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MRI exam > patient assessment, monitoring and management > Flashcards

patient assessment, monitoring and management Flashcards

1
Q

which of the following may cause a patient to have a syncopal episode
1. anxiety
2. hunger
3. hypertension
A) 1
B) 3
C) 1, 2
D) 2, 3

A

c

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2
Q

All claustrophobic patients who are schedules for MRI should be
A) sedated
B) forced to overcome their fear
C) reschedule for another day
D) handled delicately to not compound their anxiety

A

d

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3
Q

patients who should be monitored with pulse oximetry during MRI
1. unresponsive and uncommunicative
2. sedated, psychiatric and paediatric
3. patients who have weak voices/impaired hearing
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2 ,3

A

d

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4
Q

patients who have diazepam should be monitored with
A) pulse oximetry
B) ECG gating
C) peripheral gating
D) verbal communication

A

a

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5
Q

it is good practice for all patients who undergo MRI to be monitored
A) visually and verbally
B) by ECG
C) by respiratory monitors
D) not at all

A

a

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6
Q

before the publication of contrast media update in 2010, contraindications for gad included
1. sickle cell and hypertension
2. pregnancy and breast feeding
3. high BUN and creatitine
4. low GFR
5. Renal insufficiency or renal injury
6. none known
A) 6
B) 1, 2 , 3
C) 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

A

a

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7
Q

after the publication of contrast media update in 2010, contraindications for gad included
1. sickle cell and hypertension
2. pregnancy and breast feeding
3. high BUN and creatitine
4. low GFR
5. Renal insufficiency or renal injury
6. none known
A) 6
B) 1, 2 ,3
C) 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

A

c

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8
Q

Precautions for use of gadolinium include
1. sickle cell crisis and hypertension
2. pregnancy
3. low GFR
4. hemolytic anomalies and lactatic mothers
5. Prior contrast media reactions and patient with asthma or allergies
A) 3
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

A

d

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9
Q

approved gadolinium contrast agents are currently indicated for
1. IV paed imaging
2. IV abdominal imaging
3. IV CNS imaging
4. intra-articular MSK imaging
A) 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4

A

c

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10
Q

a patient who has too much insulin in their body is experiencing
A) diabetic coma
B) hyperglycemia
C) hypoglycemia
D) hypovolemia

A

c- not enough sugar and therefore too much insulin

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11
Q

what is the correct order for administering basic life support
A) airway, breathing, circulation
B) circulation, breathing, airway
C) breathing, circulation, airway
D) airway, circulation, breathing

A

a

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12
Q

if a patient is recumbent on the MRI couch, says they feel faint what action should be taken
A) sit patient upright slowly
B) contact referring physician
C) place patient in fowlers position
D) place patient in trendelbergs position

A

d

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13
Q

proper method for treating a contrast media extravasation is
A) place a warm compress and complete administration of contrast
B) remove needle, bandage and look for another vein
C) remove needle, hold pressure, apply ice
D) stop injection, wait for fluid to disperse and resume injection

A

c- ice is preferred to heat as it localises the area of fluid

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14
Q

which of the following may cause a loss of patency in an IV line
A) using incorrect solution
B) improper height of IV solution
C) poor circulation
D) improper needle selection

A

b. too high can increase flow rate and = extravasation, too low can cause back flow of blood

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15
Q

deep veins are not used for venipuncture because
A) they are too difficult to locate
B) their tunica intima is much thicker
C) they are too close to major arteries and nerves
D) possible interference with lymphatic system

A

c

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16
Q

which of the following can be used for multiple doses of the same drug
A) ampule
B) vial

A

b

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17
Q

reducing the viscosity of contrast media can be accomplished by
A) warming
B) cooling
C) shaking
D) storing in low humidity

A

a

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18
Q

the stated gauge of an IV needle refers to
A) length
B) bevel angle
C) diameter
D) circumference

A

c

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19
Q

which blood test for renal function is used to calculate eGFR
A) blood urea nitrogen
B) hematocrit
C) partial thomboplastin time
D) serum creatinine

A

d

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20
Q

which of the following would not be used to assess risk of hemorrhaging during invasive procedure
A) prothrobin time
B) hematocrit
C) INR
D) platelet count

A

b. hematocrit is used to measure dehydration

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21
Q

which vessel has the thickest tunica media
A) artery
B) vein
C) capillary
D) lymphatic

A

a

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22
Q

normal serum creatinine is
A) 0.2-1.0 mg/dL
B) 0.6-1.5 mg/dL
C) 0.8-2.5 mg/dL
D) 1.2-3.0 mg/dL

A

b

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23
Q

an eGFR below 15 is indicative of
A) normal kidney function
B) kidney infection
C) polycystic kidney
D) in need of dialysis

A

d

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24
Q

ACR recommends gad should not be administered to patients with an eGFR of
A) 50+
B) 30 +
C) below 30
D) no value

A

c

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25
Q

what type of circulation is responsible for deoxygenation of blood
A) pulmonary
B) systemic
C) non systemic
D) portal

A

a

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26
Q

which of the layers of a blood vessel is made of fibrous connective tissue
A) tunica adventitia
B) tunica media
C) tunica intima
D) capillaries

A

a

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27
Q

a normal range for blood urea nitrogen is (BUN)
A) 0.6-1.5mg/100dL
B) 2.0-15.0mg/100dL
C) 8-20mg/100dL
D) 25-50mg/100dL

A

c

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28
Q

which blood cell carries oxygenated hemoglobin
A) platelet
B) erythrocyte
C) thrombocyte
D) leukocyte

A

b. erythrocyte is a red blood cell

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29
Q

which of the following tests can be done as an indicator of dehydration
A) BUN
B) PTT
C) serum pottasium
D) hematocrit

A

d

30
Q

a _____ can be used to administer nutrition or long term chemo
A) peg tube
B) chest tube
C) venous catheter
D) j tube

A

c

31
Q

administration of IV contrast is indicated for MRI imaging during
A) paediatric imaging
B) abdominal imaging
C) brain and spine imaging
D) a, b, c

A

d

32
Q

the % of patients who have reported to have had a reaction to gadolinium is
A) less than 2%
B) 5%
C) 15%
D) 20%

A

a

33
Q

patients who have increased risk of reactions to gadolinium include
1. a hx of asthma or allergies
2. prior contrast reactions
3. hemolytic anomalies
4. all patients
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4

A

b

34
Q

patients who have reported a reaction to gadolinium include
1. a hx of asthma or allergies
2. prior contrast reactions
3. hemolytic anomalies
4. all patients
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4

A

d

35
Q

contrast reactions such as flushing, hives and nausea are called
A) psychosomatic
B) cardiovascular
C) anaphylactic
D) non systemic

A

d.

36
Q

if you determine that as adult patient needs CPR, what should be your first response
A) call for help
B) begin compressions
C) begin mouth to mouth
D) heimlich maneuver

A

a

37
Q

when performing a one rescuer CPR on an adult, the rate of compression to ventilations should be
A) 5:2
B) 15:2
C) 15:1
D) 30:2

A

d

38
Q

what is the most severe form of convulsive seizures
A) grand mal
B) petit mal
C) epileptic
D) partial

A

a

39
Q

if CPR is not started within ___ of cardiac arrest, there will be brain damage due to lack of oxygen
A) 1-3 mins
B) 4-6 mins
C) 7-10 mins
D) 15 mins

A

a

40
Q

what type of shock is caused by failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs
A) hypovolemic shock
B) septic shock
C) anaphylactic shock
D) cardiogenic shock

A

d

41
Q

when lifting a patient what must one remember
1. keep your back straight
2. keep your arms straight
3. keep your knees slightly bent
A) 1
B) 2
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 3

A

c

42
Q

log rolling is a method of moving patients with a suspected
A) head injury
B) vertebral column injury
C) extremity fracture
D) bower obstruction

A

b

43
Q

the most common sites injured by technologists while caring for patients is the
A) head
B) arms and shoulders
C) lumbosacral spine
D) lower leg

A

c

44
Q

during the movement and transfer of patients, urinary catheter bags should be placed
A) below the lever of the mr couch
B) at the foot of the mr couch
C) below the level of the urinary bladder
D) on the stretcher on the sheet with the patient

A

c

45
Q

when venipuncture is performed
A) the technologist is not responsible for obtaining patient history because the exam was ordered by a physician
B) the contrast agent should NEVER be flushed through the syringe, any tubing used and the needle before injection
C) the contrast must always be cooled prior to injection
D) the tubing, syringe and needle used must be flushed with contrast to avoid administering any air into the vein

A

d

46
Q

which of the following may cause the patient to have a syncopal episide
1. hypertension
2. anxiety
3. infection
4. hunger
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4

A

d

47
Q

the diabetic patient who has excessive insulin in their body is said to have
A) hypotension
B) hyperglycemia
C) hypoglycemia
D) hyperkalemia

A

c. the patient does not have enough sugar in their system and thus hypo

48
Q

if a patient has a cardiac arrest during MR imaging the technologist should
A) call a code and direct them to the exam room
B) quench the magnet
C) begin CPR while the patient remains in the scan room
D) begin CPR while the patient is being transferred out of the exam room

A

d

49
Q

during any emergency that occurs in the MR room, the technologist should
A) call a code and direct the team to the exam room
B) quench the magnet
C) continue imaging and call the radiologist
D) remove the patient from the exam room

A

d

50
Q

a patient is experiencing tachycardia
A) slow respiratory rate
B) rapid pulse rate
C) low oxygen sat reading
D) high BP reading

A

b

51
Q

what is the average pulse rate for an infant
A) 40-60 BPM
B) 70-80 BPM
C) 80-200 BPM
D) 115-130 BPM

A

d

52
Q

normal blood pressure for an adult is
A) 80/120
B) 120/80
C) 250/120
D) 120/250

A

b

53
Q

which of the following readings would indicate shock
A) diastolic pressure of 40
B) diastolic pressure of 90
C) systolic pressure of 100
D) systolic pressure of 160

A

a

54
Q

a patient receiving oxygen should not have temperature measured via the ____ route
A) axillary
B) rectal
C) oral
D) tympanic

A

c

55
Q

a patient with epistaxis has an
A) nose bleed
B) ear infection
C) slow pulse rate
D) abcess

A

a

56
Q

shock resulting from a large loss of body fluid or blood is
A) cardiogenic shock
B) septic shock
C) hypovolemic shock
D) neurogenic shock

A

c

57
Q

for an unconscious patient that has sustained a head injury the main concern is
A) preventing additional hemorrhage
B) keeping airway patent
C) maintaining normal pulse
D) maintaining adequate 02

A

b

58
Q

geriatric patients likely exhibit all of the following except
A) changes in anatomic land marks
B) fragile skin
C) decrease in intelligence
D) difficulty with balance

A

c

59
Q

a technologist may administer oxygen in an emergency situation. most frequent rate used
A) 2L/min
B) 5L/min
C) 10L/min
D) 15L/min

A

a. a technologist may administer 1-4L/min

60
Q

an artery that is typically used to check an adults pulse rate
A) apical
B) carotid
C) femoral
D) radial

A

d

61
Q

pulse rate that is checked for circulation during CPR in an adult
is the
A) apical
B) carotid
C) femoral
D) radial

A

b

62
Q

which of the following conditions is common with COPD
A) brachycardia
B) orthopnea
C) dysphagia
D) epistaxis

A

b. this is difficulty breathing while laying down

63
Q

in order to reduce orthostatic hypotension, the technologist should
A) sit the patient up slowly from the recumbent position and allow sufficient time before standing
B) provide patient with something sweet to counteract
C) elevate legs 60˚ above the heart
D) place the patient into trendelenbergs position and call for help

A

a

64
Q

where would a central like catheter be located
A) subclavian vein
B) brachiocephalic artery
C) median cubital vein
D) superior vena cava

A

a

65
Q

a patient with apraxia will have difficulty with
A) speaking
B) balance
C) dressing
D) swallowing

A

c. this often occurs after a stroke and patients struggle with a learned motor skill

66
Q

a patient with aphagia will have difficulty with all of the following except
A) speaking
B) reading
C) dressing
D) swallowing

A

c. aphagia is the inability to complete language tasks

67
Q

severe hypoxia has a pulse oximeter reading of
A) 95-100
B) 91-95
C) 86-90
D) 85 and below

A

d

68
Q

an adverse reaction or event caused by treatment by a health care professional is called
A) idiopathic
B) nosocomial
C) Iatrogenic
D) anaphylactic

A

c

69
Q

a normal pulse rate for an adult is
A) 40-60 BPM
B) 60-90 BPM
C) 80-100 BPM
D) 100-130 BPM

A

c

70
Q

a patient recovering from a seizure should be
A) placed in the recovery position
B) instructed to lie on their back
C) administered emergency oxygen
D) helped to move to a more comfortable area

A

a. recovery position is also known as sims position

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