Public Health And State Vet Service Flashcards

1
Q

what are the four principles of enforcement

A

Proportionality
conitensy
transparincy
targeting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

proportionality

A

the first principle of enforcment
Proportionality in securing compliance will generally involve taking account of the degree
of the risk of harm caused by non-compliance. Sometimes, however, the precautionary
principle will require enforcement action to be taken even though the risks may be
uncertain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Consistency

A

the second prnciple of enforcment
Consistency means taking a similar approach in similar cases to achieve similar outcomes
within which a degree of discretion is available. There are many variables to be taken into
account in using discretion to achieve an outcome, such as the attitude and competence of
the regulated person to bringing about the outcome sought.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

transparency

A

the third principle of enforcment
Transparency means helping those regulated to comprehend what is required of them at
the outset and setting out what they may expect from Defra in return. It also involves
making clear what remedial action is required from the regulated person and providing
details of any rights of appeal etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

targeting

A

the fourth principle of enforcment
Targeting of enforcement action means prioritising and directing regulatory effort
effectively. This means concentrating on the activities which create the most serious risk,
either because the nature of the activity is inherently high-risk or because of a lack of
appropriate controls or appropriate attitude in other less high-risk activities. It also involves
identifying and focusing on those responsible for the risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

minister positions in defra

A

Minister of State for Pacific and the Environment
Parliamentary Under Secretary of State (Minister for Rural Affairs and Biosecurity)
Minister of State
Parliamentary Under Secretary of State

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

protecting and promoting animal welfare through non legislative approches

A

– OIE (World Organisation for Animal Health), Farm Quality Assurance schemes, welfare-friendly labelling, retailer schemes, codes of best practice, public campaigns/pressure groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

protecting and promoting animal welfare through legislative approches

A

– Creation, implementation and enforcement of UK legislation – role for the state veterinarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is an Unnecessary suffering offence

A

Animal Welfare Act 2006

A person commits an offence if—

(a) an act of his, or a failure of his to act, causes an animal to suffer,
(b) he knew, or ought reasonably to have known, that the act, or failure to act, would have that effect or be likely to do so,
(c) the animal is a protected animal, and
(d) the suffering is unnecessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define notifiable disease

A

any of various health conditions that upon detection are required by the uk goverment to be reported to public health authorities. For certain diseases, namely those of an infectious nature, mandatory disease reporting plays a critical role in preventing and controlling the spread of disease in populations.
Animal diseases that you’re legally
obliged to report to the APHA, even
if you only suspect that an animal(s)
may be affected

diseases are notifiable in aid of-
International trade
Public health
Animal welfare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define reportable disease

A

diseases requred to be reported by the EU’s Animal Health Regulation

The Zoonoses Order 1989 requires the reporting to the government (APHA) of certain designated organisms – Salmonella and Brucella spp.

The amendment order of 2021 expanded this requirement to also include Brucella canis and Salmonella detection from dogs

In addition to the changes regarding Brucella and Salmonella relating to the Zoonoses Orders, new EU legislation necessitated the laboratory isolation of other diseases to be made reportable in GB

This was because of the introduction of the EU Animal Health Law – Regulation (EU) 2016/429 in April 2021 – Annex 2 has a list of animal diseases: CL2016R0429EN0020010.0001.3bi_cp 1..1 (europa.eu)

To meet trade requirements and maintain export markets to the EU as a Third Country, 15 extra diseases were now made reportable on detection, 10 of which are endemic in GB e.g. Paratuberculosis (Johne’s), Q fever, IBR, BVDV, PRRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define exotic in the context of notifiable diseases

A

Exotic diseases are infectious diseases that do not occur in the uk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define endemic in the context of notifiable diseases

A

an infection is said to be endemic in a population when that infection is constantly maintained at a baseline level in a geographic area without external inputs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define epizootic in the context of notifiable diseases

A

Epizootics are epidemic outbreak of disease in an animal population, often with the implication that it may extend to humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Summarise the control program of bovine Tuberculosis in the UK

A

control scheme is based on tuberculin skin testing, slaughter of animals that test positive (‘reactors’) and movement restrictions placed on herds/farms where those animals are found, meat inspection and milk pasteurisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

APHA try to reduce the risk of notifiable diseases by

A

Stopping imports from infected areas or countries
Pre-export tests and isolation
Post import checks- isolation and quarentines
Trading partners
Horizon scanning- staff look at rates in other countries and make risk assesments to predict the liklyhood of certian diseases enterin the uk
Active and passive surveillance programmes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Horizon scanning

A

staff look at rates in other countries and make risk assesments to predict the liklyhood of certian diseases enterin the uk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

EVA- Equine Viral Arteritis

A

Equids
Not zoonotic
EVA order 1995-This Order provides for the extension of the definition of disease in the Animal Health Act 1981 to include equine viral arteritis
only notifiable for stallions and mares that have been breeding in the last 14 days

Fever, depression, anorexia
Oedema- limbs
Conjunctivitis, rhinitis, nasal discharge,
Abortion, stillbirths- big impact
Rare: enteritis or pneumo-enteritis in young foals
Or none
Mortality very low: most have full recoveries

transmission-
Respiratory- most important in acute phase
Venereal- can survive in chilled semen
Congenital
Fomites (contaminated equipment)=- artificial vagina
Carrier stallions- long standing infection. very importan source of infection. acutly infected can become long term carriers. stallion may be asymptomatic. cycle of disease. carrire state is testosterone dependent

Stallions do not show signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Scenario-
Recently purchased horse
Pre-breeding bloods for EVA requested by owner
high positive antibody titre

Why does this stallion have a high titre?

A

Acute infection
Previous exposure: non carrier
Previous exposure: carrier
EVA vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when would you call the APHA when a horse presents with a high antibody titre for EVA

A

If the horse is a mare bred in the last 14 days or a gelding
if the horse has any clinical signs
Has this horse been EVA vaccinated?
Is this vaccine ‘up to date’- once vaccinated you cannot tel the difference between exposure and vaccine. should be tested for eva before vaccine and the results marked on passport

Can APHA rule out that this stallion is not a carrier?- vaccination up to date?

Confirm investigation required- Restrictions
APHA investigate

Complete official blood sampling
Non-negative official results-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How to spot bluetongue in sheep

A

Signs of bluetongue in sheep include:

ulcers in the mouth
discharge of mucus and drooling from mouth and nose
swelling of the mouth, head and neck and the coronary band (where the skin of the leg meets the horn of the foot)

Other clinical signs include:

red skin as a result of blood collecting beneath the surface
fever
lameness
breathing problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how to spot bluetounge in cattle

A

Cattle are the main carriers of bluetongue. Signs of the disease include:

lethargy
crusty erosions around the nostrils and muzzle
redness of the mouth, eyes, nose
reddening of the skin above the hoof
nasal discharge
reddening and erosions on the teats
elevated temperature
milk drop
not eating

Most adult animals show only mild clinical signs, or show no signs of disease at all.

Calves can become infected with bluetongue (BTV-8) before birth, if the mother is infected while pregnant. Signs of infection include:

calves born small, weak, deformed or blind
death of calves within a few days of birth
abortion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How bluetongue is spread

A

Midges carry the bluetongue virus. They are infected with the virus when they bite an infected animal. The virus spreads when the infected midge bites an uninfected animal. Once a midge has picked up the BTV virus it will be a carrier for the rest of its life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs

A

Lower mortality than “the big three” (HIV, malaria, TB)
Regions of extreme poverty, poor healthcare, conflict
Lack of money, infrastructure and education in endemic regions

Buruli Ulcer (Mycobacterium ulcerans)
Chagas disease (American Trypanosomiasis)
Dengue and Chikungunya
Dracunculiasis (Guinea-worm disease)
Echinococcosis
Foodborne trematodiases
Human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)
Leishmaniasis
Leprosy
Lymphatic filariasis
Mycetoma, chromoblastomycosis and other deep mycoses
Onchocerciasis (river blindness)
Rabies
Scabies and other ectoparasites
Schistosomiasis
Snakebite envenoming
Soil transmitted helminthiases e.g. Ascaris
Taeniasis/Cysticercosis
Trachoma
Yaws (Endemic treponematoses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dracunculiasis (Guinea worm)

A

Thread-like nematode. Female can be up to 80 cm in length
Transmitted in water containing parasite-infected water fleas

Believed to be anthroponotic

Huge efforts to control the disease:
Absence of vaccine or drugs
Rapid identification of cases
Bandaging to stop spread of parasite
Use of larvicide in water (Abate)
Water filtering
Health education

Previously thought to have no reservoir hosts
Recent reports of infected dogs in Chad (1,000 cases in 2016)

Dog parasite is genetically the same as human parasite
Can these animals act as a reservoir host?

Hypothesis: alternative life cycle in fish
Dogs eat infected fish

Will this prevent Guinea worm from being eradicated?
Awareness of animal reservoirs is critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

African Trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)

A

Caused by Trypanosoma brucei
Fatal disease in humans if untreated
Only found in sub-Saharan Africa (tsetse belt)
Live freely in bloodstream and then invade central nervous system

Cattle farming is challenging in the ‘Tsetse belt’ due to risk of trypanosomes

Early stage disease
Fever, extreme fatigue, severe headaches, swollen lymph glands

Late stage disease
Progressive confusion, personality changes and sleep disturbance
Coma and death if untreated

fly takes blood meal,
parasite develops in fly
fly takes second blood meal from human and transmits the parasite to the blood stream and the skin
parasite rapidly develops and disease progresses

Parasite remains extracellular
Exposed to continuous attack by host antibodies and complement
Uses multiple mechanisms to survive

fever comes in waves and these Waves of fever correlate with number of parasites in the blood
Due to antigenic variation of the surface coat- parasites rpoliferate, are killed then proliferate again ect
Parasite is always extracellular and vulnerable to attack

VSG helps evade immune system in the following ways:
Protective barrier
Antigenic variation
Rapidly recycled to remove bound complexes

Three subspecies of T. brucei which are very closely related:

T. brucei brucei
Only infects livestock such as cattle
Killed by human serum
T. brucei rhodesiense
Infects humans (acute disease) and livestock
T. brucei gambiense
Infects humans (chronic disease) and livestock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

kinetoplast

A

contains mitochondrial dna
t brucei posses this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T. brucei surface coat

A

Bloodstream form T. brucei have a very dense coat made of variant surface glycoprotein (VSG)
Attached to surface membrane through a GPI (glycosylphosphatidylinositol) anchor
VSG coat covers entire cell including flagellum

Immune evasion functions of VSG:
Protective barrier
Antigenic variation
Recycled to remove bound complexes

Antigenic variation of VSG and host response:
The parasite has over 1500 VSG genes but only one is expressed at a time
Host produces antibodies and kills nearly all parasites
Surviving parasites are those which express a different VSG

Nearly all VSG genes are found in silent arrays
Only one gene is expressed at a time from 1 of 15 possible telomeric expression sites (ES)
The other 14 ES are transcriptionally silenced

Parasite can switch off one ES and switch on a different one
Only 15 possibilities: not enough to sustain a long term infection
DNA rearrangement:
Change VSG gene in the ES
Make mosaic VSG genes

Massively increases number of possible VSG genes expressed

Host antibodies are produced to each VSG when they are expressed
Constant battle between host and parasite

variation of the surface coat involves the flagellum:
Motile flagellum is attached to the outside of the body
Motility causes hydrodynamic forces
VSG-antibody complex driven towards flagellar pocket- recycling of surface coat
Motility is needed for internalization of VSG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T. brucei brucei host

A

Only infects livestock such as cattle
Killed by human serum

T. brucei brucei is rapidly killed by human serum
Undergoes swelling (lysosome bursts)
What is causing this?

Trypanolytic factors TLF-1 and TLF-2 found in human serum:
High density lipoprotein (HDL)
- TLF-1 particles contain haptoglobin-related protein HPR, apolipoprotein L-1 (apoL-1) and apolipoprotein A-1

Haptoglobin (Hp) is a glycoprotein found in blood
Binds to free haemoglobin (Hb) and protects against toxicity
Captured Hb is directed to macrophages expressing CD163

Humans and primates have novel variants of Hp and also a haptoglobin-related protein (Hpr)

T. brucei has a haptoglobin-haemoglobin receptor
Takes up haptoglobin and haemoglobin as a source of haem
Trypanolytic Factor 1 (TLF-1) complex binds to the T. brucei receptor via Hpr
Any T. brucei brucei cells in human serum become bound to TLF-1
TLF-1 enters the cell by endocytosis at the flagellar pocket

TLF-1 is taken into the parasite by endocytosis
Apo-L1 is transported to lysosome
Causes the formation of pores in the lysosome membrane
Lysosomal swelling and cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T. brucei rhodesiense host

A

Infects humans (acute disease) and livestock

can survive in human serum because:
TLF-1 is taken into the parasite by endocytosis
Apo-L1 is blocked by a protein called SRA
There is no lysosomal swelling or cell death

Humans with ApoL1 variants G1 and G2 Have resistance to T. brucei rhodesiense
The ApoL1 is resistant to SRA
Lysosomal swelling and cell death
Risk of severe kidney disease but short term survival advantage
SRA has an ApoL1 interacting domain. Otherwise is similar to VSGs

ApoL1 has a ColA-like domain involved in pore formation, a domain for binding to membranes and an SRA interacting domain

Implications for control of veterinary disease
Can we produce GM livestock with ability to kill T. brucei brucei?
What if we selected for ApoL1-resistant parasites?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T. brucei gambiense host

A

Infects humans (chronic disease) and livestock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Surra (Trypanosoma evansi)

A

Non-tsetse transmitted animal trypanosomiasis
Mechanical transmission by biting insects (esp. Tabanus)
Not usually infective to humans
biting insect can only transmit withing half an hour of biting an infected animal
Wide geographical distribution
North Africa, Middle East, Latin/South America, Asia

Host range of T. evansi
North Africa and Middle East: dromedary camels and equines

Asia: water buffalo, cattle, pigs, goats

Latin/South America: equines, capybara, vampire bat (vector)

Many other domestic and wild host species including:

Rodents, sheep, dogs, cats, deer, gazelles, deer, elephant, rhinoceros, orang utan, wolves, jackals, hyenas, black bears, red howler monkeys, wallabies, guinea pigs, armadillos.

Surra from Indi meaning “rotten”
Fever, anaemia, anorexia, loss of weight
Abortions
Cachexia and death

Highly variable in different hosts and geographical regions

A neglected veterinary tropical disease?

Reports of high prevalence in wide range of species
Notifiable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE)

Few drugs are available for treatment
Quinapyramine sulphate, diminazene
Counterfeit drugs
Emergence of drug resistance?
Reinfection rates are high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Dourine (T. equiperdum)

A

Closely related to T. evansi
Sexually transmitted
Narrow host range: equines
May cause acute infection and death within days
Mechanical transmission (often Tabanus flies)
Parasites only survive for a short time on insect mouthparts

T. evansi and T. equiperdum are practically monomorphic
No differentiation into insect-infective stage

Have a much wider geographical range than tsetse-transmitted trypanosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Leishmaniasis

A

Infection with Leishmania
Spread by sand flies
Leishmania reside inside macrophages- intracellular
Estimated 2 million new cases per year
No vaccine and difficult to treat

Forms of leishmaniasis:
Cutaneous (CL)- parasites in skin, can progress to-
Mucocutaneous- goes to mucus membranes, can cause loss of appendages
Visceral- can go to spkeen and liver

1/3 of dogs in span could be infected

important resoviour

lifecycle-
sandfly takes blood meal
parasites become promastigotes and proliferate and differentiate in salaviary glands of sandfly
sandly takes another bloodmeal and transmits promastigotes
promastigotes attach to host macrophage and are phagocytosed
they become amastigotes and multiply till cell bursts and goes on to infect other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Visceral leishmaniasis (humans)

A

Often fatal if not treated
Fever, weight loss, pancytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly

enlarged liver and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Treatment of visceral leishmaniasis

A

Pentavalent Antimonials (Pentostam, Glucantim)
Very toxic, severe adverse effects including pancreatitis

Amphotericin B
Very toxic, risk of anophylaxis in first few hours

Liposomal Amphotericin B (AmBisome)
Less toxic but very expensive (originally $2800 per treatment)
Recent donations – enough for 5% of cases

Miltefosine
Less toxic. Is the only orally administered drug for leishmaniasis
Teratogenic so is not suitable for women of child-bearing age- can be given to dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cutaneous leishmaniasis (CL)

A

Over 75% of leishmaniasis cases (1 million+ cases per year)
Not fatal but may be disfiguring and stigmatising
Number of cases and distribution has increased in recent years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

cestodes

A

Flattened, tape-like segmented body.

indirect lifcycle- required intermediarte host in which larve develope- usually encyst in host, definitive host is usually carnivore-
Each segment is self-contained, containing one or two sets of male and female reproductive organs.

The end segment is released from the tip of the tail and can pass out in the faeces.

Tapeworms have an indirect lifecycle requiring an intermediate host where the larval stages develop.

Larval forms usually encyst within the tissues of the intermediate hosts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Taenia saginata

A

Indirect life-cycle
Humans are the definitive host
Tapeworm in intestine
Cattle are the intermediate host
Cysticercus bovis cysts in muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Echinococcus granulosus

A

Canids = definitive host,
Intermediate host = large domestic species, such as cattle, sheep and horses
Canids pass the proglottids in areas where these animals graze, and upon ingestion the embryos develop into hydatid cysts.
The cysts are most commonly found in the liver and lungs, although other organs can be infected; they may never result in clinical disease, but can result in carcass condemnation at time of slaughter.
Canids = definitive host,
Intermediate host = large domestic species, such as cattle, sheep and horses
Canids pass the proglottids in areas where these animals graze, and upon ingestion the embryos develop into hydatid cysts.
The cysts are most commonly found in the liver and lungs, although other organs can be infected; they may never result in clinical disease, but can result in carcass condemnation at time of slaughter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Echinococcus multilocularis

A

Not in the UK, currently
Echinococcus multilocularisis the cause of alveolar hydatid disease (aka: Alveolar echinococcosis)
Very similar life cycle to E. granulosus
Humans infected by exposure primarily to eggs
Liver cysts in humans more fulminant than E.granulosus
dogs must have tapeworm treatment before bringing them back to great britiain if they have been abroud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

nematodes

A

Roundworms have no segments and tend to be of a white or pink-brown colour.

Prolific egg-layers and just a few worms can produce large numbers of eggs.

Toxocaraspp. eggs can survive in the environment for months or even years.

Toxocara canis in zoonotic roundworm in dogs
Toxocara cati in zoonotic roundworm in cats
Toxocara leonina in dogs, cats, foxes

direct or indirect lifecycle

pregnant bitched can spread them through fetuses and milk

bitches should be wormed during pregnancy with non tetarogenic wormer- pregnancy can trigger a low grade infection in a bitch to become much much more infectious

Ancylostoma spp = hookworms
Neglected tropical disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the goal of the OIE’s
international standards?

A

he OIE’s international standards improve the
health and welfare of animals throughout the
world, they improve the prevention and control of
animal diseases, including those transmissible to
humans (zoonoses) and contribute to ensuring
secure and safe food systems worldwide with
lower costs and greater economic opportunities.
They play a key role in fostering global safe trade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Performance of Veterinary Services (PVS)
Pathway

A

The OIE’s capacity building flagship programme -
Performance of Veterinary Services (PVS) Path-
way – offers countries with a series of proven
tools and methods to evaluate, plan and provide
estimated costs for improving their national Vet-
erinary Services.
PVS Pathway empowers na-
tional Veterinary Services by providing them with
a comprehensive understanding of their strengths
and weaknesses using a globally consistent meth-
odology based on international standards - a use-
ful external perspective that can reveal gaps, in-
efficiencies and opportunities for innovation. This
enables countries to take ownership and prioritize
improvements to their animal health system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The World Trade Organisation (WTO)

A

WTO is the only international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations
Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland; created in 1995 (predecessor was GATT)
164 member countries – covers 98% of world trade
WTO agreements are therefore negotiated and signed by most of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments
It also settle trade disputes between nations, and reduces arbitrary trade barriers
Seeks to ensure trading is fair and non-discriminatory
WTO supports developing countries seeking to trade, especially through transition arrangements
Overall goal - ensure that trade flows smoothly, predictably and as freely as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

WTO Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (WTO SPS)

A

Extract of the opening paragraphs:

‘Reaffirming that no Member should be prevented from adopting or enforcing measures necessary to protect human, animal or plant life or health, subject to the requirement that these measures are not applied in a manner which would constitute a means of arbitrary or unjustifiable discrimination between Members where the same conditions prevail or a disguised restriction on international trade;

Desiring to improve the human health, animal health and phytosanitary situation in all Members;

Noting that sanitary and phytosanitary measures are often applied on the basis of bilateral agreements or protocols …’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Codex Alimentarius – the ‘Food Code’

A

1963: The Codex Alimentarius Commission (the Commission) was established by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO)
Now has 188 Member Countries
229 intergovernmental and international non-governmental organizations are accredited as observers
Main work - the development of international food standards, guidelines, and codes
of practice to protect the health of consumers and ensure fair practices in the food trade
International food safety standards established by the Commission are explicitly recognized in the WTO SPS Agreement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Travelling into the EU or NI with a pet from Great Britain requierments

A

Now that the UK has left the European Union, we are no longer part of the EU Pet Travel Scheme (EU Pet Travel Regulation 576/2013)

Must meet EU requirements for entry (dogs, cats, ferrets)

The pet needs:

A microchip for identification
A valid rabies vaccination (with record)
An animal health certificate (or valid pet passport not issued in GB, if accepted in that country)
Tapeworm treatment (for dogs travelling directly to NI, Ireland, Finland, Norway or Malta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Travelling into Great Britain (GB) with a pet from the EU requierments

A

Now that the UK has left the European Union, we are no longer part of the EU Pet Travel Scheme (EU Pet Travel Regulation 576/2013)
Must meet GB requirements for entry (dogs, cats, ferrets)

Coming in from the EU, or returning to GB from the EU, the pet needs:

A microchip for identification
A valid rabies vaccination (with record)
Valid pet passport or health certificate
Tapeworm treatment (usually for dogs)
Quarantine for up to 4 months if do not follow the rules; or return to where came from; or euthanasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Exporting equines from GB to the EU or NI requierments

A

Current requirements are that you need to:

Book an appointment with an Official Veterinarian (OV) to get blood tests taken on time
Book an agent/transporter and tell them when plan to travel – may need more time to plan travel through an EU border control post (BCP)

Apply for an export health certificate (EHC)
Get equines tested for certain diseases
Meet isolation and residency requirements
Check you have the right equine identification (ID)
Be aware of EU border rules
Check that the person transporting the animals has the correct documentation
Check if you need an export welfare declaration
Get a county parish holding (CPH) number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The RCVS 10 Principles of Certification

A
  1. A veterinarian should certify only those matters which:

a) are within his or her own knowledge;

b) can be ascertained by him or her personally;

c) are the subject of supporting evidence from an authorised veterinarian who has personal knowledge of the matters in question; or

d) are the subject of checks carried out by an Officially Authorised Person (OAP) (see Annex 21.A).

  1. Veterinarians should not issue a certificate that might raise questions of a possible conflict of interest.
  2. A veterinarian should only sign certificates that are written in a language they understand.
  3. A veterinarian should not certify that there has been compliance with the law of another country or jurisdiction unless the provisions of that law are set out clearly on the certificate or have been provided to them by the Competent Authority in writing.
  4. A veterinarian should only sign original certificates. Where there is a legal or official requirement for a certified copy or duplicate (marked as such) these can be provided.
  5. When signing a certificate, a veterinarian should ensure that:

a) the certificate contains no deletions or alterations, other than those which are indicated on the certificate to be permissible, and subject to such changes being initialled and stamped by the certifying veterinarian;

b) no section of the certificate is left incomplete;

c) the certificate includes not only their signature but also, in clear lettering, their name, qualifications and address and (where appropriate) their official or practice stamps;

d) the certificate includes the date on which the certificate was signed and issued and (where appropriate) the time for which the certificate will remain valid.

  1. Certificates should be written in simple terms which are easy to understand.
  2. Certificates should be:

a) clear and concise;

b) integrated, whole and indivisible;

c) given a unique identifier; and

d) copied and retained with all relevant records.

  1. Certificates should not use words or phrases which are capable of more than one interpretation.
  2. Certificates should clearly identify the subject being certified.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

RCVS: The four C’s of Certification

A

CAUTION - Exercise caution before putting your signature on a document!

CLARITY - Be absolutely clear about what you are being asked to sign

CERTAINTY – Are you certain on what you are attesting? Is it correct?

CHALLENGE – If you are challenged, what is your defence?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Activities of Veterinary Services in primary production according to WOAH

A

presence on farms and collaboration with farmers, Veterinary Services play a key role in ensuring that animals are healthy and kept under good sanitary and hygienic conditions. Veterinary Services also play a key role in biosecurity and early detection, surveillance and treatment of animal diseases, including conditions of public health significance.

Veterinary Services provide direction to farmers on practices that prevent or minimise physical and chemical hazards (for example, mycotoxins, environmental contaminants and pesticide residues) in primary production, including feed.

Veterinary Services play a central role in ensuring the responsible and prudent use of veterinary medicinal products, including antimicrobial agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Activities of Veterinary Services in Slaughter, processing and distribution according to WOAH

A

ensuring that these activities, including meat inspection, minimise foodborne risks to public health. This may be provided by supervision and verification of process control and direct involvement in operational activities such as ante-and post-mortem inspection. Slaughterhouse/abattoir inspection of live animals and their carcasses plays a key role both in the surveillance network for animal diseases and zoonoses, and in ensuring the safety and suitability of meat and animal by-products for their intended uses. Control or reduction of biological hazards of public health and animal health importance by ante- and post-mortem meat inspection is a core responsibility of Veterinary Services.

Veterinary Services may be responsible for overseeing the control measures during processing and distribution of food of animal origin. They also play an important role in raising the awareness of food producers, processors and distributors regarding measures required to assure food safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Activities of Veterinary Services in Assurance schemes and certification of food of animal origin for international trade according to WOAH

A

mportant role in overseeing assurance schemes and an essential role in certifying that food of animal origin complies with animal health and food safety standards.

Other responsible agencies may also be involved in providing assurances and certification of food of animal origin (for example, pasteurisation of milk products) for international trade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Activities of Veterinary Services in Foodborne disease outbreaks according to WOAH

A

investigation of, and response to, foodborne disease outbreaks which may be attributable to or involve animal products, including the implementation of control measures. This work should be carried out in close collaboration with public health professionals, analysts, epidemiologists, food producers, processors and traders and any others involved.

Because of the global nature of the food trade, Veterinary Services should work with other national agencies in reporting to international emergency foodborne disease networks, such as the International Network of Food Safety Authorities (INFOSAN), and in utilising such information for preparedness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In respect of ante- and post-mortem inspection as a component of meat hygiene, responsibilities of Veterinary Services include

A

risk assessment and risk management;

establishment of policies and standards;

design and management of inspection programmes;

assurance and certification of appropriate delivery of inspection and compliance activities;

dissemination of information throughout the meat production chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

food saftey considerations when Rearing livestock for food

A

Minimise hide/fleece contamination – weather, husbandry system, diet, parasite control

Only use non-contaminated feed e.g. avoid Salmonella contamination, chemicals

Medicine stewardship and precisely observe the withdrawal periods

Minimise stress – compromised welfare affects meat quality

Food Chain Information (FCI) - available to FBO and OV in the abattoir in advance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Ante-Mortem (‘before death’) Inspection

A

First inspection of the livestock on arrival

Identify diseased, visibly contaminated etc.

Decisions re isolation, slaughter, cleaning- production may need to be slowed for particularly dirty batches

Dirty pens identified – action by Food Business Operator (FBO)

Critical control point (CCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Food Chain Information (FCI)

A

FCI required for all animals to be presented for slaughter

Used by the abattoir (FBO) to assess (in advance) potential hazards posed by the animals coming in for slaughter – make decision on acceptance or adjustments required

Food business operator (FBO) must evaluate the FCI and make available to the OV without delay

OV must review the FCI before ante-mortem inspection – take note of any issues

apropriate disease managment? treated with anything that could cause residue?

primary producer sends fci- its checked by food buisness operator - its assed by ov
the am and pm findings are recorded and made available to primary producer- infor informs primary production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Clean Livestock Policy

A

Prof Hugh Pennington (Uni. of Aberdeen) investigated an E. coli O157 outbreak in central Scotland

Outbreak source: butcher’s shop in Lanarkshire

Nov 96 until Jan 97 – 490 cases; 18 deaths linked to the outbreak

Cross-contamination between cooked and uncooked meats in the shop

Emphasised importance of clean cattle presented for slaughter and hygiene practices within the abattoir

Contamination – what are we concerned about?

Campylobacter spp.
Salmonella spp.
Vero-cytotoxin producing Escherichia coli O157 (VTEC)
Yersinia enterocolitica
Clostridium perfringens
Listeria monocytogenes

CATEGORY 1 - CLEAN AND DRY
CATEGORY 2 - SLIGHTLY DIRTY- some treatment needed
CATEGORY 3 – DIRTY Cattle in this condition will be rejected from slaughter unless additional control measures are put in place to avoid contamination of the meat during the slaughter process such as clipping the hide in the lairage – cost/welfare implications
CATEGORY 4 - VERY DIRTY Cattle in this category will be rejected for slaughter except in exceptional circumstances e.g. animal welfare grounds, disease control reasons
CATEGORY 5 - FILTHY AND WETCattle in this category should be rejected for slaughter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How does exterior contamination reach the meat?

A

Hide must be rolled outwards when coming off, and the exterior must not fold back onto carcass – clips sometimes used to prevent rollback

Slaughter line operatives removing hide must keep hands clean and wash between handling each carcass

Must maintain clean knives by regularly rotating and sterilizing them in boiling water scald tanks at workstations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

OV antemortem welfare checks

A

Official Veterinarians (OVs) conduct checks to ensure that there are no issues concerning the welfare of animals presented for slaughter

These can take place:

When animals are still on the farm – in advance of transport to the abattoir
During transport to the abattoir – random or targeted checks
When the animals arrive at the slaughterhouse – unloading, vehicle check
In the abattoir lairage - handling and provisions
Up to the point of slaughter – stunning effectiveness and the act of slaughter (bleeding out)
CCTV mandatory in English abattoirs since 2018

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

srm

A

specified risk materials
e.g spinal cord for bse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Slaughter/’sticking’

A

Dirty equipment to be avoided - clean and sterilized – not less than 82 celsius

Technique - 2 knife technique – cattle – skin and then blood vessels

Pigs – generally use a 1 knife sticking technique

Effective training and licensing

Effective supervision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Oesophageal sealing - ‘Rodding’

A

To control escape of GIT contents from oesophagus

Free the oesophagus, then rubber ring or tie applied using a stainless steel rodder up the length of the oesophagus

Sheep – oesophageal clips used more often; pigs – no sealing

Must be in the correct position – oesophagus-rumen junction

Failure = leakage = contamination of carcass – food safety

Training and supervision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

“Bunging”

A

Anal resection and tying
Completed after hide removal if upward hide puller used (and before if downward puller)

Freed and tied or bagged with elastic band

Protected rectum pushed down into the abdominal cavity

Controls faecal leakage from anus onto the carcass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Hide/fleece removal

A

Physical process = sheep, cattle

Hand washing and equipment sterilisation between carcasses vital

Mechanized system = better hygiene

Use of plastic sheeting/clips to prevent hide touching exposed meat

Roll out of hide/fleece – avoid contact with meat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Evisceration

A

One-piece removal of abdominal organs (stomach, liver, bladder etc)

Bursting of the viscera = major contamination due to potentially substantial leakage

‘Pluck’ removal – lungs, trachea, heart - hang together for inspection

Skilled removal required – operative training and attention to detail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Milk spot liver

A

migration of Ascaris suum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Washing carcasses

A

Aesthetic only - blood, bone dust

NOT to be used for contamination - must be trimmed, removed with a knife

Not a substitute for good practice i.e. don’t make a mess and then aim to wash it all off!

Minimal water, at low pressure – this is not pressure washing!

Wash from top to bottom of the carcass in a downward direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Refrigeration/Chilling

A

Major CCP (Critical Control Point)

Increases shelf life, slows spoilage

Slows/prevents bacterial multiplication

Surface drying of carcass and low temperatures inhibit bacteria

Must have adequate facilities/capacity for throughput

Ideally no contact between carcasses – spacing to allow air flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Chemical reactions following slaughter: pH drop

A

stop- No blood supply - oxygen and glucose supply to muscles stops
Oxidative pathways stop

start-Anaerobic glycolysis starts – glycogen stores metabolised to try to keep synthesizing ATP
Pyruvate produced as a by-product of glycogen metabolism

drop- Pyruvate metabolised to produce lactic acid in muscles
pH falls from 7.2 to 5.6 (acidification) as lactic acid accumulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Chemical reactions following slaughter: energy

A

energy- Anaerobic glycolysis – produces much less energy
Energy stored as ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

relaxed-ATP levels therefore decrease after slaughter
Energy needed to keep muscles relaxed

contract- Actin and myosin combine irreversibly = actomyosin
Muscles contract – ‘rigor mortis’ sets in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis

A

Most active/well-nourished muscles first i.e. heart (within 1 hour), head, neck
Rigor reached in most skeletal muscles in 9-12 hours
Reaches maximum in roughly 20-24 hours (shorter for pigs)

Influenced by:
- Atmospheric temperature
- Health status of animal prior to slaughter
- Muscle acidity prior to death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) hydrolysis

A

ATP is the “energy currency” of the cell

ATP + H2O ADP + Pi + H+ + Energy

Hydrolysis of a phosphate bond yields the energy for cellular processes

ATP hydrolysis breaks the bond between actin and myosin during muscle contraction

It’s needed to keep muscle in a relaxed state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Acidification – the drop in pH after slaughter

A

ATP + H2O ADP + Pi + H+ + Energy

H+ ions are produced – acid – muscles become acidified, as no blood supply to remove

Muscle pH drops from 7.2 to 5.6 peri-mortem

This drop in pH creates the taste and texture of fresh meat

Meat quality very important – rate and extent of acidification greatly influences it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What happens to ATP and muscle after slaughter?

A

Muscle tissue does not immediately die

Catabolic reactions continue to attempt to keep up energy levels

ATP therefore continues to be utilized, but becomes depleted with time

Instead of actin and myosin linkages being continually broken, they become permanent - muscle extensibility decreases

Onset of rigor mortis – “stiffness of death” (Latin term)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Factors affecting glycogen levels at slaughter

A

Excessive exercise before slaughter

Stress/fatigue and amount of rest pre-slaughter – travel distances

Diet - high sugar levels fed to pigs

Health status – a different type of stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Impact of fatigue/stress pre-slaughter

A

e.g. Hunted deer, stressed cattle in an abattoir lairage - STRESSORS

Little or no glycogen (and ATP) left

Less lactic acid produced – pH does not drop so much

Rigor onset faster due to low ATP levels

Tough meat as a result – eating quality reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Dark Firm Dry (DFD) meat

A

Also sometimes known as ‘Dark Cutting Beef’ (DCB)
Part or whole carcass
Chronic pre-slaughter stress, exhaustion (24-48 hours)
Mixing batches/market/loading/transport etc.
More common with excitable temperaments
Stress = low glycogen = high pH = 6.8
High pH = oxygen debt = dark meat

High pH = poor keeping quality

Same nutritive value, BUT tough to eat, less flavour

Spoilage of DFD meat occurs faster, shelf life reduced

Used for manufacturing/ further processing purposes

Marked loss of value of the meat – economic consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Pale Soft Exudative (PSE) meat

A

All species, but more common in pigs (and poultry)
Has been linked to a single autosomal recessive gene in pigs – breeding and selection to avoid this gene
Acute stress = rapid glycolysis
Stress -susceptible pigs + rough handling prior to slaughter etc.
Rapid fall in pH (5.5 reached in 1 hour)
Carcass temperature higher than normal
Changes in muscle proteins - denaturation - loss of water binding capacity – meat oozes water
Protein changes = excessive drip = increased weight loss

Refractive index changes = pale colour

Tougher texture on cooking

Downgrading or possible condemnation

Loss of meat value – economic consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Minimising DFD/PSE occurrence

A

Gentle handling (farm to abattoir)
Loading ramps essential
Avoid mixing batches
Good lairage design
Food/water available
Sticks/goads not used

Isolate aggressive animals
Use of fine sprays - reduces fighting in pigs
Stock selection - genetics
Diet (e.g. sugar levels)
Timing of journey
Rest time in lairage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Physical properties of meat quality - Colour

A

Due to myoglobin - bright red colour in presence of oxygen (blooming) is synonymous with ‘freshness’ at retail

More myoglobin in slow muscles than fast

DFD meat with high water holding capacity makes meat turgid and reduces oxygen penetration, hence no blooming and bright red colour

Paleness in PSE pork is caused by (a) increased of light scattering due to released water (b) enhanced protein denaturation (c) increased conversion to pale brown metmyoglobin

Results = consumer rejection of the product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Physical properties of meat quality – Water holding capacity

A

The pH of meat influences the extent muscle proteins are electrically charged - necessary to attract and hold the dissociated form of water

Most proteins in meat lose their charge between pH 5.1 and 5.5, which is close to ultimate pH of meat. In this range muscle releases water

Therefore, DFD meat has higher water holding capacity as has higher pH

DFD advantage in meat processing - cheaper and less weight loss

In PSE pork, drip (water) loss is severe and unsightly – consumer rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Eating properties connected to meat quality - Succulence

A

Succulence (‘juiciness’) is an eating quality, often related to the level of fat and moisture in cooked meat

Excessively lean carcass confers less juicy meat – less fat to provide taste

Perceived tenderness and succulence can be improved by simply increasing the amount of fat – ‘marbling’ in beef

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Cold shortening (CS)

A

Rapid chilling reduces microbial growth, evaporation and drip loss, but risks cold shortening (CS)

CS occurs when muscle cools below 10C before rigor mortis
Muscle fibres shorten by as much as third of original length

To prevent CS:

Beef and lamb: not below 10C in the first 10h – pace the chilling speed
Pork: not below 10C in the first 3h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Tenderness and conditioning

A

Within first few hours of slaughter, before rigor mortis, muscle is tender

Toughness sets in at rigor mortis

After several days of cold storage original tender state is restored. This is known as ‘conditioning’

Conditioning is closely related to structural breakdown of muscle proteins, through released endogenous proteases activated by calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Electrical stimulation

A

Electrical current pulsed through the carcass

Electrode in neck - earthed on overhead rail

Meat ages faster – i.e. becomes tender faster

Stimulates muscle to contract = glycogen/ATP used up = pH falls
Accelerates tenderness/reduces ageing times

Reduces storage times and weight loss

Avoids cold shortening with more rapid chilling

Promotes better flavour and colour

Allows hot boning = rapid chilling of cuts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

‘Tenderstretch hanging’:

A

Making beef more tender, faster
Stretching = tenderising [Shortening = toughening]

Carcass suspended from hook in the obturator foramen

Limb relaxed, muscles do not shorten

Suspended within 90 mins of slaughter

For a minimum of 24 hours

Accelerates tenderness by about 3 weeks at 2 Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Setting’ of the carcass

A

Setting = rigor mortis + fat hardening

Chilling aids fat hardening

Tests - lift foreleg, feel firmness of carcase (hit flanks, flick diaphragm)

Sheep carcasses set more firmly – with very hard fat as well

Poor setting = problems = TOTAL CONDEMNATION e.g. fevered animal

Significance of poor carcass setting-
Poor keeping quality

Deep spoilage

Poor setting often indicates undetected illness in the animal at slaughter

Carcass loses shape = more difficult to butcher

NB - Usually a severe PM judgment – condemnation if does not set

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

broiler productiom cycle

A

Broilers – typically highly integrated production – broiler breeders, hatchery, rearers, feed mills, slaughter plant – often all the same company

Elite breeding stock, Great-grandparent (GGP), grandparent (GP) – broiler breeders (P)

Broilers – placed at day-old on farm - typically slaughtered at between approx. 35 and 42 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

layer production cycle

A

free range, barn, caged (enriched cages) – organic/non-organic

Layer birds and broiler breeders will end up in the meat sector as well – older birds - processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is the incubation time for chickens and turkeys in hatchey incubators

A

Eggs in the hatchery incubators – 21 day incubation for chickens, 28 days for turkeys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Poultry slaughter line process when eater bath stunning is used

A

Reception and unloading
Ante-mortem inspection
Shackling
Stunning
Neck cutting
Scalding
De-feathering (plucking)
Inspection
Evisceration
Washing
Inspection (no health marking)
Chilling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Lairage structure and operation for poltry

A

Catching and transport are carefully organised for birds to arrive at a specific time
Aim - minimum waiting time in lairage as opposed to arge animals as chickens get dirty and cannot be supplied water in the crates
Consider ventilation and thermal comfort

minimise time in creat as no water, risk of contamination and lower leves of clenliness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Ante-Mortem Inspection of poultry

A

Veterinary examination at rearing premises (‘the holding of provenance’) - health certificate following checks by an OV (Article 5, EU Reg 2019/624)
Health certificate travels with the birds to slaughter - Meat Hygiene Inspector (MHI) checks identification, health/welfare check

OR

Food Chain Information (FCI) required – production report from farm of origin
Flock must be under veterinary supervision
Producer produces report (electronic) – submit to FBO and then OV - available 24 hours before slaughter
Abattoir OV conducts ante-mortem inspection at abattoir - representative sample

Must take place less than 24 hrs before slaughter
Check the paperwork – are you looking at the correct consignment? – FCI and FBO code

birds will be in creats so-
Listen to the birds
Look at their posture, wattle colour, discharges, cleanliness, dead on arrival?
anything that makes them not safe fof human consumption
Notifiable disease? – AI, ND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Food Chain Information for poultry

A

Farm of origin
Intended date of slaughter
Number of birds for slaughter
Flock mortality % – should be very low
Diseases diagnosed on farm
Results of any laboratory tests – Campylobacter?
Any medication given – withdrawal period observed? Residues suspicion?
Previous post-mortem results – history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Electrical stunning - waterbath – legal requirements

A

WATOK (England) Regs 2005, Schedule 1, Part 5
28. No person may use a waterbath stunner to stun poultry unless—

(a) the level of the water in the waterbath has been adjusted in order to ensure that there is good contact with each bird’s head;
(b) the strength and duration of the current used is such that the poultry are immediately rendered unconscious and remain so until dead;
(c) where poultry are stunned in groups in a waterbath, a voltage sufficient to produce a current strong enough to ensure that every bird is stunned is maintained;
(d) appropriate measures are taken to ensure that the current passes efficiently, in particular that there are good electrical contacts;
(e) the waterbath stunner is adequate in size and depth for the type of poultry being stunned; and
(f) a person is available to ascertain whether the waterbath stunner has been effective in stunning the poultry and, if it has not been effective, will either stun or kill the poultry without delay.

quality of stun can be assed by corneal reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What happens to the waste material? Animal by-products (ABP)

A

ABP comprises entire bodies or any part or product of an animal which is not intended for human consumption – public health protection essential
Three categories – Category 1, 2 and 3
Defined in EU legislation – Regulation (EC) 1069/2009, implemented by Regulation (EC) 142/2011
categorised accorded to risk- 1 most risk, 3 least
Category 1 – mainly applicable to ruminants (Specified Risk Material)
Category 2 – e.g poultry DOAs, rejects at post-mortem inspection
Category 3 – poultry heads, feathers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Monitoring welfare at slaughter for poultry

A

The slaughter plant can be used to monitor bird welfare – farm and transport

Dead on arrival (DOAs)

Handling – fractured wings, fractured legs, carcass bruising

Skin lesions – scratches, breast blisters, breast burn, hock burn, FPD (contact dermatitis)

Council Directive 2007/43/EC of 28 June 2007 laying down minimum rules for the protection of chickens kept for meat production

Annex III

‘2. Post-mortem inspection

In the context of the controls performed under the Regulation (EC) No
854/2004, the Official Veterinarian shall evaluate the results of the post-mortem inspection to identify other possible indications of poor welfare conditions such as abnormal levels of contact dermatitis, parasitism and systemic illness in the holding or the unit of the house of the holding of origin.’

102
Q

Footpad dermatitis (FPD)

A

First reported 1980s in broilers and turkeys

Welfare issue – painful necrotic lesions on hock and foot – use as a welfare indicator

Economic – downgrading of a saleable product – damaged feet – prolonged contact with litter high in moisture and ammonia

Causes? Complicated epidemiology, some conflicting research findings

Wet litter (drinkers, disease), genetic predisposition, litter depth, nutritional deficiencies, production system (organic v conventional)?

103
Q

Contamination – what are we concerned about?

A

Campylobacter spp.
Salmonella spp.
Verocytotoxin-producing Escherichia coli O157 (VTEC)
Yersinia enterocolitica
Clostridium perfringens
Listeria monocytogenes

104
Q

Salmonella in pigs

A

can be spread to outdoor pigs by birds
Pigs carry Salmonella bacteria on tonsils and in caecum

Faecal contamination after slaughter is possible

Salmonella in pork a common cause of human foodborne infections

ELISA tests on meat juice allows herd detection

How to control? Primary production or after slaughter? Danes have had some success with improved slaughter hygiene: See Alban (2013), Veterinary J. 197, 529-530

History of little success in control - a very challenging organism to deal with!

105
Q

Epidemiology of Salmonella serovars

A

Investigated worldwide distribution and occurrence of Salmonella serovars in 4 animal-based foods: pork, poultry, beef, seafood

S. Typhimurium 2nd most common EU isolate in humans and 3rd in USA – generalist serovar with global distribution

S. Typhimurium most often associated with pork

S. Enteritidis most common human isolate in EU – mostly chicken meat, then eggs

S. Anatum most common serovar in beef worlwide, esp. Latin America

s.dublin- cause of abortion in cattle

106
Q

Escherichia coli O157:H7 in food

A

Western USA – large outbreak in 1992-93

More than 700 people infected, 4 deaths

Assoc. with eating beef burgers (minced beef ‘patties’) in fast-food chain

Infectious dose calculated to be < 700 organisms in raw burger before cooking i.e. low dose (prob. 10-100)

Trace-back: Burgers linked to a processing plant in California - made on 19 Nov 1992

Detected poor hygiene practices in the supplying abattoirs and boning plant

107
Q

Common foodborne infectious agents - viruses

A

Hepatitis A virus (HAV)-
Shellfish (water contamination)
[Food handlers]
Very common viral cause of foodborne illness

Hepatitis E virus (HEV)-
Pork
Gaining prominence and attention

Norovirus (NoV)-
Shellfish
[Food handlers, fresh produce]
Deemed the commonest cause of foodborne disease outbreaks in USA in 2017
Noroviruses are a very common cause of gastroenteritis in humans

Noroviruses have also been found in animals, and transfer between humans an animals likely to be occurring in both directions

108
Q

The ‘hygiene package’ of EU Regulations – 852, 853

A

Reg (EC) No 852/2004 – The hygiene of foodstuffs
Article 1 summarised:

Primary responsibility food safety rests with food business operator (FBO)
Food safety starts with primary production, and must be maintained throughout the food chain
Particularly important to maintain the cold chain for certain foods
Hygiene procedures must be based on HACCP principles
Need microbiological criteria and temp controls based on science
Imported foods must be at least as hygienic as EU-produced foods

Main provisions found in Annex 1 of the Regulation – general hygiene requirements for primary production: https://www.legislation.gov.uk/eur/2004/852/annex/I

Need to control hazards – esp. zoonoses and contamination

Integrated food safety – main responsibility with the FBO, not the government!

Reg (EC) No 853/2004 – Specific hygiene rules for food of animal origin

Reg (EU) 2017/625 – Official controls and other official activities performed to ensure the application of feed and food law, rules on animal health and welfare … (Replaces 854/2004)

109
Q

EC 853/2004 – Slaughter hygiene

A

Reg 853/2004, Annex III, Chapter IV
4. Animals must be clean.
7. (b)(i) During the removal of hides and fleeces, contact between the outside of the skin and the carcase must be prevented.
7. (b) (ii) Operators and equipment coming into contact with the outer surface of the hides and fleece must not touch the meat.
10. The carcases must not contain visible faecal contamination. Any visible contamination must be removed without delay by trimming or alternative mans having an equivalent effect.
11. Carcases and offal must not come into contact with floors, walls or work stands.
16. (b) Parts unfit for human consumption must be removed as soon as possible from the clean sector of the establishment.

110
Q

Refrigeration as a control measure

A

EC Regulation 853/2004 (Annex 3, Chapter 7):

‘Post-mortem inspection must be followed immediately by chilling in the slaughterhouse to ensure a temperature throughout the meat of not more than 3 °C for offal and 7 °C for other meat along a chilling curve that ensures a continuous decrease of the temperature.’  Meat and offal must then remain at these temperatures during storage
111
Q

Reg. EC 2073/2005

A

Testing: Microbiological criteria

Article 4: ‘Food business operators shall perform testing as appropriate against the microbiological criteria set out in Annex I, when they are validating or verifying the correct functioning of their procedures based on HACCP principles and good hygiene practice.’

Annex 1 specifies the microbiological criteria for foodstuffs
Sampling and analysis must be conducted by the FBO
Chapter 1 is about Food Safety Criteria – testing food products
Chapter 2 is about Process Hygiene Criteria – testing processing procedures

Minced meat and milk powder-
Salmonella- Not detected in 25g- Product placed on the market within their shelf-life

Ready-to-eat infant food-
Listeria monocytogenes
- Not detected in 25g- Product placed on the market within their shelf-life

Carcases of broiler chickens-
Campylobacter spp., limit of 1000 cfu/g in Carcases after chilling – Take action if unsatisfactory – slaughter hygiene, biosecurity on farm

Meat preparations-
E. coli- limit of 500 -5000 cfu/g or cm2 inEnd of the manufacturing process – Take action if unsatisfactory - sourcing material and/or improve production hygiene

Carcases of cattle, sheep-
Aerobic colony count- limit of 3.5-5.0 log cfu/cm2
Enterobacteriaceae- limit of 1.5-2.5 log cfu/cm2
in Carcases after dressing but before chilling – If unsatisfactory, need improvements in slaughter hygiene and review of process controls

‘The competent authority shall verify compliance with the rules and criteria laid down in this Regulation in accordance with Regulation (EC) No 882/2004, without prejudice to its right to undertake further sampling and analyses for the purpose of detecting
and measuring other micro-organisms, their toxins or metabolites, either as a verification of processes, for food suspected of being unsafe, or in the context of a risk analysis.’

112
Q

The bTB granuloma

A

Continual movement in and out of the granuloma by host cells

[Microscopic granulomas detectable from 7-15 days after experimental infection]

NB – It’s NOT an abscess – it’s a granuloma (and granulomas are not just found in bTB)

‘The caseonecrotic granuloma is one of the hallmarks of tuberculosis’ (Waters et al. 2015)

Internal spread of M. bovis bacteria thought to be mainly through the lymphatic system

M. bovis has also been detected in bovine blood in scientific studies

Bacilli multiply and a tubercle forms around them – connective tissue enveloping bacilli and macrophages – central area of necrosis

Primary lesions often in lymph nodes - Also check for lung lesions – Rare to see generalised bTB now in UK

Decision – partial or total: reject affected parts, condemn whole carcase if both sides of the diaphragm

Mean number of bTB-like lesions in bTB reactors was 1.7 and 1.3 for in-contacts

bTB lesions most commonly found in lymph nodes (LNs) of thorax, then head, followed by abdomen

Most common LNs affected – mediastinal, retropharyngeal, tracheobronchial

25 reactors had lesions in palatine tonsils

In bTB-confirmed cattle – 27% of reactors and 9% of in-contacts had gross lesions in lungs, esp. caudal lobes

113
Q

Hazard

A

something with the potential to cause harm

114
Q

Risk

A

The likelihood that a hazard may occur, usually expressed as the likelihood of the consequences occurring

115
Q

Control measure

A

Any action or activity that can be used to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level

116
Q

Monitoring

A

Conducting a planned sequence of observations or measurements of control parameters, to assess whether a critical control point (CCP) is under control

117
Q

HACCP

A

Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point
a system that identifies, evaluates, and controls hazards that are significant for food safety
History
NASA – Food in space
HACCP is a preventative system
US food borne outbreaks
Large manufacturing business worldwide
International requirement for trade
EU (2006) all food business

118
Q

Types of physical contamination

A

Bones
Gristle,Tendons, Sinew
Hide, fleece
Ingested physical objects
Glass
Metal
Hard plastics
Wood

Pests
Packaging
Needles
Knives and tips
Personal items
Hair
Rail dust common
Equipment
Deliberate items

119
Q

General measures to control physical contamination

A
  • inspection of raw materials on receipt
  • cleaning, washing and inspecting raw materials before use
  • filtering liquids and sieving powders
  • protecting filling hoppers, elevators and belts conveying open food from overhead contamination
  • selecting machinery with guards that are easy to remove and clean
  • avoiding temporary repairs
  • employing spotters at inspection belts
  • in-line magnets to collect metal fragments in pipe-work
  • metal detectors for ferrous (i.e. iron) and non-ferrous metals, stainless steel
  • X-ray machines
  • bottle scanners
  • visual checking of food before it leaves the production area
120
Q

Chemical contamination

A
  • pesticides, preservatives, mould inhibitors, agri chemicals
  • veterinary medicines
  • cleaning chemicals
  • food additives
  • perfume, scented soap
  • chemical reaction between metal and acidic food
  • inks, adhesives, plasticizers used in packaging
  • non-food-grade machinery lubricants
121
Q

General measures to control chemical contamination

A
  • regulation, certificates of analysis and audit, withdrawal periods and verification / testing of
  • correctly labelled containers in a controlled storage area separated from food
  • use of un-perfumed products
  • use of suitable utensils and containers
  • maintenance, use of food-grade lubricants
122
Q

Biological contamination

A

Bacteria - Pathogenic
Viruses
Yeasts
Moulds
Biological toxins
Poisonous foods
Aflatoxins
Mycotoxins
Ergot
Zoonoses?
TSEs?

can be from-

  • Animal itself, gut, hide, fleece, skin, clinical pathology
  • people
  • equipment
  • air and dust
  • soil
  • pests
  • water
  • food waste
123
Q

Control of bacterial contamination

A
  • protecting food from contamination
  • preventing bacterial multiplication
  • destroying bacteria
  • removing contaminated food from the human food chain
124
Q

Control of allergens

A
  • auditing raw material suppliers
  • only using reputable suppliers
  • maintaining up-to-date allergen information on all raw materials on site
  • clearly labelling packaging
  • separate storage of raw materials that may contain allergens
  • using separate processing equipment, utensils and production areas
  • segregating staff in sensitive areas
  • batch traceability for all raw materials and finished product
  • separation and disposal procedures for contaminated raw materials and finished product
  • specific allergy awareness training for staff
  • product recall procedures
  • visitor information
125
Q

Article 5 –Hazard analysis and critical control points

A

Regulation (EC) No. 852/2004 on the hygiene of foodstuffs

  • Everybody must do HACCP based on Codex HACCP principles
    Farming has a derogation although some still do it under things like GlobalGAP
  • consistent across EU
  • additional requirements:
    – procedures for verification
    – establishment of documentation and record keeping
126
Q

Codex Alimentarius Commission(Codex)

A
  • international body created by FAO and WHO of United Nations
  • aims:
    – to protect the health of consumers
    – to ensure fair practices in international trade
    – to issue guidance and codes of practice
  • recommends a HACCP-based system
    Basis of world trade sanitary and phytosanitary measures agreed.
127
Q

HACCP – 12 step process with 7 key principles

A

Assemble the HACCP team
Describe the product
Identify intended use
Construct flow diagram
On-site confirmation of flow diagram
Conduct a hazard analysis and consider control measures
Determine the Critical Control Points (CCPs)
Establish critical limits for each CCP
Establish a monitoring procedure for each CCP
Establish corrective actions
Establish verification procedures
Establish documentation and record keeping

determine critical control points
conduct hazard analysis
estblish critical limits
establish monitorung system
establish documentation
establish verificatin process

128
Q

HACCP pre-requisites

A
  • supplier specifications
  • design and structure of premises and equipment
  • personal hygiene
  • cleaning, disinfection and the control of waste
  • pest control
  • storage and stock control
  • traceability and product recall
  • staff training
  • customer complaints
  • visitors

Think about pre-requisites as all the things you need for your factory to work. HACCP is specific to single products through single processes.

129
Q

A critical control point (CCP)

A
  • a step in the process where it is essential to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level
    Early attempts at HACCP had meat businesses having everything as a CCP
    Hide removal, clean livestock, gut removal, TSE aspects and waste control etc. later iterations and learning made them realise that these were prerequisite to the processes and now there are few ccps if any
  • steps where there are significant hazards that are CRITICAL
  • if not controlled they could make the final product unsafe and cause harm to the consumer
  • steps that are not critical (i.e. control points) are still important and require control
  • critical steps need extra control through the HACCP system
  • no further step in the process that will control the hazard
130
Q

HACCP review

A

every 6 months/12 months if no changes
* immediately if outbreak of food-borne illness or similar complaints
* if there have been any changes in the following:
– raw materials
– recipe or formulation
– processing methods
– equipment
– packaging
– method of distribution
– organisational structure
– legal requirements

131
Q

Mycotoxins and (maize) silage

A

maize silage is prone to fungal growth when not properly made or stored which can lead to injestions of mycotoxins
aspergullus fusarium- damp conditions
produces mycotoxin which stays in silage

132
Q

Animal feed – manufacturer responsibilities

A

Regulation (EC) 183/2005 in the EU and adopted into UK legislation
Laying down requirements for feed hygiene

Article 4:
‘Feed business operators shall ensure that all stages of production, processing and distribution under their control are carried out in accordance with Community legislation, national law compatible therewith, and good practice. They shall ensure, in particular, that they satisfy the relevant hygiene requirements laid down in this Regulation’

[‘Feed hygiene’ is defined as ‘the measures and conditions necessary to control hazards and to ensure fitness for animal consumption of a feed, taking into account its intended use.’]

133
Q

Animal feed – farmer responsibilities

A

Regulation (EC) 183/2005 in the EU and adopted into UK legislation
Laying down requirements for feed hygiene

Article 4:
‘When feeding food-producing animals, farmers shall take measures and adopt procedures to keep the risk of biological, chemical and physical contamination of feed, animals and animal products as low as reasonably achievable.’

134
Q

Chemical contamination of food

A

Animal-derived food products for sale to consumers at retail could contain chemical contaminants – a non-infectious hazard

Strict controls required throughout the food chain to prevent/detect

Contaminated feed may be the primary problem

Residues monitoring is required to provide consumer assurance and detect illegal or accidental contamination

Organochlorine compounds including PCBs
Organophosphorus compounds
Chemical elements (Cu, Cd, Pb, Hg)
Mycotoxins
Dyes (aquaculture – e.g. crystal violet, malachite green)
Others (e.g. fipronil)- vet medicine residues

Notable chemical animal feed contaminations
1. PBB (Polybrominated Biphenyl) in Michigan, USA in 1973

  1. PCB (Polychlorinated Biphenyls) in USA in 1979
  2. PCB/Dioxin in Belgium in 1999
  3. PCB/Dioxin in Ireland in 2008
135
Q

PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyl) and dioxins

A

Toxic chemicals which persist in the environment for years, and accumulate in animal fats – food chain contamination
PCBs - chlorinated hydrocarbons which were manufactured and used in coolants and insulators in transformers and capacitors until banned in most countries in 1980s
Dioxins – dangerous unwanted products of some industrial processes – persistent organic pollutants (POPs)
PCBs often considered alongside dioxins due to their similar health effects - carcinogenic

136
Q

Contamination of raw feed ingredients by pathogens

A

in an assesment of Contamination of raw feed ingredients by pathogens Assessing survival times for significant viral pathogens spiked into commonly imported feed constituents or products often imported into USA concluded that The right virus paired with the right ingredient, may be a mechanism for the transboundary transport of pathogens

Contamination of feed during manufacture -
Salmonella a major problem in animal feed

Aim to prevent entry into the factory – biosecurity - rodents, birds, people, equipment

Can reduce multiplication within the plant – factory hygiene processes

Can kill the pathogen within the manufactured feed – thermal inactivation (pasteurisation) or chemical additions

Contamination of feed during on-farm storage -
Particular risks from mice, rats, pigeons, sparrows in winter period Nov - Feb

Gain access to open feed stores, consume feed and contaminate with faeces e.g., Salmonella, Cryptosporidium, MAP

Estimated that individual cattle and sheep could encounter an average of 1626 (cattle) and 814 (sheep) wildlife faeces in supplementary feed concentrates in a winter

Contamination of feed on farm - Toxoplasma -
Cats are the definitive host for the zoonotic parasite Toxoplasma gondii and shed oocysts in their faeces

This study observed cat latrines across 3 dairy farms using cameras

Repeated use of latrines by cats, particularly those closest to their feeding sites

Potential for heavy contamination of soil, straw and animal feed – T. gondii hotspots

May 2003- Salmonella Cubana detected in faecal samples from routine sampling in a fattening pig herd – Swedish Salmonella control programme

Trace-back from the pig herd – S. Cubana discovered in pig feed production line of a Swedish manufacturing plant

77 pig farms had received the contaminated feed – 49 were positive for S. Cubana

137
Q

Enzootic pneumonia in pigs

A

Perhaps the most common pig respiratory disease worldwide

Bacterium - Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

Clinical signs mainly seen at 8-20 weeks, although infection contracted much younger

Normally low grade chronic soft cough (unless get secondary infection)

Very high morbidity, low mortality

Commonly seen in the abattoir. Lung scoring is possible – a measure of the scale of the problem, and to assess vaccine efficacy

Clinical signs-
Typically 3-10 weeks of age
Incubation period of 2 weeks
Barking cough
Gradual spread
Lasts +/-50 days
Uneven size in the batch
Depression of growth rate and feed conversion

Pathology-
Lesions restricted to the lungs
Classic pneumonia of cranial middle and cranial portion of caudal lobe of lung and accessory lobe
Enlarged bronchial lymph nodes
Plum colour in early lesions
Well demarcated
Paler as resolve
Secondary infection common
M. hyopneumoniae present on cilia of bronchi

Literature suggests association between damaging behaviours and poor health

Enzootic pneumonia may lead to more tail/ear biting – cytokines?

Tail-bitten pigs more likely to have spinal abscesses, lung lesions – abattoir condemnation

Need to improve environmental conditions on farm

138
Q

Ascaris suum in pigs - nematodes

A

Most common gastrointestinal worm parasite in pigs globally – up to 40cm long. Oocysts can survive 5 yrs on ground.

More common in growing pigs than mature

Heavier infections may cause clinical signs – coughing (lung migration) and poorer growth rates than expected

Economic impact - Lowered feed conversion and liver rejections at slaughter

Milk spot liver’ in pig – Ascaris suum
‘Milk spots’ – pale-coloured lesions caused by larvae migrating through the liver and causing haemorraghic foci which heal with connective tissue, eosinophils and dilated lymphatics - whitish spots

can be detected eith faecal tests and treated with anti-helminths

139
Q

Liver fluke in cattle (fascioliasis) and productivity

A

Daily weight gain reduced by 9%

Live weight reduced by 6%

Younger animals found more severe effects of fluke on weight gain

Effects on liveweight increased with time since infection

intermediate host- galba (Lymnaea) truncatula

140
Q

Relevant legislation in milk production

A

EC) Reg 852/2004 [H1] – hygiene of foodstuffs
Primary production (Annex I)
Maintain hygiene and minimise contamination

Covers animal health, hygiene, record keeping, storage etc.

Legal requirements for milk production – primary production – Reg (EC) 852/2004

(EC) Reg 853/2004 – specific rules for food of animal origin:
Annex III Section IX: raw milk and dairy products
Detailed legislation regarding all stages of milk production

Applies to milk harvesting, storage, transport and processing and packaging

Legal requirements for milk production – animal health and hygiene- (EC) 853/2004 [H2] Annex III, section IX

141
Q

(EC) 853/2004 [H2] Annex III, section IX
Legal requirements for milk production – animal health and hygiene

A

dictats that

Healthy animals- No diseases communicable to humans
No udder wounds likely to contaminate milk
No obvious udder inflammation
No enteritis or fever
No diseases resulting in genital discharge

Brucellosis and bTB negative-
From cows which are brucellosis-free and bTB-negative
Milk must be heat treated if not negative herd

No unauthorised veterinary medicines-
Uphold withdrawal periods for authorised veterinary medicines

Milking procedure, storage and transport and storage-
Cleanliness, avoidance of chemical residues, healthy staff
Temperature control and maintenance of cold chain

Minimum standards and milk assessment-
Plate counts and Somatic Cell Counts (SCC) specified

Processing-
Maximum temperatures and maintenance of cold chain
Guidelines for heat treatment – pasteurisation, UHT

packaging, labling and id must be tracable and raw milk must be labled

142
Q

Milk contamination risks

A

Microorganisms-
Bacteria
Yeasts
Algae

Foreign bodies
Faeces
Hair
Perished equipment (e.g. rubber, glass)

Chemical residues
Medicine residues

143
Q

Chemical contamination risks in milk

A

Mycotoxins (e.g. aflatoxins)

Dioxins

Heavy metals – lead, mercury

Pesticides

Miscellaneous – e.g. melamine in China

144
Q

Medicine residues in milk

A

Heavy financial penalties for farmers who send in contaminated milk to processor

Public health issue – AMR, toxicity

Processing issue - esp. cheese

Farmer training programmes available

Waste’ milk - residues

Milk containing antimicrobial residues – what to do with it?

Feeding it to calves is likely to be contributing to the AMR problem

Brunton et al. (2012) A survey of antimicrobial usage on dairy farms and waste milk feeding practices in England and Wales. Veterinary Record 171, 296.

2012 - 90% farms surveyed feeding it to calves

145
Q

Milk pasteurisation

A

“Pasteurisation of milk represents one of the singularly most successful contributions to the safety of foods of animal origin.” (Holsinger et al., 1997)

First commercial set-up was in Germany in 1895

Became widespread in UK from 1950s

72-82 C for 15-30 sec (HTST)

or

63 C for 30 mins

Destroys non-spore-forming pathogens and psychotrophic spoilage bacteria

UHT (ULTRA HIGH TEMPERATURE) PROCESSING- 138-145 C for 1-10 secs- Destroys all non-spore-forming bacteria and all spores except highly heat-resistant spores

146
Q

Legal requirements for milk production – primary production – Reg (EC) 852/2004
(EC) 852/2004 [H1] Annex I: Primary production (Farm)

A

Cleanliness- fACILITES, ANIMALS, EQUIPMET

staff- Good health – avoid contamination, adiquate training

ptable water- Water supply must be approved by local authority before use

Pest control- Avoid contamination

Hazardous waste management-Avoid contamination

Foodborne/zoonotic disease- Prevent introduction and spread (biosecurity)

Appropriate use of veterinary medicines- As per legislation e.g. withdrawal periods

Record keeping- The nature and origin of feed fed to the animals
Veterinary medicines (including WD periods)
Any disease occurrence that might affect food safety
Result from any diagnostic samples relevant to human health
any relevent reports or checks carried out

147
Q

temperatures and effect of pasturisation

A

72-82 C for 15-30 sec (HTST)

or

63 C for 30 mins

Destroys non-spore-forming pathogens and psychotrophic spoilage bacteria

148
Q

temperatures and effect of UHT (ULTRA HIGH TEMPERATURE) PROCESSING

A

138-145 C for 1-10 secs

Destroys all non-spore-forming bacteria and all spores except highly heat-resistant spores

149
Q

list some vet roles in goverment

A

APHA (378 vets)
DEFRA (157 vets)
Food Standards Agency (46 vets)
Ministry of Defence (30 vets)
Home Office (17 vets)
Veterinary Medicines Directorate (20 vets)
CEFAS (3 vets)
UK Health Security Agency (1 vet)
Department for International Development (1 vet)
Defence Science Technology Laboratory (2 vets)
Defra (6) , Scottish Gov’t (9) and Wales Gov’t (5) (Total:20)
and Official Veterinarians across GB

150
Q

list sme goverment institutions responble for animal welfare

A

Royal Army Veterinary Corps-
Responsible for health and welfare of military working dogs and horses, plus military mascots

APHA-
Manage and influence welfare cases (livestock only)

Private Vet-
Report of poor welfare on-farm

FSA/FSS-
OV notification of poor welfare at slaughter/in transport/on farm

Central Government-
Defra/W/S/NI Gov’t
Construction and revision of welfare policy

Home Office-
Inspection of research establishments

Cefas-
Welfare in Fish
Marine Science and Technology

151
Q

goverment bodies responsible for veterinary medicines

A

UKHSA/HPS/PHW-
Provide advice to the public and industry

Home Office-
use of certain medicines for research

Central Government
Defra/W/S/NI Gov’t-
Construction and revision of policy

Cefas-
Residues in Fish

VMD-
Residues
Licensing
Pharmacovigilance

FSA/FSS-
Sampling

Private Vet-
Horse passports
Food producing animals

APHA-
Investigate
Records checks
Risk assessments
Laboratory testing – surveillance

152
Q

goverment bodies responsible for notifaible disease

A

UKHSA/HPS/PHW-
Provide advice to the public and industry
Zoonoses

Cefas-
Fish Health Inspectorate
Investigate and stamp out disease

Central Government-
Defra/W/S/NI Gov’t
Policy development and implementation
Interface with Global Partners

FSA/FSS-
Surveillance at abattoirs

Private Vet-
May be reporting
OVs may be deployed

APHA-
Surveillance
Disease report cases
Research and development

Home Office-
Licence research

153
Q

Vets in State Veterinary Medicine

A

Notifiable disease surveillance and control e.g. bovine TB, Foot and Mouth Disease, avian influenza

Animal welfare policy, implementation and enforcement

Trade standard-setting and certification - animals and animal products

Export and import of animals and animal products – border controls

Zoonoses – companion, farm, zoo, wildlife – all under the ‘One Health’ umbrella

Food safety and security – meat hygiene, animal products, ‘farm to fork’, traceability

154
Q

TRACES

A

TRAde Control and Expert System – European Commission

Online platform for sanitary and phytosanitary certification

Importation of animals, animal products, food and feed of non-animal origin and plants into the European Union

Intra-EU trade and EU exports of animals and certain animal products

Traceability - monitoring movements of consignments; within the EU and non-EU countries

Information exchange - between trade partners and competent authorities to share information on consignments

Risk management - reacting rapidly to health threats by tracing the movements of consignments and enabling the management of rejected consignments

155
Q

Animal Disease Notification System (ADNS) - EU

A

A disease management tool providing immediate alerts to Member States
Can make rapid responses in relation to trade implications
Legal basis of notification is Regulation (EU) 2020/2002, Article 3:

‘Member States shall notify the Commission and the other Member States within 24 hours of confirmation of any primary outbreak in their territory of a listed disease …’

‘The notifications referred to … shall be submitted electronically via the ADIS.’

156
Q

what is The legal basis of the EU Pet Travel Scheme (dogs, cats , ferrets):

A

Regulation (EU) No 576/2013 on the non-commercial movement of pet animals and repealing Regulation (EC) No 998/2003

Article 6

Conditions applicable to the non-commercial movement of pet animals of the species listed in Part A of Annex I

Pet animals of the species listed in Part A of Annex I shall not be moved into a Member State from another Member State unless they fulfil the following conditions:

they are marked in accordance with Article 17(1); ( Implanted transponder (id chip) or readable tatoo)

they have received an anti-rabies vaccination that complies with the validity requirements set out in Annex III;

they comply with any preventive health measures for diseases or infections other than rabies adopted pursuant to Article 19(1); (Other disease prevention e.g. Echinococcus multilocularis – tapeworm)

they are accompanied by an identification document duly completed and issued in accordance with Article 22. (Pet passport)

157
Q

What are antimicrobials?

A

Any substance which kills or inhibits the growth of microbes

Includes antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, antiparasitics (in widest sense)

Resistance can already be intrinsically present, or can develop over time

158
Q

antimicrobials that Affect bacterial cell wall synthesis

A

Beta-lactam antibiotics, bacitracin, glycopeptides

159
Q

antimicrobials that Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

A

Aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, lincosamides, macrolides, tetracyclines

160
Q

antimicrobials that Affect bacterial cell membrane function

A

Polymixins

161
Q

antimicrobials that Affect bacterial nucleic acid function

A

Fluoroquinolones, nitroimidazoles, rifampin, nitrofurans

162
Q

antimicrobials that Affect intermediate metabolism

A

Sulphonamides, Trimethoprim

163
Q

What is antimicrobial resistance?

A

‘The ability of a microorganism to withstand the effect of a normally active concentration of an antimicrobial agent.’

164
Q

Intrinsic (natural) resistance

A

do not possess the target or are impenetrable – structural or biochemical characteristics e.g. most gram-negative bacteria are resistant to Penicillin G

165
Q

Acquired resistance:

A

Inactivation (most important in context of AMR)
- Alter the target site
- Prevent entry into cell
- Efflux – pump it out of the cell
- Altered metabolic processes

166
Q

antibiotic growth promoters (GP) in feed

A

Swann Report recommended that important antibiotics for humans should not be used as growth promoters in animal feed, but should continue as prophylactic and therapeutic agents under veterinary control – provoked resistance from farmers and pharmaceutical companies

Sweden became the first country to ban their use through the 1986 Feedingstuffs Act after public concern about AMR – farmers supported the change in legislation

In 1980, Sweden had sales of 8.4 tonnes of active antibiotic substances sold as feed additives; in 1988 this dropped to zero

Denmark was also a pioneer country acting on this issue; Danish farmers voluntarily stopped using avoparcin for GP in 1995 (avoparcin had been 20% of the total volume of antibiotics used in livestock, mostly in pigs)

The EU banned the use of all antibiotics as feed additives from 2006

167
Q

CIAs

A

– Critically Important Antimicrobials for human health – decisions based on two criteria:

Criterion 1) Sole therapy or one of few alternatives to treat serious human disease
Criterion 2) Antibacterial used to treat diseases caused by organisms that may be transmitted via non-human sources or diseases causes by organisms that may acquire resistance genes from non-human sources

Critically important antimicrobials are those which meet criteria 1 AND 2.
Highly important antimicrobials are those which meet criteria 1 OR 2.
Important antimicrobials are those which meet neither criteria 1 nor 2

168
Q

O’Neill Review 2016

A

July 2014 – Prime Minister David Cameron commissioned a review on AMR

Economist Jim O’Neill (Lord O’Neill) was asked to lead the review – reported in Dec 2015

Jointly supported by the UK Government and Wellcome Trust

A global public awareness campaign
Improve sanitation and prevent the spread of infection
Reduce unnecessary use of antimicrobials in agriculture and the environment
Improve global surveillance of drug resistance and antimicrobial consumption in humans and animals
Promote new, rapid diagnostics to reduce unnecessary use of antimicrobials
Promote development and use of vaccines and alternatives
Improve the number, pay and recognition of people working in infectious disease
A global innovation fund for early stage and non-commercial R&D
Better incentives to promote investments for new drugs and improving existing ones

Lot of pressure was placed on the livestock sectors to demonstrate clear plans to reduce antibiotic use
On a tonnage basis, livestock antibiotic consumption looked high
2015 – approx. 56% of total antibiotic use in the UK was in humans and 44% in animals (with 7% of that animal use in companion animals)
Not all livestock sectors were in the same position to put in place hard targets due to the lack of nationalised recording systems
Livestock industry group RUMA set up their ‘Targets Taskforce’ in 2016 to set measurable targets for the UK livestock sector

169
Q

2014 RUMA action plan

A

Responsible Use of Medicines in Agriculture Alliance

  1. Improve infection prevention and control practices
  2. Optimise prescribing practice
  3. Improve professional education, training and public engagement
  4. Develop new drugs, treatments and diagnostics
  5. Better access to, and use of, surveillance data
  6. Better identification and prioritisation of AMR research needs
  7. Strengthen international collaboration
170
Q

The Veterinary Medicines Regulations 2013

A

Definition of “veterinary medicinal product”, interpretation and scope

2.—(1) In these Regulations “veterinary medicinal product” means—

(a) any substance or combination of substances presented as having properties for treating or preventing disease in animals; or

(b) any substance or combination of substances that may be used in, or administered to, animals with a view either to restoring, correcting or modifying physiological functions by exerting a pharmacological, immunological or metabolic action, or to making a medical diagnosis.
Food-producing animals: records of acquisition and administration

19.—(1) When a veterinary medicinal product is bought or otherwise acquired for a food-producing animal the keeper must, at the time, record—

(a)the name of the product and the batch number;

(b)the date of acquisition;

(c)the quantity acquired; and

(d)the name and address of the supplier.

(2) At the time of administration (unless the administration is by a veterinary surgeon in which case the record must be in accordance with regulation 18) the keeper must record—

(a)the name of the product;

(b)the date of administration;

(c)the quantity administered;

(d)the withdrawal period; and

(e)the identification of the animals treated.

(3) A keeper who disposes of any or all of the veterinary medicinal product other than by treating an animal must record—

(a)the date of disposal;

(b)the quantity of product involved; and

(c)how and where it was disposed of.

171
Q

issues with electrical stunning in poultry

A

use of a water bath is most common method
reduces carcass quiality- patechial haemorage, flapping may cause fractures and haemorage
shackling can cause handling issues due to hig speed and may be painful
dim lights and uk lights and brest plates attempt to sooth poultry

if wing touches water before head it can cause pain

differemt sized birds may cause inadiquate stunning

172
Q

issues with controlled atmosphere stunning in poultry

A

co2-
not instantanious
expensive
irritant to resp system
recent shortage

innert gases-
anasthetic properties

173
Q

The chicken production pyramid

A

Elite breeding stock

 Great grandparents (GGPs)

Grandparents (GPs)

Parents

BROILERS – The meat chicken

174
Q

what bacteria is a massive cause of chick death in the first week of life

A

e.coli

175
Q

scald tank

A

Scald water temp – between 50C and 63C

higher temp for turkeys
temp and time important- overscalding cooks meat
loosenes feather for defethering

Lower end for chickens and higher end for turkeys

Scalding actually decreases bacterial contamination on the bird

176
Q

Campylobacter contamination after scalding and defeathering

A

campylobacter no.1 cause of food poisoning

Mean numbers reduced on neck skin after scalding, but immediately rose again after plucking

75% of consumer chickens contaminated

177
Q

First inspection point in poultry

A

after defethering

birds removed from the line
De-feathering gone wrong?
Unbled bird?

178
Q

problems with uneven bird size in poultry

A

Waterbath stunning – small birds may not be stunned

Evisceration – machinery set up for the majority larger birds in the batch – gut spill or not eviscerated at all

179
Q

Circulations of antimicrobial resistance genes

A

anitimicrobial use->

Humans: Environment, Human sewage
Food animals
Animal-derived food
Animal waste
Companion animals

180
Q

Michigan PBB incident - 1973

A

Polybrominated Biphenyl – flame retardant chemical

May 1973 – a chemical factory accidentally mixed up PBB (‘FireMaster’) and magnesium oxide (MgO), intended as a feed additive for livestock

The toxic PBB was sold to a livestock feed manufacturer instead of MgO

By end of 1975 – 29,000 cattle, 6000 pigs, 1.5M chickens had been euthanised in Michigan to try to control the subsequent toxicity and health issues (Reich, 1983)

Toxicity first detected in a 400-cow dairy herd in Sept 1973 (4 months after the mix-up)

Farmer was noting significant and unusual health and productivity problems in the herd: decreased appetite and milk yield, increased urination, reproductive issues, abscess formation, hair loss, abnormal hoof growth and gait

Feed suspected as the root cause

Protracted struggle between farmers, vets, feed company, state authorities to figure out what was going on, and the scale of the problem

End result – millions of consumers affected through contaminated food consumption over a year – meat and other livestock-derived food products

Cohort study initiated in 1976 to track health impacts through PBB exposure

Direct exposure on affected farms and through ingestion of contaminated food products

Wolff et al. (1982) reported cross-sectional study on human adipose tissue samples in Michigan – 97% with detectable PBB

Hoque et al. (1998) found a dose-response relationship between serum PBB levels and digestive system cancers and lymphoma in affected humans

181
Q

PCB chicken feed contamination incident – USA 1979

A

July 1979 – PCB detected in routine residue testing of fat sample from a chicken slaughtered in Utah (Drotman et al., 1983)
Chicken traced back to a layer farm in Idaho
The farm had been feeding chicken rations containing processed pig animal by-products
Subsequently found that approx. 760 litres of PCB-containing transformer oil had leaked into an ABP collections tank in a pig slaughter plant in Montana
The pig ABP had then been rendered and processed into meat and bone meal (MBM) for animal feed

Layer farm in Idaho bought this PCB-contaminated chicken feed in June 1979

10 weeks later the source of contamination was discovered – complex investigation

PCB had been widely distributed across the animal feed chain from this single source contamination at the pig slaughter plant

Approx. 1400 companies in the USA reckoned to have sourced this contaminated MBM

Cost of over $3.5M in recall of products

182
Q

PCB/dioxin feed contamination incident – Belgium 1999

A

Transformer oil containing 40-50 kgs PCBs and 1g dioxin mixed with used mineral oil and fat from waste recycling

Then combined with 60-80 tonnes of fat collected from slaughterhouses

Sold to 10 different animal feed manufacturers for incorporation in to animal feed

This produced about 500 tonnes of animal feed - distributed to many Belgian, Dutch, French and German farms

Belgium worst affected – 445 poultry farms, 393 cattle farms, 746 pig farms (Larebeke et al., 2001)

Impacts first noticed on poultry farms and hatcheries – decreased egg production and hatchability, epidemic of chicken oedema disease (Covaci et al., 2002)

6 weeks later – toxicology analysis of feed samples, chickens, eggs

2 million chickens were euthanised – poultry were most affected

Political impact due to inadequate communication management around this incident by the government – poorly handled (Casey et al., 2010)

Led to creation of a new Belgian food safety authority

183
Q

PCB/dioxin contamination of pork – Ireland 2008

A

PCB/dioxin detected through routine testing of pig fat samples in Nov 2008

National Residue Monitoring programme

Traced back to farm of origin – contaminated pig feed

Waste bread/biscuits being heated by hot gases to reduce moisture content – waste oil being burned and releasing PCB/dioxin which contaminated the bread/biscuits

Result – multiple pig and cattle farms were feeding this bread/biscuit ration

170,000 pigs and 5,700 cattle euthanised on affected farms

Global recall of Irish pork announced 6 Dec. 2008 – 30,000 tonnes recalled and destroyed

120 M euro overall cost

Reputational damage, but handled quickly and transparently by Irish government with EFSA support

183
Q

PCB/dioxin contamination of pork – Ireland 2008

A

PCB/dioxin detected through routine testing of pig fat samples in Nov 2008

National Residue Monitoring programme

Traced back to farm of origin – contaminated pig feed

Waste bread/biscuits being heated by hot gases to reduce moisture content – waste oil being burned and releasing PCB/dioxin which contaminated the bread/biscuits

Result – multiple pig and cattle farms were feeding this bread/biscuit ration

170,000 pigs and 5,700 cattle euthanised on affected farms

Global recall of Irish pork announced 6 Dec. 2008 – 30,000 tonnes recalled and destroyed

120 M euro overall cost

Reputational damage, but handled quickly and transparently by Irish government with EFSA support

184
Q

Contamination of feed on farm - Toxoplasma

A

Cats are the definitive host for the zoonotic parasite Toxoplasma gondii and shed oocysts in their faeces

This study observed cat latrines across 3 dairy farms using cameras

Repeated use of latrines by cats, particularly those closest to their feeding sites

Potential for heavy contamination of soil, straw and animal feed – T. gondii hotspots

185
Q

key legislation for animal welfare

A

animla welfare act 2006
animal health and welfare act scotlant 2006
secondary legislation-
welfare of farmed animals 2007

186
Q

What does the AWA / AHW(S)A apply to?

A

Includes temporary care e.g. wild animals being rehabilitated
When you do something to the animal

An owner is ALWAYS responsible
Includes temporary responsibility, including YOU
Anyone responsible for a person under the age of 16 is responsible for their care of any animal

Meeting the animals “needs” (as are reasonable in all the circumstances) and according to good practice
suitable environment
suitable diet
to exhibit normal behaviour patterns
to be housed with, or apart from, other animals
to be protected from pain, suffering, injury and disease

187
Q

Key animal welfare legislation applicable to shows

A

Animal Welfare Act / AHW(S)A (2006)

The Animal Welfare (Licensing of Activities Involving Animals) (England) Regulations 2018
Performing Animals Act (1925)

The Welfare of Animals (Transport) (E, W, S) Order 2006
Council Regulation (EC) No 1/2005

188
Q

Transport to and from the show legislation

A

The Welfare of Animals (Transport) (England) Order 2006
“offence to transport any animal in a way which causes, or is likely to cause, injury or unnecessary suffering to that animal.”
“offence to transport any animal except in such receptacles or means of transport, under conditions (in particular with regard to space, ventilation, temperature and security) and with such supply of liquid and oxygen, as are appropriate for the species concerned.”

189
Q

collection centres and control posts

A

EC 1/2005- “assembly centres’ means places such as holdings, collection centres and markets, at which domestic Equidae or domestic animals of bovine, ovine, caprine or porcine species originating from different holdings are grouped together to form consignments”

Council Regulation (EC) No 1255/97(transferred) applies to control posts

Apply principles of duty of care basic needs and relevant WOFAR (welfare of farmed animals regulations) schedules

190
Q

Welfare in Transport legislation - enforcement

A

Markets & roads
Principally enforced by local authorities
Police and APHA may support
Unloading at slaughterhouse – FSA/LA
Inside the slaughterhouse lairage – FSA +/- LA
APHA however leads on
Supervised loadings
Ports, airports, control posts
Expert reports for slaughterhouses & undercover footage
Welfare in Transport Team WIT@apha.gov.uk
Journey logs, transporter revocations, letters

191
Q

General principles of transport rules

A

5 things have to be fit for purpose
The Means of Transport – the trailer / vehicle

The competence of the Transporter

The competence of Drover / Farmer doing the loading / unloading

The competence of the owner/employee making decisions on whether to transport an animal- Prior knowledge of conditions the transporter may be unaware of

The animal being transported on the intended journey

If any of these things are not fit for purpose this can lead to unnecessary injury and suffering during the transport process including loading and unloading

192
Q

Welfare on farm

A

Remember you may not be dealing with just welfare issues
ABP, including dodgy collection bins and dodgy incinerators
Vet Medicine Regulations
Animal ID transgressions
Social / mental health issues that may need referring / reporting

193
Q

who enforces animal welfare

A

On Farm & Transport-
Animal & Plant Health Agency (APHA)
Local authorities take most enforcement for farmed animals, usually working with APHA, sometimes SSPCA
Private and retailer assurance schemes (e.g. Red Tractor) carry out their own inspections

At Slaughter-
Food Standards Agency (FSA) and Food Standards Scotland (FSS)

Companion Animals-
RSPCA, World Horse Welfare, SSPCA
Local authorities for any licensed animal activities

194
Q

considerations when measuring biological function for welfare

A

Resource measure
is feed present?
Tells you it is available

BUT
Is it available at a frequency appropriate to physiological needs?
Is it appropriate to their age and species?
Outcome measure - Are they eating it? 
Outcome – Body Condition Score
This is a good outcome measure for whether adult cattle are getting sufficient and appropriate food
BUT
must consider the breed type in developing BCS measure and in considering risks to welfare

194
Q

considerations when measuring biological function for welfare

A

Resource measure
is feed present?
Tells you it is available

BUT
Is it available at a frequency appropriate to physiological needs?
Is it appropriate to their age and species?
Outcome measure - Are they eating it? 
Outcome – Body Condition Score
This is a good outcome measure for whether adult cattle are getting sufficient and appropriate food
BUT
must consider the breed type in developing BCS measure and in considering risks to welfare

195
Q

Birch et al (2021) describe 8 criteria for determining sentience

A

possession of nociceptors
possession of integrative brain regions
connections between nociceptors and integrative brain regions
responses affected by potential local anaesthetics or analgesics
motivational trade-offs that show a balancing of threat against opportunity for reward
flexible self-protective behaviours in response to injury and threat
associative learning that goes beyond habituation and sensitisation
behaviour that shows the animal values local anaesthetics or analgesics when injured.

If 2 of the criteria are met then there is some evidence of sentience
3 of the 8 criteria are met then there is substantial evidence of sentience
If 5 or more of the criteria are met then there is strong evidence of sentience
If 7 or more of the 8 criteria are met then there is very strong evidence of sentience

196
Q

organisations involved in antimicrobial stewardship

A

veterinary medicines directorate (VMD)

british small animal veterinary assosiation (BSAVA)

Europen medicines agency (EMA)
worlds organisation for animal health (woah)

food and agreculture organisation (foa)

197
Q

describe Pig farming and antibiotics in the UK

A

Sulphonamides used from late 1930s for respiratory diseases
Penicillin available to vets from late 1940s
In the 1950s antibiotics started to be allowed as growth promoters after American scientists discovered the effects of low-dose aureomycin on pig growth
From 1953 the Government allowed aureomycin to be added to pig and poultry feeds
By 1958 nearly half of all British pigs had access to antibiotics as growth promoters
No license was required for in-feed use, but vets could only administer them as treatment

198
Q

Antibiotic resistance in Salmonella typhimurium

A

‘A rise in Salmonella typhimurium infection was observed in calves in Britain during 1964-6, following the adoption of the intensive farming method.’

‘At least one dealer was distributing furazolidone with his calves, with instructions to his clients to administer it to the animals for a few weeks … we first found furazolidone resistance in cultures of type 29 isolated in November 1964, and within a short time it was prevalent in the type. Calves distributed by this dealer played a major role in carrying type 29 infection to many parts of the country.’

199
Q

BVA 7-Point Plan on Responsible Use

A

2017

  1. Work with clients to avoid need for antimicrobials
  2. Avoid inappropriate use
  3. Choose the right drug for the right bug
  4. Monitor antimicrobial sensitivity
  5. Minimise use
  6. Record and justify deviations from protocols
  7. Report suspected treatment failure to the VMD (Vet. Medicines Directorate)
200
Q

New antibiotic development

A

After initial flurries of success in the decades after the launch of penicillin, the production line of new products started slowing
Antibiotic development became less lucrative – high R&D costs
New product patents would expire, allowing competitors to replicate and sell at less cost
Global pharmaceutical companies started focusing on medicines with longer treatment courses = more attractive returns on investment
Pharmacovigilance became more regulated - stricter requirements on the industry, increasing costs

201
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

Bovine mastitis involvement - important

Humans – skin infections, osteomyelitis,
septicaemia – can be fatal. Also foodborne illness due to toxins.

One of the first bacteria in which development of resistance was noticed

MRSA – Methicillin-resistant Staph. aureus – nasal and groin carriage

Often >90% S. aureus isolates penicillin-resistant

202
Q

survalance division

A

part of the vet. medicines directorate (vmd)

handles-
amr policy
stewardship and usage
survalence and evidence
r and d program
residues

203
Q

State Veterinary control in the UK

A

Although DEFRA is the lead state veterinary organisation at a UK level, and APHA is essentially its operational arm, animal health legislation is devolved to the Parliaments/Assembly in Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland
The Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (DAERA) runs the Veterinary Service in N. Ireland
Since Brexit, the NI Protocol sets out the legal framework covering NI and its relationship to the European Union (EU) – NI continues to align with EU Regulations on goods and customs
This regulatory alignment means that NI must apply Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures as if it was still within the EU i.e. animal/animal product and plant checks at ports for import trade from GB, but free trade with Rep. of Ireland (intra-EU trade)

204
Q

Animal & Plant Health Agency

A

Launched in 2014 – merger of Animal Health and Veterinary Laboratories Agency (AHVLA) with parts of the Food and Environment Research Agency (FERA)
Covers animal, plant and bee health
Headquarters in Weybridge, Surrey. Approx. 2,200 staff in total.
Andrew Soldan MRCVS is the APHA Veterinary Director

205
Q

Non-legislative approaches to protecting and promoting animal welfare

A

Non-legislative approaches – OIE (World Organisation for Animal Health), Farm Quality Assurance schemes, welfare-friendly labelling, retailer schemes, codes of best practice, public campaigns/pressure groups

206
Q

legislative approaches to protecting and promoting animal welfare

A

Creation, implementation and enforcement of UK legislation – role for the state veterinarian

207
Q

BSE (Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy)

A

novel clinical synfrome dectected in q987

37,280 cases in UK in peak year of 1992

Behavioural abnormalities and over-reactivity to various external stimuli, often in combination with abnormalities of gait, were highly suggestive of BSE.’

isteriosis most common differential

208
Q

Fipronil contamination of eggs

A

Netherlands 2017

UK Food Standards Agency (FSA) estimated 700,000 eggs imported into the UK were contaminated

209
Q

Highly pathogenic avian influenza in GB

A

Outbreaks occurring every day in Great Britain. As of the start of this week:

118 confirmed cases of highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) H5N1 in England since 1 October 2022

252 cases of (HPAI) H5N1 in England since the H5N1 outbreak started in October 2021

The 3km and 10km zones (an example):
Highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) H5N1 was confirmed in poultry and other captive birds on 21 November 2022 at a premises near Barnard Castle, County Durham, Durham (AIV 2022/213). A 3km protection zone and 10km surveillance zone are in place around the premises. All birds on the premises will be humanely culled.

210
Q

Highly pathogenic avian influenza – trade effects

A

Outbreaks occurring every day in Great Britain

Culls of birds on infected holdings

Culls of birds deemed at risk from infected flocks

Loss of trade in hatching eggs, table eggs, poultry meat, day old chicks, (captive birds)

National (UK-wide), regional (Regions of UK, counties), zonal restrictions (3 and 10km)

Massive financial impacts - lost trade, lost markets, lost genetics, lost production

poultry redifined to protect trade-
Means all birds reared or kept in captivity for the production of any commercial animal products or for breeding for this purpose, fighting cocks used for any purpose, and all birds used for restocking supplies of game or for breeding for this purpose, until they are released from captivity.
Birds that are kept in a single household, the products of which are used within the same household exclusively, are not considered poultry, provided that they have no direct or indirect contact with poultry or poultry facilities.
Birds that are kept in captivity for other reasons, including those that are kept for shows, racing, exhibitions, zoological collections and competitions, and for breeding or selling for these purposes, as well as pet birds, are not considered poultry, provided that they have no direct or indirect contact with poultry or poultry facilities.

211
Q

African Swine Fever – trade effects e.g. China

A

ASF in China was expected to result in a 27% reduction in Chinese pork production

This opened trading opportunities for other nations to supply into that production deficit

212
Q

BSE – trade effects

A

Estimated impact on Canadian economy = $1 billion due to loss of export markets

213
Q

threat of rabies in uk

A

threat from imported dogs

‘The UK’s lack of experience with rabies is a blessing and a curse. As Chris Laurence, former chair of the Canine and Feline Sector Group, points out: ‘We’ve basically never had rabies in this country, so you wonder how quickly it would be picked up. How many vets in the UK have seen a case of rabies and would recognise it?’

214
Q

trade of puppies

A

RSPCA campaign on banning puppy imports
‘In October 2020 alone, 5,287 Intra Trade Animal Health Certificates (ITAHC) were issued - the highest ever for commercial dog and puppy imports.’

In a RSPCA-commissioned survey in Nov 2020, 38% of respondents said they would be willing to buy a smuggled puppy

215
Q

IPAFFS

A

IPAFFS ‘Import of Products, Animals, Food and Feed System’ replaces the EU’s TRACES system in GB.

216
Q

Regulation (EU) No 576/2013

A

The legal basis of the EU Pet Travel Scheme (dogs, cats , ferrets):

Article 6

Conditions applicable to the non-commercial movement of pet animals of the species listed in Part A of Annex I

Pet animals of the species listed in Part A of Annex I shall not be moved into a Member State from another Member State unless they fulfil the following conditions:

they are marked in accordance with Article 17(1);

they have received an anti-rabies vaccination that complies with the validity requirements set out in Annex III;

they comply with any preventive health measures for diseases or infections other than rabies adopted pursuant to Article 19(1);

they are accompanied by an identification document duly completed and issued in accordance with Article 22.

217
Q

The RCVS 10 Principles of Certification – No. 1

A
  1. A veterinarian should certify only those matters which:

a) are within his or her own knowledge;

b) can be ascertained by him or her personally;

c) are the subject of supporting evidence from an authorised veterinarian who has personal knowledge of the matters in question; or

d) are the subject of checks carried out by an Officially Authorised Person (OAP) (see Annex 21.A).

218
Q

The RCVS 10 Principles of Certification: Nos. 2

A
  1. Veterinarians should not issue a certificate that might raise questions of a possible conflict of interest.
219
Q

The RCVS 10 Principles of Certification: Nos. 3

A
  1. A veterinarian should only sign certificates that are written in a language they understand.
220
Q

The RCVS 10 Principles of Certification: Nos. 4

A

. A veterinarian should not certify that there has been compliance with the law of another country or jurisdiction unless the provisions of that law are set out clearly on the certificate or have been provided to them by the Competent Authority in writing.

221
Q

The RCVS 10 Principles of Certification: Nos. 5

A

A veterinarian should only sign original certificates. Where there is a legal or official requirement for a certified copy or duplicate (marked as such) these can be provided.

222
Q

The RCVS 10 Principles of Certification: No. 6

A
  1. When signing a certificate, a veterinarian should ensure that:

a) the certificate contains no deletions or alterations, other than those which are indicated on the certificate to be permissible, and subject to such changes being initialled and stamped by the certifying veterinarian;

b) no section of the certificate is left incomplete;

c) the certificate includes not only their signature but also, in clear lettering, their name, qualifications and address and (where appropriate) their official or practice stamps;

d) the certificate includes the date on which the certificate was signed and issued and (where appropriate) the time for which the certificate will remain valid.

223
Q

The RCVS 10 Principles of Certification: Nos. 7

A
  1. Certificates should be written in simple terms which are easy to understand.
224
Q

The RCVS 10 Principles of Certification: Nos. 8

A
  1. Certificates should be:

a) clear and concise;

b) integrated, whole and indivisible;

c) given a unique identifier; and

d) copied and retained with all relevant records.

225
Q

The RCVS 10 Principles of Certification: Nos. 9

A
  1. Certificates should not use words or phrases which are capable of more than one interpretation.
226
Q

The RCVS 10 Principles of Certification: Nos. 10

A
  1. Certificates should clearly identify the subject being certified.
227
Q

risk analysis for imports

A

An import risk analysis starts with a consideration of the commodity being imported
Anticipated volume of trade annually? Difficult to estimate if new trade
Next step – Hazard identification – the potential pathogens, THEN:

Release assessment
Exposure assessment
Consequence assessment
Risk estimation

228
Q

risk managment for imports

A

Risk management comes after risk assesmet – the process of deciding upon, and implementing, measures to achieve the appropriate level of national protection, while still facilitating trade
Fulfil obligations under international trade agreements, while minimising likelihood of disease incursions and their consequences

Risk evaluation
Option evaluation
Implementation
Monitoring and review

229
Q

Traceability – animal health meets food safety

A

Traceability – the ability to document movements, processes, controls to cover the animal and animal product’s life history

The need for traceability therefore allows us to make demands on all elements of the food chain:

Animal feed manufacturers
Primary producers
Transporters (trade certification, movement docs)
Food business operators – abattoirs, processors
Retailers – the final link to the consumer

The risks need to be managed effectively throughout the food supply chain

230
Q

Red Meat Industry Structure

A

farm- Primary production – sheep, cattle, pig
Marketing from the farm – direct to slaughter or through livestock market

Abattoir
Cutting plant-
Primary processing – from live animal to carcass
Secondary processing – from carcass to meat portions – cutting plants

distribution- Local/national trade – butchers, retailers, catering, manufacturing
Export trade

End point – consumption – pork, beef, lamb/mutton

231
Q

Ante Mortem Inspection: EU Regulation 2019/627

A

Article 11.3 states that:

‘Ante-mortem inspections shall determine whether, as regards the particular animal inspected, there is any sign:

(a) that the health and welfare of the animal has been compromised;

(b) of any condition, abnormalities or disease that make the fresh meat unfit for human consumption or that might adversely affect animal health, paying particular attention to the detection of zoonotic diseases and animal diseases for which animal health rules are laid down in Regulation (EU) 2016/429- The ‘Animal Health Law’ – essentially notifiable diseases

(c) of the use of prohibited or unauthorised substances, misuse of veterinary medicinal products or the presence of chemical residues or contaminants.’

232
Q

Codex Chapter 6.1:

A

PRINCIPLES OF MEAT HYGIENE APPLYING TO ANIMALS PRESENTED FOR SLAUGHTER

i. Animals presented for slaughter should be sufficiently clean so that they do not compromise hygienic slaughter and dressing.
ii. The conditions of holding of animals presented for slaughter should minimise cross-contamination with foodborne pathogens and facilitate efficient slaughter and dressing.
iii. Slaughter animals should be subjected to ante-mortem inspection, with the competent authority determining the procedures and tests to be used, how inspection is to be implemented, and the necessary training, knowledge, skills and ability of personnel involved.
iv. Ante-mortem inspection should be science- and risk-based as appropriate to the circumstances and should take into account all relevant information from the level of primary production.
v. Relevant information from primary production where available and results of ante-mortem inspection should be utilised in process control.
vi. Relevant information from ante-mortem inspection should be analysed and returned to the primary producer as appropriate.’

Extract from Codex Alimentarius – Code of Hygienic Practice for Meat

233
Q

Ante Mortem: EU Reg 2019/627

A

Clean livestock
Article 11.4 states that:

‘Ante-mortem inspection shall include verification of food business operators’ compliance with their obligation to ensure that animals have a clean hide, skin or fleece, so as to avoid any unacceptable risk of contamination of the fresh meat during slaughter.’

The need for ‘clean’ animals to be presented for slaughter is laid down here in European law

234
Q

The potential impact of transport conditions

A

Less-than-ideal transport conditions can result in clean animals becoming contaminated en route to the abattoir
Make sure the transport vehicle is clean, dry and disinfected between loads
Avoid loading up cattle in wet conditions – try to have them dry and clean before the journey
Coming off grass compared to housing can affect faecal consistency
Transport vehicles must have protection from the weather – roof and ventilation to avoid cattle sweating
Multi-deck vehicles – should be designed so that faeces and urine do not flow down onto animals on the lower decks

woadt!

235
Q

Cattle slaughter line

A

Purchase and transport
Unloading and lairage
Ante-mortem inspection

Stunning
Shackling
Opening hide of neck
Sticking and bleeding

Hoof removal
Head removal
Opening of hide on body and hide removal

Brisket sawing
Eviscerating
Carcass splitting
Removal of spinal cord- specified risk material
Trimming
Carcass weighing, grading and health marking

Washing
Chilling

236
Q

Sheep slaughter line

A

Purchase and transport
Unloading and lairage
Ante-mortem inspection

Stunning
Shackling
Opening fleece of neck
Sticking and bleeding

opening of fleece om body and removal
Head removal
feet removal

Brisket sawing
Eviscerating
Carcass splitting
Removal of spinal cord- specified risk material
Trimming
Carcass weighing, grading and health marking

Washing
Chilling

237
Q

Pig slaughter line

A

Purchase and transport
Unloading and lairage
Ante-mortem inspection

Stunning
Shackling
Opening fleece of neck
Sticking and bleeding

scalding
deharing
singing
poloshng
washing

Eviscerating
Carcass splitting
washing

brisket sawing
carcass weighing , grading and health marking
chilling

238
Q

describe the chemical composition of a carcas after slughter

A

Muscle tissue at death contains about 1% glycogen

pH = around 7.2

Meat would be slightly tough and tasteless

Anaerobic glycolysis starts – muscle tissue changes to become meat

Carcass temperature rises by 1.5 C

Muscles start to stiffen

must be aged to be tender

239
Q

calculationg risk and significance for haccp

A

Codex Alimentarius recommends the use of risk assessment
Many different methods
High medium low
Likelihood x severity = risk (3x3 & 5x5 popular)
RAG
Simply stated
Recommend you show your justification

240
Q

Critical limit

A

a criterion that can be monitored that separates acceptability from unacceptability
HACCP

241
Q

Monitoring
in HACCP

A

conducting a planned sequence of observations or measurements of control parameters to assess whether a critical control point (CCP) is under control

should specify:
– who is responsible for undertaking the check
– when it should be carried out
– what equipment, if any, is required
– how it should be carried out

242
Q

Corrective action- HACCP

A

any actions to be taken when the results of monitoring at a critical control point (CCP) indicate a loss of control
* two main aims:
– to make the product safe
– to prevent a recurrence of the problem

243
Q

Verification HACCP

A

verification involves confirming that the HACCP system is working correctly by applying additional methods, procedures, tests or other evaluations that are in addition to the monitoring procedures already in place

Includes management activities such as auditing and review of historical issues, complaints etc.

244
Q

Internal audit

A

a review of the HACCP system and plan
* a review of documentation and records
* a review of any deviations:
– actions taken if products rejected or recalled
– records of food-borne illness
– customer complaints
* confirmation that CCPs are under control

245
Q

Why HACCP systems fail

A

lack of management commitment
* insufficient resources are provided
* lack of awareness and/or training
* hygiene standards are poor
* system developed is too complicated
* system has not been developed in-house
* agreed procedures are not being carried out
* not all hazards have been identified

246
Q

list some notifiable diseases

A

African horse sickness
African swine fever
Anthrax
Aujeszky’s disease
Avian influenza (bird flu)
Batrachochytrium salamandrivorans
Bluetongue
BSE
Bovine TB
Brucellosis
Chronic wasting disease
Classical swine fever
Contagious agalactia
Contagious bovine pleuro-pneumonia
Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia
Contagious epididymitis
Contagious equine metritis
Dourine
Echinococcus multilocularis
Enzootic bovine leukosis
Epizootic haemorrhagic disease
Epizootic lymphangitis
Equine infectious anaemia (swamp fever)
Equine viral arteritis
Equine viral encephalomyelitis
Foot and mouth disease
Glanders and farcy
Goat plague
Lumpy skin disease
Newcastle disease
Paramyxovirus infection
Porcine epidemic diarrhoea
Rabies
Rabies in bats
Rift Valley fever
Rinderpest
Scrapie
Sheep and goat pox
Sheep scab
Surra
Swine vesicular disease
Teschen disease
Vesicular stomatitis
Warble fly
West Nile fever:

247
Q

Why are some disease notifiable:

A

International trade
Public health
Animal welfare

248
Q

HOW DO apha TRY TO REDUCE THE RISK OF NOTIFIABLE DISSEASE

A

Stop imports from infected areas or countries
Pre-export tests and isolation
Post import checks
Trading partners
Horizon scanning
Active and passive surveillance programmes

249
Q

what happens when notifiable disease is reported

A

Serve restrictions
+/-temporary control zones
APHA investigate
+/- take samples

CVO confirmation
Trace + spread

Action to control disease spread:
Cleanse and disinfect
Zones
Culling/compensation/sparing