describes an EPI sequence
A) 90˚ followed by a 180˚
B) 180˚ followed by a 90˚/180˚ combination
C) a train of gradient echoes
D) a train of spin echoes

A

c

40
Q

which of the following best describes a FSE sequence
A) 90˚ followed by a 180˚
B) 180 ˚ followed by a 90˚/180˚
C) train of gradient echoes
D) train of spin echoes

A

d

41
Q

which of the following best describes an IR pulse sequence
A) 90˚ followed by a 180˚
B) 180˚ followed by a 90˚/180˚
C) a train of gradient echoes
D) a train of spin echoes

A

b

42
Q

which of the following best describes a spin echo sequence
A) 90˚ followed by a 180˚
B) 180˚ followed by a 90˚/180˚
C) a train of gradient echoes
D) a train of spin echoes

A

a

43
Q

in which of the following EPI sequences would one expect there to be least susceptibility distortion artifacts
A) single shot SE EPI, 256phx256fr
B) single shot gre-epi, 512phx192fr
C) multishot (4shot) SE epi, 256phx256fr
D) single shot SE epi, 192phx192fr

A

c. multi shot will be the sequence with the shortest train of echoes and thus less susceptibility artifacts

44
Q

when acquiring an fMRI series to map out the visual cortex, which of the following pulse sequences would be utilised in order to maximise sensitivity to the BOLD effect
A) spin echo EPI
B) gradient echo EPI
C) FSE with DRIVE
D) 3D spoiled GRE with MTC

A

b

45
Q

in which of the following sequences would MS plaques appear hyperintense relative to both CSF and normal white matter
A) T2 FLAIR
B) T1 FLAIR
C) T2 FSE
D) T2 FSE with RF fat suppression

A

a

46
Q

in a balanced GE acquisition, the contrast weighting is
A) T1
B) T2
C) T2*
D) ratio of T2/T1

A

d

47
Q

in an image acquired with a balanced GRE sequence all of the following have high (bright) signal except
A) blood in the left ventricle
B) CSF
C) IVC
D) Normal myocardium

A

d

48
Q

parallel imaging techniques are known as all of the following except
A) SENSE
B) SMASH
C) GRAPPA
D) SAT

A

d

48
Q

when parallel imaging is used, a low resolution scan is acquired prior to the acquisitions
A) test bolus
B) filtering scan
C) calibration scan
D) sat pulse

A

c

49
Q

when doing an MRA of the IVC, a saturation band should be placed ____ to the axial slices
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) superior
D) inferior

A

d

50
Q

when doing an MRA of the carotid arteries, a saturation pulse should be placed ____ to the axial slices
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) superior
D) inferior

A

c

51
Q

when doing an MRA COW, sat band should be placed ____ to the axial slices
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) superior
D) inferior

A

c

52
Q

when doing an MRV of the superior sagittal sinus, a sat band should be placed ____ to the axial slices
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) superior
D) inferior

A

d

MRI exam (14 decks)

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