Prep For Clinical Practice Flashcards

1
Q

-Absorbed dose

A

total amount of radiation absorbed by an object (International System of unit or SI unit: Gray (Gy)).

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2
Q

Equivalent dose

A

absorbed dose x radiation weighing factor, to account for how harmful a type of radiation is to biological tissues (SI unit: Sievert (Sv)).

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3
Q

Effective dose:

A

equivalent dose x tissue weighing factor, to account for the radiosensitivity of different organs and the increased risk of the patient developing stochastic (see below) effects (SI unit: Sievert (Sv)).

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4
Q

Direct damage:

A

results in break of molecular bonds within cells (eg DNA).

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5
Q

Indirect damage

A

esults in interaction with water leading to creation of free radicals, which in turn can break molecular bonds within cells.

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6
Q

Deterministic effects

A

they occur at a specific dose threshold and represent tissue reactions; the severity of these effects is dose-dependent. Rapidly dividing cells are most sensitive and radiation sickness reflects body systems affected (eg dermatitis, burns, cataract, gastrointestinal disturbance or changes in blood). The latter are known as somatic effects.

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7
Q

Stochastic effects

A

represent effects that have no threshold and occur randomly. The severity of the effects is not dose-dependent, but the probability for the effects to occur is dose-dependent.

Carcinogenic effect: tumors may be induced decades after the radiation exposure
Genetic effects: mutations may occur in the chromosomes of germ cells in the ovaries or testes, with potential effects in the offspring.
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8
Q

ALARP

A

he main goal is to keep the radiation dose As Low As Reasonably Practicable (Achievable) at all times

Doses are kept lower than the threshold for deterministic effects.
As there is no threshold for stochastic effects, doses should always be kept as low as possible.
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9
Q

Too high kVp will lead to

A

increased scatter production by the patient, increased scatter in the radiography room and reduced image contrast

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10
Q

oo low kVp may lead to

A

increased exposure time, with a likelihood of motion artifacts and a need for repeat examination.

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11
Q

Use a grid for subjects greater than

A

10 cm thick.

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12
Q

Methods of protection against scatter radiation

A

time, distance, shielding

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13
Q

Dosimetry

A

Measurement of radiation exposure

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14
Q

Compton absorption

A

photon of electromagnetic energy interacts with a loosely bound electron in the outer shell of an atom.
The photon displaces the loosely bound electron which can ionize other atoms.
The photon is diverted and continues in a different direction with a lower energy ’Scattered radiation.

Increases with increasing energy.
As energy increases more of scattered radiation is directed in a forward direction, ie more likely to reach x-ray film.
Independent of atomic number of tissue.

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15
Q

Production of scatter

A

catter is produced when x-rays interact with matter.
Lower energy than primary beam.
Travel in any direction.
Very important inlarge animal radiography.
At high kV less of the primary beam is converted to scatter but more scattered radiation is moving forward towards the film.
Increases with increasing volume of tissue irradiated.

ncreases radiation exposure to personnel.
Increases radiation dose to patient.
Reduces film contrast (increases overall film density in a non-specific way).

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16
Q

how is scatter reduced?

A

collumation

Compress patient

Reduces volume of tissue irradiated.
Can be achieved using Bucky band - a webbing strap which can be tightened around the body (particularly abdomen).

Reduce kVReduce scatter affecting filmGrids

Placed between film and patient to absorb scatter.
Most scatter is travelling in an oblique direction and therefore is unable to pass through grid.
Results in increased exposure factors required.
Grid lines can appear on film.

Alternative filtration devices

Air gap between patient and film:
    Radiation travelling obliquely misses film.
    Important in large animal radiography where film is often some distance from object.
    Air gap increases magnification and reduces image sharpness.
Filter between patient and film: 

Lead backing to film cassettes

Reduce effects of scatter on film

Intensifying screens (particularly rare earth) intensify primary photons more than scatter.
Screens also increase gamma so that film contrast is enhanced and effect of scatter is reduced.
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17
Q

When compiling an exposure chart as many variables as possible should be kept constant: what variables are these

A

Film focal distance.
Object film distance.
Processing
Film type
Intensifying screen type Radiography
Use of grid use.
Line mains compensation.

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18
Q

Variable kV

A

This is used if:

Machine allows variation in kVp of 1-2.
Due to the variation in dog size and shape selecting an exposure based on dogs weight may be inaccurate.
Breed variability in conformation can be overcome by basing exposure on tissue thickness. Keep mAs constant and as high as possible and alter kV based on tissue thickness. A grid should be used if tissue depth is >10 cm and may be useful in smaller obese animals.
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19
Q

Grids

A

If using a grid the exposure will need to be increased.
Multiply grid factor by mAs to obtain new mAs.

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20
Q

X-rays

A

electromagnetic radiation.
Their usefulness stems from a number of properties:

Travel in straight lines.
Can pass through a vacuum.
Travel at constant speed.
Variably absorbed by body tissue.
Affect photographic film to produce a latent image ause certain substances to fluoresce (emit visible light)

X-rays are produced when electrons are rapidly deccelerated

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21
Q

Kilovoltage (kV) control

A

Alters the potential difference applied across the tube head during exposure.
Alters the speed and energy with which electrons hit the target and hence the pentrating power of the subsequent x-ray beam.
In some machines it is linked to mA so that if high mA is selected, kV must be reduced.

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22
Q

Milliamperage (mA) control

A

Controls the heating of the filament and hence the number of electrons released by the cathode.
This directly affects the quantity of x-rays produced.

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23
Q

Timer (x rays)

A

The time for which the exposure is applied affects the number of x-rays produced.
The quantity is usually measured as a combination of amperage and time, ie mAs.
The longer the exposure the more chance there is of a patient moving so it is preferable to use the highest mA permissible with a given kV and reduce the exposure time accordingly.
Older machines had clockwork timers but new machines have electronic timers which are quieter and more accurate.

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24
Q

Portable x ray machines

A

Stationary anode (heat lost by convection and conduction).
Self or half wave rectified.
Often fixed mA
Occasionally fixed kV.
Run from domestic supply (13 amp).
Cheaper than mobile/3-phase machines to buy and maintain.
Can be dismantled and used for domicillary examinations.

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25
Q

mobile x ray machines

A

Rotating anode (heat lost by radiation)
Usually full wave rectified - 2-pulse.
May be capacitor discharged.
High and variable mA facilitating shorter exposure times.
Higher output allows grid and grid use to be used more readily.
More expensive to buy and maintain than portable machines.
Limited to use within the practice unless van or trailer used!

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26
Q

3-phase x ray machines

A

Rotating anode.
Full wave rectified - 6 pulse.
High and variable mA and kV.
Very high exposures and short exposure times possible.
Expensive to buy and service.
Fixed installation ’ dedicated room needed.

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27
Q

Medium frequency (high frequency) x-ray machines

A

An invertor increases the frequency of the electrical supply so that with vastly increased number of pulses the ripple factor is negligible and the generator is equivalent to a constant potential unit.
Used in some mobile machines which may use a battery supply and some fixed machines which run off a 13 amp supply.

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28
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

what the body does to the drugp

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29
Q

Pharmacodynamics (PD)

A

What the drug does to the body

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30
Q

ADME

A

Absorption (administration), distribution, metabolism and elimination; ADME

Given the heterogonous structure of bodies, on top of its target a drug will inevitably interact with more than one element (side effects possible).

Understanding the ADME (absorption/distribution/metabolism/excretion) of a compound is central to any therapy.

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31
Q

A - Routes of Administration

A

Enteral routes:
Directly into the gastrointestinal tract
Sublingual
Swallowing
Rectal

Parenteral routes:
Topical admin.
Intradermal admin.
Subcutaneous admin.
Intramuscular admin.
Intravascular admin.
Inhalation

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32
Q

Intravascular administration

A

Mostly used when there is a need to control accurately the body concentration of drugs. Typically used when compounds have narrow margins of safety between therapeutic and toxic index (e.g. induction agents/anticancer drugs).
Drawback:
Drug injected cannot be recalled . A slow infusion administration is needed to avoid side effects.

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33
Q

Inhalation administration

A

Gas and aerosols:
Rapid systemic effect but dependent on:
1- the tidal volume
2- the size of the aerosol particle (not true for gas). The smaller the more likely to reach alveolar ducts and sacs. Otherwise get stacked in bronchi.

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34
Q

D - Distribution

A

Distribution around the body occurs after drug reaches circulation
It must then penetrate tissues to act

consider Movement of drugs across membranes- passive, active, ionic

Active transport / Carrier mediated transport

In general, compounds that rapidly cross membranes have:

a. Low degree of ionization
b. High lipid/water partition in the non ionized form
c. Relatively low MW < 1000
d. A biological affinity with transporters/facilitated diffusion (e.g. cephalporins are absorbed by a transporter for dipeptides)
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35
Q

Effect of ionization on drugs crossing membranes

A

Must be neutral to cross the membrane (if too charged they would associate with many other molecules which would impair their ability to diffuse).

Many drugs are weak acids or weak bases

Recall that weak acids (HA) donate (H+) to form anions: HA↔H++A-
Recall that weak bases (B) accept a proton (H+) to form cations: BH+ ↔B+ H+
Recall Henderson-Hasselbalch equation:
pH=pKa+log[nonprotonated/protonated]
pH=pKa: protonated form equal to nonprotonated concentration
pHpKa: vice versa
(dont need to know this just understad concept)

An example!

Effects of ionization on the macrolide antibiotic erythromycin

Erythromycin pka = 8.8
Plasma pH = 7.4. Milk pH = 6.5

Given pH = pka + log non-ionized/ionized

In milk, 199.5 ionized to every non-ionized, in plasma 25 parts ionized to every nonionized = ION TRAPPING

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36
Q

Chemical Properties of Drugs- isomers

A

constitutional isomers
setrioisomers- diastereomers (cis/trans)- conformers, rotamers
enantomers

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37
Q

M - Drug metabolism

A

Lipophilic drugs must follow a very special treatment to become hydrophilic (polar), often inactive, and then be excreted.
The drug transformation may be a two phase reaction (but the phase I may be sufficient to inactive and excrete the drug)

In the liver the major drug metabolising enzymes act in the Smooth
Endoplasmic Reticulum of Liver Cells (hepatocytes)

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38
Q

aneamia can effect

A

drug metabolism

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39
Q

Metabolism and CYPs

A

The majority of CYPs are found in the liver, but certain CYPs are also present in the cell wall of the intestine.
The mammalian CYPs are bound to the endoplasmic reticulum, and are therefore membrane bound
CYP 3A4, CYP 2D6, and CYP 2C9 are especially involved in the metabolism of xenobiotics and drugs in humans (and probably veterinary species)

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40
Q

Metabolism & Glucuronidation

A

The major phase II drug metabolising family of enzymes are the Uridine Diphosphate Glucuronyl Transferases (UGTs)

Cats are deficient in UGTs
– Limited ability to perform glucuronidation
– Paracetamol toxicity
Metabolites known as glucuronide conjugates
– Excreted in bile and urine
– Limited stability and can hydrolyse in the gut
– Undergo enterohepatic recirculation

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41
Q

major routs of Drug excretion

A

renal
billary- faeces
pulminoary

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42
Q

minor routs of excretion

A

mammary
salivary

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43
Q

Biliary excretion

A

Parent drug or metabolites may either be excreted in bile and eliminated via the GI tract or recycle several times before entering the systemic circulation (the drug follows bile salts)

Specific liver transporters are involved in the biliary excretion of metabolized drugs
Drugs can be very long lasting (e.g. Antibiotics)

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44
Q

renal excretion

A

passive filtration, secretion and reabsorbtion

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45
Q

Pharmacokinetic Drug-DrugInteractions

A

Tissue/plasma levels of one drug altered by another one
– Absorption
• Change in gastric pH
• Alteration in bacterial flora
• Decreased gastric emptying – metaclopramide

– Excretion
• Sodium bicarbonate makes urine more alkaline – increases excretion of weak acids (why?)
• Probenecid reduces renal excretion of penicillins

– Some drugs reduce circulation and may therefore reduce
• Clearance
• Elimination

– Eg alpha-2 agonists
– Metabolism
• Enzyme inhibition/induction

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46
Q

Quantitative Pharmacokinetics (PK)

A

Changes in plasma/tissue drug concentration with time

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47
Q

Quantitative Pharmacodynamics (PD)

A

– Changes in biological response with time

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48
Q

Absorption kinetics

A

IV infusion = zero order kinetics (straight line on grph)
IM/SC/oral = tend to follow first order kinetics. (increasing line on graph) Absorption rate from oral administration tends to be proportional to amount of drug (first order)

Amount of drug at administration site decreases with time therefore, rate of absorption decreases

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49
Q

Drug Elimination Rate

A

The amount of parent drug eliminated from the body per unit time – occurs after distribution

Volume of water in glass tank is analogous to the volume of blood plus interstitial fluid (body water) also described as the initial volume of distribution (Vi)

Concentration of contaminant in water = 100 mg / 10 L = 10 mg / L
This is analogous to drug concentration in blood immediately after
IV bolus dosing

Contaminant stuck on glass is in equilibrium with contaminant in solution
Concentration of contaminant in solution = 30 mg / 10 L = 3 mg / L
This is analogous to the concentration of a drug in blood after distribution
to tissue

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50
Q

Volume of distribution

A

Vd usually given in litres/kg
TBW approx. 0.6LKg
ECF approx. 0.1-0.3L/Kg

Vd of 0.1-0.3L/Kg drug most likely water soluble and mainly in ECF. E.g., midazolam or NSAIDs
Vd high (2L/Kg +) drug accumulates in another site – e.g., fentanyl in fat
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51
Q

Properties of X-rays and Gamma Rays:

A

No charge and no mass
Invisible and cannot be felt
Travel at speed of light
Travel in straight line
Penetrate all matter to some degree
Cause some substances to fluoresce
Expose photographic emulsion
Ionise atoms

X-rays are produced by the interaction of electrons with an atom
2 types:
Characteristic
Bremsstrahlung (braking)

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52
Q

Cathode

A

coiled tungsten wire
The cathode in an X-ray tube generates a stream of electrons via thermionic emission

Potential difference applied across the X-ray tube accelerates the electrons towards the positively charged anode

These hit and interact with the atoms within the target area of the anode resulting in the release of X-rays

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53
Q

Radiodensity (or radiopacity)

A

is opacity to the radio wave and X-ray portion of the electromagnetic spectrum: that is, the relative inability of those kinds of electromagnetic radiation to pass through a particular material.

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54
Q

Scatter

A

The effect of the X-ray beam striking another atom
Lower energy radiation produced in the patient’s body tissues - Compton Effect

Amount depends on:
Density/atomic no. of the patient/tissue
Increases in kV- higher penetration higher dose- may stay in tissues- domino effect of ionisation
Larger area (collimation)

As the size of the field increases, the amount of scatter will increase
Properties
May travel in any direction
Image degradation
Ionisation in tissues
Radiation dose – patient, YOU!

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55
Q

Harmful effects of X-rays

A

Genetic effects
Increased risk of DNA mutation and inherited abnormalities with ionising radiation

Somatic effects
Skin erythema, BM hypoplasia, abortion..

Carcinogenic effects- Rapidly dividing cells most susceptible
Persons under 18
Pregnant women (foetus)
Bone marrow
Gonadal tissue/repro organs
Germinal layers of skin (and gut)

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56
Q

legilation on radiation saftey

A

Ionising Radiations Regulations 2017 (IRR17)
BVA Guidance Notes for the Safe use of Ionising Radiations in Veterinary Practice
Must appoint a Radiation Protection Advisor and a Radiation Protection Supervisor
Must define and identify a controlled area
Must draw up and follow Local Rules

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57
Q

Radiation Protection Advisor

A

External to practice
Advanced knowledge of radiation (e.g. Radiation Physicist or Veterinary Diploma holder)
Must hold a RPA Certificate of Competence
Initially helps design and setup radiography facilities (or when any significant changes)
Establishes Local Rules
Annual visits to advise on:
Room design
Layout and shielding
Siting and use of equipment
Local Rules
Dosimetry

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58
Q

Radiation Protection Supervisor

A

Member of staff within practice
Responsible for day-to-day supervision and enforcement of rules
Makes sure local rules are followed
Keeps local rules and other paperwork up to date
Understand legal requirements
Ensures radiation doses are kept to a minimum
Manage radiation emergencies
Consults with RPA where necessary

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59
Q

Local Rules
(for x-ray

A

Code of conduct for performing radiography
Should be in an easily visible place
Should be read and understood by every member of staff involved in radiography
Detail equipment, procedures and access restrictions
List RPA, RPS and any staff involved in radiography
Define controlled areas (in practice and for mobile work)
Includes written arrangements for making radiographs, including restraint, record keeping and protective clothing

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60
Q

Controlled Area
(for x-ray)

A

Area where there is risk of significant radiographic exposure
Determined by Radiation Protection Advisor
Should be clearly defined with warning signs

Primary beam stopped by 4½ inches of brick (double thickness) or 1mm of lead
Scattered radiation stopped by single brick thickness
Radiation not stopped by wood or glass (lead glass and lead lining may be used in protective doors)

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61
Q

Creating controlled area (for x-rays) in the field

A

Don’t take radiographs in the stable
Too confined
Cant visualise behind stable wall
Stay in open area/yard with good line of sight in the direction of the primary beam
Work on 20 metre control zone
Based on Inverse Square Law, at that distance, the dose from a single diagnostic radiograph will be negligible
Double the distance reduces the exposure risk 4-fold

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62
Q

Dose Monitoring

A

Film badges or TLDs (thermoluminescent dosimeters) most commonly used
Must be worn by all staff involved in radiography on a regular basis
Must be regularly checked (usually every 1-3 months, depending on practice)
The badge must be OVER the lead, not underneath it
Worn on the chest/neck area

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63
Q

Film-focal Distance

A

The closer the x-ray tube to the film or plate, the more “concentrated” the x-ray beam and vice versa

The exposure varies according to the inverse square law

Particularly in-field radiography

Maintain source-image distance (SID) for the radiograph itself

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64
Q

Controlling Scatter

A
  1. To reduce scatter produced:
    Adequate collimation
    Use lowest kV compatible with a diagnostic image
  2. To reduce amount of scatter reaching the plate:
    Use of a grid
    Functions:
    Absorb secondary scattered radiation
    Allows primary beam to pass through to form the useful image on the film

Used when x-raying patient/part >10cm thick

Grid factor – when a grid is used, the amount of exposure required increases.
The exposure factors increased is the mAs

  1. Reduce effect of scatter on personnel
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65
Q

Milliampere-seconds (mAs)

A

The number of electrons generated at the cathode is determined by the mA (milliamperes) and exposure time

mA relates to the tube current

Milliampere-seconds (mAs) is the product of mA and time in seconds

The mA governs the current applied to the filament and this is applied for a specific time (= sec.)

Increased mA = Increased tube current -> Increased number of electrons ->
Greater number of x-rays are produced
HOWEVER
The energy of the x-rays is unchanged

mA x sec = mAs
mAs is a measure of the number of X-rays produced

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66
Q

the kV (kilovolts)

A

Potential difference applied across the X-ray tube
Aka The energy of the electrons striking the anode is determined by the kV (kilovolts) applied (sometimes called kVp = kilovolt peak)
Increase kV..
Increased energy of electrons
Increasing kV = Increased electron acceleration  Increased energy of electrons =
Greater number of x-rays are produced
AND
X-rays have increased energy = increased penetrating power

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67
Q

Quality (x ray)

A

penetrating power of the beam

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68
Q

Intensity (xray)

A

amount of radiation in the beam
mA affects intensity only

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69
Q

3 basic things for Xray production:

A

Source of electrons (through thermionic emission)
A means of accelerating those electrons (kV)
A means of decelerating the electrons (slamming into the anode)

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70
Q

Attenuation

A

Reduction in intensity of the X-ray beam as it passes through the matter
Due to absorption or scatter or both!

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71
Q

Absorption

A

The energy from X-ray photon transferred to atoms of absorber.
As more energy is absorbed, the number of X-rays reaching the film reduces – and therefore affects the appearance of the radiograph!
So tissues are seen on a radiograph in various shades of grey according to how much they absorb.

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72
Q

Interaction of X-rays with tissues

A

The five basic densities:
Metal – White (all x-rays absorbed)
Bone – nearly white
Soft tissue/Fluid – mid grey
Fat – dark grey
Gas – very dark/black (few x-rays absorbed)

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73
Q

The optimal radiograph

A

Well positioned
Good collimation, centring
Good definition, no film faults
A wide range of well differentiated shades of grey
This means a balance of kV and mAs to ensure there is enough penetration of the patient with sufficient X-rays passing through
Exposure charts help obtain consistent results!

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74
Q

Pink Camels Collect Extra Large Apples

A

positioning
centering
collumation
expousure
labling
artifacts

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75
Q

Positioning

A

Position the area of interest as close as possible to the cassette
Anatomical distortion
Rotation
Standard radiographic positions
Use a reference text for standard views
Described in detail in later lectures and in CS booklets

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76
Q

Centring

A

Centre the primary beam over the area of interest
Can lead to distortion on the image
Centre in middle of area of interest AND middle of the cassette

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77
Q

Collimation

A

Scatter contributes to image opacity
And increases radiation hazard
Collimate beam to minimum size necessary
But include enough!
The primary beam should ALWAYS be contained within the area of the cassette

Is it collimated sufficiently?
Safety
Describe the number of unexposed borders seen within the boundary of the film/cassette.
0% 25% 50% 100% for 1,2,3,4 sides seen

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78
Q

Exposure

A

underexposed- too white
overexposed- too dark

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79
Q

Contrast

A

Difference between radiographic densities
Seen as shades of grey
Ideal is with extremes of black and white
To improve contrast, must adjust the penetration of the X-ray beam.. How?
… This will change the amount of the x-ray beam absorbed by the tissues and therefore the shades of grey

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80
Q

Labelling

A

abelling:
Patient details and date
Exposed onto film, digital (embedded)
Side markers – should always be exposed onto the image
Side of body/recumbency (L/R)

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81
Q

Artefacts:

A

Things that shouldn’t be there!
Sandbags, troughs, driplines, collars!

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82
Q

radiographic quality

A

Blurring
Magnification
Distortion
Scatter
Good definition?
Any film faults?
Pink Camels..

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83
Q

Blurring
(xray)

A

Movement
Involuntary e.g. breathing
Voluntary e.g. conscious

How do we overcome this?
Chemical restraint, positioning aids

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84
Q

Magnification/Distortion
(xray)

A

Primary beam diverges with distance from the tube
Can also lead to geometric distortion if object is positioned obliquely to the beam

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85
Q

Beam intensity

A

Amount of radiation (number of X-ray photons) in beam
affected by mAs and KV

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86
Q

Beam quality

A

Beam quality
Penetrating power of beam
affected by KV

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87
Q

Density of the image

A

Amount of blackening of the image
Affected by mAs and KV (film)

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88
Q

Contrast of the image

A

The range of shades of grey in the image
Affected by KV (film)

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89
Q

The Ultrasound Machine

A

(Ultra) Sound Waves
Medium required (liquid, solid, gas) for propagation
Piezoelectric crystals oscillate = sound waves
Reflected differently by different tissue types
Picked up by transducer = image
Piezoelectric crystals – an electric voltage is applied to the crystals which causes them to oscillate which is then transmitted as an ultrasound wave into the body. The wave hits something, bouncing back as an echo. The crystals converts the receiving echo into electricity which is then converted into a real-time image on the screen
The transmitted sound waves pass through the thin layer of skin, but bounce off fluids, tissues and internal organs. These reflected waves are received by the probe, which converts them into electric signals which is the converted into an image

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90
Q

Gain- ultrasound

A

overall brightness

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91
Q

TGC (Time Gain Compensation)

A

selectively adjusting the gain at different depths
Near field vs far field
accounts for diffrent layers

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92
Q

Focus zones and position

A

The pulse of ultrasound can be manipulated to be at its narrowest at a particular depth, the focal position.
Maximise image quality
The focal zone is typically positioned at or just below the object you are evaluating.
like a zoom on a tissue

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93
Q

Depth

A

“zooms in” in 1cm graduations. Higher the depth, lower the image quality.
Depth = the time it takes for the echo to return from the organ

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94
Q

Frequency

A
  • image resolution at the level of the object being evaluated.
    highest frequency for a superficial object (in the near field).
    lowest frequency for a deeper object
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95
Q

Higher frequency (ultrasound)

A

decreased penetration but with increased resolution

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96
Q

lower frequency (ultrasound)

A

Lower frequency = better penetration with decreased resolution

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97
Q

Echogenicity

A

Echogenicity is a measure of acoustic reflectance, i.e. the ability of a tissue to reflect an ultrasound wave.
Or “how many echoes are bounced back”
The source of echogenicity is impedance mismatching between tissues

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98
Q

Hyperechoic

A

= tissues that produce strong echoes
Fat, bone, stones, air
Bright/white as ultrasound is reflected

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99
Q

Hypoechoic

A

tissues that produce few echoes
Soft tissue, muscle
Grey as some ultrasound passes through the tissue, some is reflected

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100
Q

Anechoic

A

structures that produce no echoes
Fluid
Dark as no ultrasound waves are reflected

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101
Q

Reverberation echo:

A

Produced by a pulse bouncing back and forth between two interfaces
Transducer:Tissue or tissue:tissue
More likely to occur from highly reflective surfaces like gas and bone

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102
Q

Homogenous

A

uniform

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103
Q

Heterogenous

A

non-uniform

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104
Q

Shadowing

A

Complete reflection of the sound beam
Zone deep to structure will be anechoic
Bone, gas, calculi

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105
Q

Mirror Image

A

A strongly reflective, obliquely orientated surface may reflect the sound beam distally instead of returning it to the transducer
Takes longer for the sound waves to return, the image will appear deeper to the structure it is reflecting

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106
Q

drug volume=

A

(weight x dosage)/ drug concentration

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107
Q

drug dosage=

A

(mg/kg) /weight

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108
Q

Flow rate =

A

Volume (ml) / Time (hours) Drop Rate

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109
Q

Total Body (Blood) Clearance

A

the volume of blood plasma cleared of parent drug per time unit
or
a constant relating to the rate of elimination to the blood/plasma concentration

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110
Q

Bioavailability

A

how much of the drug taken orally that actually gets to the blood plasma

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111
Q

one compartment model

A

body is seen as one single compartment

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112
Q

two compartment model

A

bosy is seen as teo compartments
vessel rich group and then to other tissues in the brain heart and kidneys

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113
Q

vessel rich group

A

Lung, brain, heart, and major organs (liver, kidney) have a relatively high blood flow (vessel-rich group [VRG]) compared with muscle and fat and are more susceptible to anesthetic drug-related effects

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114
Q

theraputic window

A

the plasma concentration at which the drug is effective

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115
Q

Tmax

A

the point on the curve where the drug is most active in the body

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116
Q

Constant rate infusions

A

a loading dose is given and then a low, constant rate of the drug i given to keep within theraputic window

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117
Q

multiple dosing

A

giving multiple dosing to keep drug level in theraputic range
can lead to overdose

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118
Q

loading dose

A

A loading dose is an initial higher dose of a drug that may be given at the beginning of a course of treatment before dropping down to a lower maintenance dose
A loading dose is most useful for drugs that are eliminated from the body relatively slowly, i.e. have a long systemic half-life
Without an initial higher dose, it would take a long time for the concentration of these drugs to reach therapeutic levels
Examples include ketamine and fentanyl

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119
Q

what type of biological molecules can drugs interact with

A

most often proteins
e.g
Enzymes (e.g. ACE inhibitors, aspirin, neostigmine)
Carrier Molecules (e.g. flavonoid – Pgp antagonist, digoxin)
Ion channels (e.g. verapamil - L-type calcium channel antagonist)
Receptors (e.g. benzodiazepine – GABA receptor agonist, adrenoceptor agonists and antagonists )
Structural proteins (e.g. Taxol – Tubulin “agonist”)
DNA (e.g. anti cancer agents like Doxorubicin) (dont need to memorise)

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120
Q

Lipophilicity (Hydrophobicity)

A

drugs that are hydrophobic may stay in cell membrane and dissrupt cell membrane
this is how inhaled anathetic drugs have a CNS effect

vey lipid soluble molecules take only low doses to produce an anethetic effect

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121
Q

receptors

A

Protein molecules whose function is to recognise and respond to endogenous chemical signals.

– Chemicals which mimic the endogenous signals (i.e. drugs) will also elicit an effect. Drugs need to bind to receptors with high affinity and high specificity

However…drugs generally lack complete specificity
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122
Q

Dose response curves

A

how do we know a drug is doing what we want
shaped graphs x axis= concentration y axix= effect of drug
shows at a low does there is little effect
rapid increase in the theraputic window
platues at high does- this could be where you see side effects

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123
Q

Potency

A

amount of drug required to produce 50% of its maximal effects.
Used to compare drugs within a chemical class (usually expressed in milligrams/kg). Example: if 5 mg/kg of drug A relieves pain as effectively as 10 mg/kg of drug B, drug A is twice as potent as drug B.

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124
Q

Efficacy

A

the maximum therapeutic response that a drug can produce (example: morphine vs buprenorphine)

the tendency of a drug to activate the receptor once bound

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125
Q

Agonism

A

an agonist produces a responce in a receptor
a full agonist

If the activation is 100%, namely each time a drug interacts with its
target there is a response then the agonist is said to be a “full agonist”
If the activation is <100%, the agonist is said “partial agonist”. Partial
agonists have lower efficacy than full agonists – even with maximal occupancy of receptors.
An agonist has affinity and efficacy – therefore elicits a biological response

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126
Q

Affinity

A

the tendency of a drug to bind to the receptor

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127
Q

Antagonism

A

Antagonist: molecule/drug that binds a receptor without activation
Antagonist have affinity but zero efficacy (as they block the target activity)
Main types of antagonism:
• Competitive
• Non-competitive
• Irreversible

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128
Q

competative antagonists

A

Competitive agonists compete with agonists for the receptor binding site.
The chemical structure of the agonist and competitive antagonist are often similar (lock and key hypothesis).
Antagonist binds to receptor in such a way as to prevent agonist binding
Competitive antagonism is surmountable – additional agonist can overcome the receptor blockade.

Addition of a competitive antagonist shifts the dose response curve of the agonist to the right (e.g. methadone/naloxone)- more drug will have to be given to overcome the block

decrece potency but not efficacy

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129
Q

Non-competitive Antagonism

A

Non-competitive antagonists either bind to a different receptor site, blocking the desired receptor

OR

Block the chain of events “post” binding - acting “downstream” of the receptor.

ketamine is an example of this

decrese potency and efficacy

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130
Q

Irreversible Antagonism

A

Antagonist dissociates from the receptor only very slowly or not at all.
The antagonist forms covalent bonds with the receptor.
Irreversible antagonism is insurmountable – additional agonist cannot overcome the receptor blockade.
Often used in drug discovery, rarely in practice – risky

asprin and omeprozol, anticancer drugs

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131
Q

Inverse agonism

A

drug that reduces the activation of a receptor with constitutive activity (example: GABAA receptor)- these receptors fire without stimulation
Can be regarded as drugs with negative efficacy.

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132
Q

Therapeutic index =

A

toxic dose (or LD50) ÷ effective dose (or ED50)
EC50: Effective concentration. The dose required for an individual to experience 50% of the maximal effect.
ED50: Effective dose. The dose for 50% of the population to obtain the therapeutic effect

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133
Q

EC50:

A

Effective concentration. The dose required for an individual to experience 50% of the maximal effect.

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134
Q

ED50:

A

Effective dose. The dose for 50% of the population to obtain the therapeutic effect.

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135
Q

Would an ideal drug have a small or large therapeutic index?

A

large!
ideally you want a large toxic dose and small effective dose

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136
Q

Drug receptor types

A

Ion channel cell surface transmembrane receptor- things tha topen up to let ions in and out of cells to change polarity and make them less or more likley to fire- drugs can open and close these channels
Ligand regulated enzyme- brings molecules toghther to form active catalitic domain
G-protein coupled receptors
Protein synthesis regulating receptor- can upregulate or decrease. acth stimulation test

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137
Q

Tachyphylaxis (“rapid protection”).

A

Reduction in drug tolerance which develops after a short period of repeated dosing. Not common. Often due to a lack of a co-factor. the bosy runs out of the effect the drug asks it to produce
happens in mainly IV drugs- addrenaline
not self antagonism

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138
Q

Self-Antagonism

A

When a drug becomes antagonistic to its own effects

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139
Q

Loss of target sensitivity

A

Change in receptors- become resistant to drug stimulation/conformational changes
Loss of receptors - endocytosis
Exhaustion of mediators- degradation/low re-expression level
Increased metabolic degradation- higher concentration of drugs are needed
Physiological adaptation- crosstalk between body systems, one takes over
Drug transporters- drug removed from receptor sites

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140
Q

Drug-drug interactions

A

Potential outcomes of drug-drug interactions:
• Action of one or more drugs is ENHANCED
• Development of totally NEW EFFECTS
• INHIBITORY effects on one drug on the other
• NO CHANGE

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141
Q

ligand regulated enzyme

A

the binding of an extracellular ligand causes enzymatic activity on the intracellular side

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142
Q

G-protein coupled receptors

A

integral membrane proteins that are used by cells to convert extracellular signals into intracellular responses
activated by agonists

When a ligand binds to the GPCR it causes a conformational change in the GPCR, which allows it to act as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF). The GPCR can then activate an associated G protein by exchanging the GDP bound to the G protein for a GTP. The G protein’s α subunit, together with the bound GTP, can then dissociate from the β and γ subunits to further affect intracellular signaling proteins or target functional proteins directly depending on the α subunit type

GPCRs are an important drug target

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143
Q

CRI

A

constant rate infusion
the use of low levels of agents to maintain theraputic dose

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144
Q

CD

A

controlled drug

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145
Q

TIVA

A

total intravenous anaesthesia

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146
Q

PO/SC/IM/IV are all …

A

dosing routes

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147
Q

describe the diffrent sites analgesia may act on

A

They may act at the site of injury and decrease the pain associated with an inflammatory reaction (e.g. NSAIDs)
They may alter nerve conduction (e.g. local anaesthetics)
They may modify transmission in the dorsal horn (e.g. opioids & some antidepressants)
They may affect the central component and the emotional aspects of pain (e.g. opioids & antidepressants)

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148
Q

Opioids

A

Natural (opiate) and synthetic (opioid) drugs
Endogenous opiates

Opioid receptors identified; mu(most important), delta, kappa (important in birds), nociceptin

Effect depends on dose, route, species, stimulus etc
CVS effects, pruritis, urinary retention, ileus, pancreatic duct, temperature, miosis, mydraisis, vomiting & nausea, mania & respiratory depression?- MOSTLY IN PEOPLE, side effects limited in vet species

decrease the likly hood that pain signals will be firesd at primary and secondary neurons- work a t a numebr of sites

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149
Q

Morphine

A

The most efficacious opioid at relieving pain

It is a full agonist at mu, delta and kappa receptors

Not licensed. (CD II)

Nevertheless still used widely
CRIs and epidurals plus horses

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150
Q

Methadone

A

opiate
A synthetic mu agonist (full) & affinity for NMDA receptor
Has effects as a norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Following IV - duration of action is approximately 4 hours (can be longer with sc)
Vomiting – not usually
Use as premed, for sedation, intra op (v slow IV), on recovery, and as CRI
Poor oral availability
Licensed for dogs and cats. CD II

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151
Q

Pethidine (Meperidine)

A

Synthetic agonist at the mu receptor
Also shown to block sodium channels
Agonist at alpha 2 B subtypes
Negative inotropic effects but tends to increase heart rate
NOT IV- Can induce histamine release, im only
Pethidine should not be administered to dogs receiving selegiline
Monoamine oxidase inhibitor + pethidine ≡ serotonin syndrome
CD II (licensed for dogs, cats, horses)
Spasmodic colic
DOA (duration of action) ≈ 90 minutes- short acting

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152
Q

Fentanyl

A

Fentanyl is a highly lipid soluble short acting mu opioid agonist. CD II
Uses:
Intraoperatively as bolus, with peak analgesic effects occurring in 3-5 minutes
At induction with a benzodiazepine
For compromised patients, fentanyl + benzodiazepine may be sufficient for intubation
CRIs are very effective
Transdermal fentanyl patches
Respiration slows or may cease following a bolus
Bradycardia can be significant
Fentanyl ‘spot on’ licensed for dogs (Recuvyra)

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153
Q

Codeine

A

has been used in dogs (often with paracetamol) for mild to moderate pain (post op) but…..

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154
Q

Oxycodone

A

has also been advocated for use in dogs (post op), but little information is currently available

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155
Q

Naloxone

A

for antagonism of pure mu opioids

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156
Q

Tramadol

A

Tramadol is popular! But there is a lack of data in dogs, better in cats
It is commonly prescribed to humans – now licensed in dogs
It is a synthetic analogue of codeine; it is a low potency mu selective partial agonist PRODRUG with LIMITED metabolism in dogs
It has an alpha 2 adrenergic effect and inhibits 5HT reuptake
CDIII
Very limited value in dogs but useful in cats

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157
Q

Buprenorphine

A

a partial agonist with a strong affinity for mu receptors (mild kappa antagonist)
Highly potent but not as efficacious as pure opioids
Peak effect IV admin 45-60mins- long wait time
Mild to moderate pain, good sedation, long duration of action, preservative in multi dose vials
Licensed for dogs and cats and horses
OTM route works v well (cats>dogs)

  • Better than butorphanol for analgesia but as it is a partial agonist you cannot increase the effect by giving more- occupies and blocks the receptors for about 6 hours

Allows patients a night sleep and is good for mild to moderate pain

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158
Q

OTM route

A

oral trans mucosal

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159
Q

Butorphanol

A

Only mixed one!
is a kappa opioid agonist and mu antagonist (short-medium duration)
Its actions differ to that of the other opioids
Available as oral form (Torbutrol)
Useful in combination with acepromazine for sedation e.g. cardiac patients
Licensed for dogs, cats & horses
Antitussive- suppresses cough
LIMITED ANALGESIA- Blocks mu receptors for up to 6 hours! But only 10 mins of analgesia and prevents use of other opiod analgesis

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160
Q

Alfentanil, sufentanil and remifentanil

A

can be used during anaesthesia to blunt sympathetic stimulation
All have context sensitive half lives shorter than fentanyl
Remifentanil is metabolized by plasma esterases
Remifentanil always given by CRI
Given as low dose (for analgesia) or higher doses as part of TIVA
MAC reduction of these opioids has been shown in dogs and cats
None licensed for dogs and cats

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161
Q

Local Anaesthetic (LA) Agents

A

block the sodium channels in nerve fibers, blocking transmission
the unionised local anethetic enters cell, becomes ionised and is then able to block the sodium channel
it can also affect eh membrane directly

LAs are weak bases and largely ionised at physiological pH. - Problem in inflamed tissue

Their speed of onset is inversely related to their degree of ionization. -Longer to start working in inflamed tissue

Their duration of effect is directly related to their degree of protein-binding.

Their potency is related to their lipid solubility.

Lidocaine
Prilocaine (+lidocaine)
Bupivicaine
Mepivicaine
Ropivicaine
Etidocaine
Amethocaine
Proparacaine
Cocaine

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162
Q

Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

A

Inhibit prostaglandin production by interfering with cyclo-oxygenase (COX)- COX 1, 2
Now thought also to have a spinal action
Synergistic with other drugs
iv, im, sc, po

non sterodials vlock the production of cyclooxygenase and therfore the production of PGG2- steriods also act earlier of this pathway so they should not be used toghter- gastric ulcration

Some licensed for pre-operative use
Carprofen and meloxicam have revolutionized perioperative pain management in UK in last 3 decades

Traditional NSAIDs are contraindicated in patients with:
Renal or hepatic insufficiency
Hypovolaemia
Congestive heart failure & pulmonary disease
Coagulopathies, active haemorrhage
Spinal injuries
Gastric ulceration
Concurrent use of steroids
Shock, trauma (esp head trauma)
Pregnancy

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163
Q

COX 1

A

NSAI block the production of this enzyme
Prostaglandin (PG) synthesis attributable to COX 1 along length of GIT
PGs play a role in regulating renal blood flow, reducing vascular resistance & enhance organ perfusion
COX 1 is found in neurones and in the foetus, amniotic & uterine tissue
Blood platelets contain COX 1

Cox 1 = ‘housekeeping’?
BUT
Earlier NSAIDS also inhibit COX1

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164
Q

COX 2

A

NSAIDs with a more favourable GIT profile were being sought before COX 2 was discovered

When COX 2 was discovered in 1991 it was shown that 3 drugs (carprofen, etodolac & meloxicam) with an enhanced GIT protective profile inhibited COX 2

Then assumed that COX 2 selective NSAIDs were the answer…

This has not been shown to hold true

Deracoxib & firocoxib – problems in humans, not all coxibs have problems!
COX 2 induction in heliobacter pylori gastritis, IBD & bacterial infections
Therefore COX 2 inhibition may exacerbate the situation…
Supported by transgenic studies
COX 2 may have a role in GI defence

In summary do not equate COX 2/COX 1 inhibition ratios to overall in vivo safety!

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165
Q

Licensed NSAIDs for horses

A

Phenylbutazone
Suxibuzone
Firocoxib
Meloxicam
Flunixin meglumine
Vedaprofen
Carprofen

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166
Q

Grapiprant (Galliprant)

A

New class of piprant NSAIDs- Non-cyclooxygenase inhibiting non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug- blocks EP4 further down in pathway instead

Licenced for treatment of mild to moderate osteoarthritis pain and inflammation in dogs

Has been called ‘next step’ when ‘traditional’ NSAIDs are not tolerated

Approved for use in dogs from 9 months of age and favourable safety profile

Once daily administration (chewable tablet) – 2mg/kg

Adverse events include vomiting, diarrhoea, decreased appetite and tiredness.
Often dogs will adjust but washout between NSAIDs essential

Not for use in cats

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167
Q

What is paracetamol?

A

Paracetamol: 10-15 mg/kg PO two to three times daily. Is it a NSAID?
Analgesic & antipyretic
Mechanism of action unknown!
Thought to inhibit COX-3(??) but recent data suggest there may be another site

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168
Q

Alpha-2 Adrenoceptor Agonists

A

good sedatives
between opiates and nonsteriodals
Bind to alpha 2 receptors

Receptors widespread

Drugs have other actions (sedation, ↓HR etc)

Systemic, epidural, peripherally

Synergism with LA’s

Dogs/cats
Medetomidine (45 minutes)
Dexmedetomidine (45 minutes)

Horses
Xylazine (30 minutes)
Detomidine (45 minutes)
Romifidine (60-70 minutes)

Cattle
Xylazine
Detomidine

Very useful drugs
Sedative action
Analgesic (& reduce MAC)
Compatible with other drugs & potential to antagonise (atipamezole),
IV, IM, epidurally, buccally (detomidine)
Small volume

Alpha 2 receptors:
3 subtypes (4) A,B,C
Diverse sites: CNS & PNS

Side effects-
Hyper (B) then normo/hypotension (A)
Decreased CO & HR, increased SVR
Respiratory depression
Increased urine production
Decreased GI motility
Decreased surgical stress response
Hyperglycaemia, GH enhanced
Thermoregulation affected
Sweating

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169
Q

NMDA Antagonists

A

Ketamine
As induction agents
As analgesics peri op
Ketamine for fractious cats (sprayed in mouth)
Very versatile
Will improve the patient’s post op comfort

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170
Q

Ketamine

A

It has been shown that at low doses ketamine can prevent the ’wind up’ and sensitisation of dorsal horn cells
0.5mg/kg after induction
Can be used in the pre-med
CRI e.g. Add 60mg ketamine to 1L LRS and administer at 10ml/kg/hr to dogs intra op (10mcg/kg/min)

NMDA Antagonists
As induction agents
As analgesics peri op
Ketamine for fractious cats (sprayed in mouth)
Very versatile
Will improve the patient’s post op comfort

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171
Q

Premed combinations

A

Acepromazine + opioid
Alpha 2 agonist + opioid or BZD or ketamine
BZD + Ket
Opioid + BZD
Alpha 2 + BZD + opioid

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172
Q

Post operative period in regards to anelgesic drugs

A

How long should we provide analgesia for?
24-72 hours for routine ops
Involve the owner
Rescue analgesia (what is yours?)

What options do we have available?
NSAIDs (daily, oed, monthly)
Opioids (patch, long acting formulations, oral forms (tramadol, morphine, OTM buprenorphine)
LA blocks
Adjuncts for chronic pain (amantadine, gabapentin etc)

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173
Q

side effects of antibiotics

A

Direct toxicity – aminoglycosides
Drug interactions – sulphonamides and alpha-2 agonists
May reduce normal protection – gut flora
May cause tissue site necrosis (tetracyclines)
Chloramphenicol has been shown to cause a reduced immune response
Some can cause reduced metabolism
Potential residues in food producing animals
RESISTANCE
Hypersensitivity
Anaphylactoid reactions

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174
Q

What Influences Success of antibiotics

A

Bacterial susceptibility
Pharmacokinetics and tissue penetration
Most tissues – concentration is perfusion limited
Free drug concentration in plasma is related to, or equal to that in tissue

In some tissues – concentration is permeability limited where non inflamed
CNS
Eye
Lung
Prostate
Mammary gland

Local factors
Abscess - pus - necrosis – inactivates aminoglycosides and sulphonamides
Foreign material – bacterial glycocalix
Slowed bacterial growth – less susceptible to cephalosporins and penicillins
Low pH/low oxygen – erythromycin, fluoroquinolones
Haemoglobin - penicillins

Wound cleansing and drainage
Compliance

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175
Q

Factors Affecting Choice of antibiotic

A

Presence of infection (Gram stain culture and sensitivity)
Spectrum
Habitual reliance on broad spectrum indicates low standard of diagnosis
Bacteriocidal versus bacteriostatic
Cost
Toxicity
Concurrent disease
Pregnancy
Habit…..!

Dosage and frequency

Route

Duration and re-evaluation
Acute versus chronic infection
Immunocompromise
Septic arthritis
Osteomyelitis

Combination therapy
Not bacteriostat + bacteriocide

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176
Q

Peptidoglycan is unique to bacteria, making it ….

A

good antibiotic target

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177
Q

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

A

Penicillin based – -lactamase inhibitor
Staphs, streps
Gram negatives
Escherichia and Klebsiella spp variable
Pseudomonas enterobacter resistant

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178
Q

Lincosamides

A

Penicillin based – -lactamase inhibitor
Usually bacteriostatic
GI irritation –do not use in horse except foals, never in rabbits
Basic drugs – ion trapping in milk

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179
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

Penicillin based – -lactamase inhibitor
Reserve for serious gram-negative systemic infections
Do not use routinely and non-selectively
If used, use the correct dose!

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180
Q

Potentiated sulphonamides

A

Penicillin based – -lactamase inhibitor
Old but useful – resistance growing

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181
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Penicillin based – -lactamase inhibitor
Gentamicin – gram-negative aerobes

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182
Q

Adjuncts

A

Probiotics?
Anti-tetanus toxin
Foaming agents –foot rot

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183
Q

prophylactic use of antibiotics

A

Not indicated for routine, clean surgery where no inflammation is present, GI system not invaded and aseptic technique has not been broken
But do use for:
Dental procedures
Leukopenia
Contaminated surgery
Where infection would be disastrous – orthopaedic

Administer before procedure and within 3-5 hours of contamination
Slow IV
Appropriate to contaminating pathogen

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184
Q

licensed antifungals

A

Ketoconazole Fungiconazol 200 mg tablets for dogs – dermatphytosis. Used off licence for systemic infections.
Itraconazole oral solution for cats and birds, e.g. Itrafungol 10 mg/ml Oral Solution (treats M. Canis). Used off licence for systemic infections.
Miconazole. In various shampoos and ear drop preparations.
Nystatin ear drops - Canaural
Terbinafine – in various ear drops for dogs
Clotrimazole- in various ear drops for dogs
Enilconazole. Imaverole Concentrate for Cutaneous Emulsion – cattle, horses and dogs vs dermatophytosis
Bovilis® Ringvac MSD Animal Health UK Limited vaccination for cattle

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185
Q

unlicnened antifunglas

A

Amphotericin b
Climbazole
Fluconazole
Silver sulfadiazine
Tiabendazole

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186
Q

treatment of ringworm

A

Clipping of the hair coat, especially small animals, removes infected hairs, stimulates new hair growth and hastens recovery
Systemic ketoconazole (dogs), itraconazole (cats) plus a topical treatment (e.g. miconazole)
Treatment with ketoconazole suppresses testosterone concentrations and increases progesterone concentrations and may affect breeding effectiveness in male dogs during and for some weeks after treatment
Treatment of dermatophytosis should not be limited to treatment of the infected animal(s)
Measures to prevent introduction of M.canis into groups of cats may include isolation of new cats, isolation of cats returning from shows or breeding, exclusion of visitors and periodic monitoring by Wood’s lamp or by culturing for M.canis

Bovilis® Ringvac reduces clinical signs of ringworm caused by Trichophyton verrucosum (prophylactic dose) and shortens the recovery time of infected cattle showing clinical signs of ringworm (therapeutic dose)

Initially the whole herd should be vaccinated (two vaccinations 10-14 days apart).
Subsequently, (closed herds) only young calves require revaccination at around 2 weeks of age, followed by a second injection 10-14 days later. New animals should receive a full vaccination course. No subsequent doses are required.
Can be used during pregnancy (?lactation).
Administration is by intramuscular injection.

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187
Q

Aspergillosis treatment

A

First line treatment = topical clotrimazole formulated in a polyethylene glycol base
Indwelling tubes trephined into the frontal sinuses or via the nares as a single infusion.
The infused solution is left in place for 1 hr, during which the dog’s position is changed periodically
~80% success rate
Also reports of enilconazole (bid for 7–14 days), via tubes implanted surgically into the frontal sinuses
Systemic treatments of ketoconazole, itraconazole, fluconazole, voriconazole, and Posaconazole reported
In horses, surgical exposure and curettage have been used for guttural pouch mycosis.
Topical natamycin and oral potassium iodide have been reported effective
Itraconazole (3 mg/kg, bid for 84–120 days) has been reported effective in Aspergillus rhinitis in horses

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188
Q

aspergiliosis diagnosis

A

Imaging (radiographs/CT) of the nasal cavity can show turbinate tissue destruction
Visualization of fungal plaques by rhinoscopy together with serologic and either mycologic or radiographic evidence of disease is gold standard .
Culture result alone is not appropriate (ubiquitous and can be isolated from the nasal cavities of healthy patients)
Systemic disease is usually diagnosed by culture of the organism, often from urine

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189
Q

Two pharmacological approaches to viral control

A

effective vaccines or antiviral therapy

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190
Q

licensed Antiviral agents

A

One licensed agent
Virbagen Omega
Contains recombinant omega interferon of feline origin
For cats (sc) and dogs (iv)
Licenced for treatment of canine parvovirus, feline leukaemia virus (FeLV), and feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
Interferons increase the cell’s resistance to a virus

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191
Q

unlicenced antiviral agents

A

Aciclovir
Famciclovir
Ganciclovir
Lamivudine
Zidovudine
Oseltamivir for treatment of viral diseases in dogs (parvovirus and parainfluenza) has also been reported

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192
Q

Biochemistry/haematology/serology of FIP

A

Hypergammaglobulinaemia; raised bilirubin without liver enzymes being raised, lymphopenia; non-regenerative anaemia, high antibody titre to FCoV

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193
Q

FIP treatment

A

Feline interferon omega (Virbagen Omega) or human interferon alfa-2b have been used – limited success
Stimulate body’s response
Immunosuppressive and anti-inflammatory drugs reduce inflammation. Commonest immunosuppressive drug used in FIP is prednisolone (corticosteroid) but no placebo-controlled trials showing prednisolone to be better than other anti-inflammatories

GS-441524 is a nucleoside analogue
Two published studies from UC Davis in 2018 and 2019. Results were 100% (10/10) recovery rate reported in experimentally infected cats and 84% (25/31) recovery rate in naturally infected cats. Of the recovered cats, owners reported that they returned to “near normal” within two weeks of treatment
The 2019 study proposed the optimized treatment protocol for GS-441624 use as 4.0 mg/kg given as a subcutaneous injection once daily for at least 12 weeks

can only buy it for research currently

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194
Q

Equine vaccines

A

Routinely equine flu, tetanus, equine herpes virus, equine rotavirus and now strangles
Following 2019 equine flu outbreak in the UK some governing bodies moved from annual to six-monthly requirements
All vaccination records should be kept up to date in the horse’s passport document
Up-to-date vaccination record is a requirement of many sporting governing bodies for horses competing under their rules

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195
Q

Cattle vaccines – what’s available?

A

Bovine viral diarrhoea
Very common disease in the UK. About 60% of cattle in the EU test positive for exposure to the BVD virus. Timings for all BVD vaccines are to aim for full protection to occur at least two to three weeks prior to service.
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
Live and inactivated vaccines are available. Live vaccines have rapid onset of immunity and are of use in the face of an outbreak to reduce clinical signs and improve the immunity quickly but inactivated vaccines appear to be better at producing longer-term immunity
Leptospirosis
Two vaccines are available in the UK for leptospirosis control. In both cases a primary course of two doses four to six weeks apart, followed up with annual boosters, is preferably given in the spring before the period of highest risk.
Calf enteric disease – rotavirus, coronavirus and Escherichia coli
A number of vaccines are available for immunising pregnant cows and heifers to raise antibodies to rotavirus, coronavirus and Escherichia coli. After birth, the calves gain protection in their gut from drinking the colostrum and milk that is fortified with these antibodies.
Some minor differences exist in the timing of the various vaccines.
Pneumonia vaccines
Calf pneumonia vaccines are available for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis, parainfluenza type three, bovine respiratory syncitial virus, Pasteurella, Mannheimia haemolytica and Histophillus somni, and many combinations are available depending on what protection is needed.
It is important to identify the common diseases present and the age calves become infected
Lungworm
The only lungworm vaccine available uses irradiated live lungworm larvae that create an immune response from the animal, but the larvae do not continue to reproduce, so do not cause clinical disease. The vaccine is a two-dose programme given approximately four weeks apart to youngstock at the beginning of their first grazing season. The second dose should be given at least two weeks before turnout, and vaccinated and unvaccinated stock should not be mixed for at least two weeks after the second dose has been given.
It is preferable for calves to be exposed to low levels of lungworm larvae throughout the grazing season to stimulate and maintain this immunity. If the worming protocol on the farm is too effective, there may be small exposure of the calves to lungworm, allowing very little natural immunity to build up, and this leads to insufficient long-term immunity in adult cattle, which can develop the disease in subsequent grazing years.
Clostridial diseases
Vaccinations against clostridial diseases are routinely given to sheep, but the uptake is much less in the cattle sector. A number of products exist on the market.
Ringworm
Mastitis
STARTVac, covers the main mastitis causing pathogens, E coli, Coliforms, Staph aureus and Coagulase-Negative Staphylococci (CNS), but does not protect against Strep uberis. It involves a complicated programme and is quite expensive

Salmonella
In the face of a Salmonella outbreak on farm, a fluid vaccine can be used to improve immunity to S. enterica serovar Dublin and S enterica serovar Typhimurium

Bluetongue
Not routinely used in UK but two vaccinations are available

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196
Q

Pig vaccines – what’s available?

A

Porcine parvovirus
Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome
E.coli
Clostridia
Erysipelas
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
Lawsonia intracellularis
Atrophic rhinitis
Glasser’s Disease
Aujeszky’s Disease
Salmonella typhimurium
Also relatively new intramuscular vaccine to control ileitis in pigs

The bacterial disease is present on most pig farms in the UK and causes widespread digestive health problems

There are often no visible signs of ill health, but an infection with the bacterium Lawsonia intracellularis can lead to poor feed conversion ratios (FCR) and reduced growth rates

More serious infection levels also cause diarrhoea and result in increased herd mortality rates.

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197
Q

Sheep vaccines – what’s available?

A

Vaccines available in the UK for sheep
Clostridial diseases, e.g. lamb dysentery, pulpy kidney, tetanus, braxy, blackleg
Pasteurellosis
Ovine abortion, e.g. toxoplasmosis and enzootic abortion
Louping ill
Contagious pustular dermatitis (Orf)
Footrot

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198
Q

Dog Core vaccines in the UK

A

Canine Distemper Virus (D)
Canine Adenovirus/Infectious Canine Hepatitis (H)
Canine Parvovirus (P)
Leptospirosis (L). Please be advised that vaccines are multivalent; preparations are available containing different Leptospira strains.

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199
Q

Core vaccines

A

protect animals from severe, life-threatening diseases that have global distribution and which ALL dogs and cats, regardless of circumstances or geographical location, should receive. Non-core vaccinations protect from disease where the animal’s geographical location, lifestyle or environment puts them at risk, e.g. rabies vaccination before overseas travel. (

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200
Q

Dog non-core vaccines in the UK

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica +/- Canine parainfluenza virus (“Kennel Cough” vaccine): vaccination should be considered for dogs before kennelling or other situations in which they mix with other dogs (e.g. dog shows, training classes)
Rabies: legal requirement for dogs travelling abroad / returning to the UK
Canine Herpes Virus: for breeding bitches
Leishmaniasis: before travelling to endemic areas
Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease): for dogs at high risk of exposure

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201
Q

Cat core vaccines in the UK

A

Feline enteritis (feline parvovirus) (P)
Cat flu (feline calicivirus (C) and herpes virus (H)

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202
Q

Cat non–core vaccines in the UK

A

Feline leukaemia vaccine (FeLV) (this may be considered a core vaccine for all cats that go outdoors or are in contact with cats which go outdoors).
Chlamydophila felis (Chlamydia)
Rabies: legal requirement for cats travelling abroad / returning to the UK
Bordetella bronchiseptica

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203
Q

Rabbit vaccines

A

Myxomatosis
Two forms of Rabbit Viral Haemorrhagic Disease (RHD) caused by RHDV-1 and RHDV-2 strains where local risks and individual veterinary advice indicate the need

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204
Q

ferret vaccines

A

Rabies: legal requirement for ferrets travelling abroad / returning to the UK
Distemper: No vaccine currently licensed for use in ferrets in the UK, some owners ask for canine distemper vaccines in discussion with their vet

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205
Q

what is the mode of action and target of penicillin

A

inhibits cells wall synthesis
gram postitive bacteria

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206
Q

what is the mode of action and target of ampicillin

A

inhyibits cell wall syntheisis
broad spectrum

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207
Q

what is the mode of action and target of Bacitracin

A

inhibits cell wall syntheisis
gram positive bacteria (applied as skin ointment)

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208
Q

what is the mode of action and target of cephalosporin

A

inhibits cell wall syntheisis
gram positive bacteria

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209
Q

what is the mode of action and target of tetracycline

A

inhibits protien synthesis
broad spectrum

has wide spread, plasmid mediated imunity

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210
Q

what is the mode of action and target of streptomycin

A

inhibits protien synthesis
gram neg
tuberculosis

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211
Q

what is the mode of action and target of sulfa drug

A

inhibits cell motabolism

bacterial meningitis
urinary tract infections

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212
Q

what is the mode of action and target of rifampicin

A

inhibits RNA synthesis
gram positive bacteria
gram negative bacteria

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213
Q

what is the mode of action and target of quinolones

A

inhibits DNA synthesis
urinary tract infections

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214
Q

what is the mode of action of polyenes

A

(amphotericin, B Nystatin)
interacts with sterols in cell membrane to cause cellular leak

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215
Q

what is the mode of action of antibiotics (against antifungals)

A

griseofulvin
inhibits mitosis (via the microtubules)

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216
Q

what is the mode of action of azoles

A

fluconazole
itraconazole
ketoconazole ect
inhibits ergosterol synthesis (inhibits cell membrane)

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217
Q

what is the mode of action of allylamines

A

terbinafine
inhibits ergosterol (cell membrane)

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218
Q

what is the mode of action of thicocarbamate

A

tolnaftate
inhibits ergostero (cell membrane)

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219
Q

what is the mode of action and target of antimetabolite

A

flucytosine
inhibits dna and rna synthesis

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220
Q

what is the mode of action and target of profens

A

flurbiprofen
ibuprophen
directly damages the fungal cytoplasmic membrane

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221
Q

what are the components of a surgical theatre

A

Surgical environment should have several distinct areas:
Changing area
Surgical prep/induction
Scrub area
Operating theatre
Recovery
Utility

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222
Q

Skin disinfectants

A

Chlorhexidine 2% with or without 70% isopropyl alcohol
Not suitable for broken skin, wounds, mucous membranes

Povidone iodine 7.5%
Suitable for contact with mucous membranes

Non-povidone iodine (alcohol free)
For use with ocular surgery

Equally effective at reducing bacterial counts
Chlorhexidine has greatest residual action

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223
Q

what class of antibiotis inhibit cell wall synthesis

A

penicillin
ampicillin
bacitracin
cephalosporin

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224
Q

what class of antibiotis inhibit protein synthesis

A

tetracyclin
streptomycin

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225
Q

what class of antibiotis inhibit cell metabolism

A

sulfa drug

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226
Q

what class of antibiotis inhibit RNA synthesis

A

rifampicin

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227
Q

what class of antibiotis inhibit DNA synthesis

A

Quinolones

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227
Q

comon bacterial agents of Bite wounds, trauma and contaminated wounds

A

Staphylococcus spp, Streptococcus spp, Pasteurella spp, anaerobes

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228
Q

comon bacterial agents of Osteomyelitis

A

Staphylococcus spp, Streptococcus spp, Proteus, Pseudomonas (cat/dog), anaerobes

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229
Q

Septic arthritis

A

Staphylococcus spp, Streptococcus spp, coliforms

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230
Q

What is General Anaesthesia?

A

Controlled, reversible depression of the CNS so as to produce lack of awareness of painful inputs (nociception)

Minimal depression of hind brain functions – cardiovascular centres

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231
Q

What is Local Anaesthesia/analgesia?

A

Local anaesthesia (local analgesia) – not aiming for CNS depression

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232
Q

what are the components of the anethetic triad

A

unconciousness
muscle relaxation
analgesia

one drug does not do all of these therefore we need a cocktail

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233
Q

The less anaesthetic you give…

A

…the better for the patient’s physiology
Less cell and organ damage
Quicker recoveries
Quicker return to normal appetite
Better functioning immune systems

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234
Q

Balanced Anaesthesia

A

Using multiple drugs to minimise the dose and the side-effects of any one of them

Results in lower doses of potent anaestheticsless CNS depression

Better achievement of the goal of anaesthesia

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235
Q

Hypnosis

A

artificially induced sleep

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236
Q

analgesia

A

Anti-nociception

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237
Q

Muscle relaxation

A

From the same agent producing hypnosis or
From a centrally acting muscle relaxant - diazepam or
From a specific neuromuscular junction blocking agent - curare

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238
Q

modern stages of anesthesia

A

Conscious
Anaesthetised
Dead
Unconsciousness is an all or nothing thing

Level of CNS depression
Specific signs related to muscle relaxation

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239
Q

Signs related to brain stem depression

A

Respiratory rate
Heart rate
Blood pressure

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240
Q

Minimising anesthesia risk

A

Support
Oxygen
Fluids
Warmth
Monitoring
During anaesthesia
Recovery

Anaesthesia record sheet
Legal record
The trained anaesthetist

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241
Q

Tranquilisation

A

relief of anxiety

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242
Q

Sedation –

A

central depression, drowsiness

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243
Q

Narcosis

A

drug induced sleep produced by narcotics - opium like drugs

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244
Q

Dissociative anaesthesia

A

induced by drugs such as ketamine that dissociate the thalamo-cortical and limbic systems

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245
Q

The Anaesthetic Process

A

IDENTICAL for all species

History and examination

The anaesthetic plan

Place iv cannula

Premedicate, allow to settle
Induce anaesthesia – injectable agent

Once intubated do ABC
AIRWAY, BREATHING, CIRCULATION

Connect to anaesthetic machine and supply volatile anaesthetic in oxygen (or us total injectable with top ups)
Alter inspired concentration in response to physical signs
Supply analgesia separately

Recover following anaesthesia

Continue to monitor until patient comfortable/discharged

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246
Q

Why are combinations of agents used for anesthesia?

A

One agent could be used to induce and produce all 3 desired effects of the triad (unable to perceive painful stimuli, relaxed muscles, unconsciousness) but with massive physiological depression
Eg isoflurane, sevoflurane
But usually injectable agents are used in combination
“Balanced anaesthesia”

E.g. ketamine: if used alone, poor muscle relaxation
Add medetomidine: improved analgesia and muscle relaxation

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247
Q

Why is Airway Management Important?

A

Allows delivery of oxygen and inhaled anaesthetic gas
Most anaesthetics cause respiratory depression
Loss of airway reflexes = prone to airway obstruction
Brachycephalics obstruct
All the above cause hypoxia- high mortality

Allows scavenging and environmental protection

Allows intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV)
Allows ventilator support in ICU setting

‘Protects the airway’
Under normal anaesthesia
Reflux 40-60% in anaesthetised dogs
Most of this is silent – may not be witnessed
When carrying out oral/pharyngeal procedures
E.g. Dental work and associated debris

Allows airway management during bronchoscopy

Allows one lung ventilation

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248
Q

Pre-Anaesthetic Fasting?

A

Recommended in adult dogs/cats 3-6 hours, water until premed
<3 = food present. >6 = stomach pH drops so reflux is damaging
Neonates = from 0.5 to 3 hours – monitor glucose

Horses withdraw concentrate overnight (to reduce gas distension) – controversial

Ruminants withdraw 6 hours and reduce concentrates ( to reduce gas distention) 12-24 hours

Small exotics/furries – shorter times depending on species

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249
Q

intubation methods

A

Endotracheal tubes
Supraglottic airway devices
V-gels (rabbits)/I-gels (cats)
Laryngeal mask airways
Face masks
Others
(Tracheostomy tubes)
(Arndt endobronchial blockers)

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250
Q

Endotracheal Tubes (ETT)

A

Various types available
Most are cuffed with a visible pilot balloon
Inflate to ~25mmHg – use manometer if possible
Murphy, Magill or Cole

Use of laryngoscope advisable

Flow = ∆𝑃𝜋𝑟4/8∩𝐿
Go as large as possible

What size shall I place?
Selection based on nasal septal width = 21% accurate
Selection based on tracheal palpation = 46% accurate
Best technique = visualise larynx using laryngoscope
Spray lidocaine (only cats as the have larygneal spazm) and WAIT
Try largest but have a range available
Cut to length – minimise dead space
Not possible with armoured tubes

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251
Q

Red Rubber ETT

A

Red rubber in common use
Crack over time + non-repairable
Prone to kinking
Irritant
Not possible to visualise blockages
Low volume high pressure cuff
Can lead to tracheal trauma but good seal

Difficult to recommend

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252
Q

PVC and Silicone ETT

A

More popular than rubber
Disposable but reused, silicone tubes repairable
Less prone to kinking compared to rubber
Non-irritant
Allows visualisation of blockages
Usually high volume low pressure cuff
Less risk of tracheal trauma but relatively good seal

Recommended

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253
Q

Armoured Endotracheal Tubes

A

Wire coil embedded in wall

Resist kinking but more difficult to place without stylet
If bitten may permanently obstruct
Useful in ophthalmic cases

Impossible to reduce dead space

Contraindicated in MRI

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254
Q

Cole Pattern Tubes

A

Designed for emergency use in paediatric anaesthesia
The shoulder of the tube should impact in the larynx to provide a gas-tight seal
However movement or IPPV tends to dislodge the tube
Still quite useful for exotic animal anaesthesia- snake ect

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255
Q

Supraglottic Airway Devices (SADs)

A

Developed originally for human anaesthesia
Major cardiovascular and laryngospasm problems in humans
ETT remain ‘gold standard’
veterinary specific LMAs achieving popularity for short uncomplicated procedures
Increasing evidence of their effectiveness in veterinary patients

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256
Q

Veterinary Specific SADs

A

V-gels are veterinary specific (rabbits and cats)
2 species where ETT placement can be challenging

Designed to anatomical standards

Can be used to protect the airway the same as an ETT

IPPV is possible

Channels to divert regurgitation can be incorporated

Very useful for short procedures and for bronchoscopy

Always use capnography

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257
Q

Face Masks for anesthesia

A

Should cover nose and mouth
Not whole head
Avoid eyes

Beware of dead space – choose the shape

Transparent masks preferable

Ensure a good seal using rubber diaphragms

Have been used for anaesthetic induction – NOT recommended
Stage 2 excitement and no airway protection

Very useful for provision of supplemental oxygen

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258
Q

Complications of Airway Management

A

High pressure/low volume (red rubber and some silicone ETT) exert pressure on a small part of the tracheal mucosa.
May see tracheitis or pressure necrosis
This can lead to tracheal strictures
Extreme cases may see tracheal rupture
Post-op subcutaneous emphysema in cats – but still recommended to use a cuff
ALWAYS disconnect from breathing system when changing position whenever a change in recumbency is needed
Especially with dental cases where head and neck movement is common
Always inflate carefully preferably with manometer
Or listen for leaks

ETT over insertion – carefully measure

Should be at level of thoracic inlet

Too long potential one lung ventilation

Cleaning and storage of ETT and LMAs
Usually stored on wall brackets ideally keep covered to avoid contamination

Common cause of tracheitis is insufficient rinsing of ETT tubes

LMAs need to be thoroughly dried after cleaning or tend to degrade

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259
Q

What Type Of Intravenous Cannula?

A

‘Over the needle’
24-10 gauge, 1.9-13.3 cm long
Relatively stiff material

‘Through the needle’
Large bore insertion needle
Cannula passed through the needle
Central veins
Not used commonly

Peel away – place through an over the needle cannula

Seldinger/over the wire cannula

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260
Q

placment of cannula

A

Cephalic
Most used site as animals easiest to restrain
Start distally (can then use the higher site)

Saphenous Veins
Requires more assistance
Medial or lateral saphenous
Use vein on caudal aspect of leg as it ascends
Medial easier in cat – straighter
Good choice in brachycephalics

Jugular- horse
Useful for long term therapy & regular sampling
Well tolerated
Multilumen cannulae available
right (straighter in the dog)

The Auricular Veins
Useful in animals with large or floppy ears, rabbits, ruminants too
EMLA cream can help to reduce discomfort

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261
Q

What size of cannula should u use?

A

22g (blue) for v small patients
20g (pink) or greater for most patients including cats
>20kg dogs use 18g
Very large dogs use 16g or 14g

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262
Q

maintinance of a placed intravenous cannula

A

Check cannula regularly and flush q 6 hours with heparinised saline (1IU/ml); does this help ????
Normal cannulae can be maintained for up to 3 days after which they should be replaced (exceptions do occur)
Swab ports prior to injection
Replace giving sets, bungs and T ports after 3 days

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263
Q

complications a cannula

A

Extravasation
Thrombosis (where do the thrombi occur)
Thrombophlebitis
Infection
Emboli (air, catheter)
Exsanguination
What would you do in these situations?

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264
Q

what are the functions of an anesthetic machine?

A

Delivery of oxygen / nitrous oxide at known rate.
Delivery of known concentration of IAA.
Removal of exhaled gases from patient.
Recirculation or removal of exhaled gases.
Facilitate IPPV/ CPR.Delivery of oxygen / nitrous oxide at known rate.
Delivery of known concentration of IAA.
Removal of exhaled gases from patient.
Recirculation or removal of exhaled gases.
Facilitate IPPV/ CPR.

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265
Q

Gas Source of an enesthetic machine function?

A

Molybdenum steel cylinders
Specific yokes and Bodok seal
Colour coded (e.g. oxygen = black/white top). Also piped gas from large cylinders. Usual sizes = E,G,F
Oxygen ; pressure = contents
Nitrous oxide ; liquid with vapour above. Therefore volume of gas in cylinder = (Wt. Cylinder – Empty Wt. Cylinder) x 534

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266
Q

Needle valve and flowmeter.

A

Regulate flow into low pressure side of machine. Flowmeter = graduated glass tube with floating bobbin/ball. Can stick. Read at TOP of bobbin/middle of ball. Rotate.

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267
Q

Back bar

A

Horizontal part of the anaesthetic machine circuit between the rotameter block and the common gas outlet
Vaporisers are mounted on the back bar, enabling volatile agents to be added to the fresh gases. The pressure in the back bar is approximately 1 kPa at the outlet end, and may be 7–10 kPa at the rotameter end

Contains a ‘blow off’ or pressure relief valve at the outlet end plus safety features to only allow one vaporiser in use

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268
Q

Intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV)

A

Intermittent manual – ‘sighing’. A good habit! Close valve + short inspiration up to 20cm water. Chest supra-maximal. OPEN VALVE AGAIN.
Continuous manual. Repeated sighing. Can be tiring. Will allow breathing control but turn down vaporiser.
Mechanical. Ventilator. TV – 10-20ml/kg. Use large TV with slow rates. Various types. Frees anaesthetist and regular rhythm.

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269
Q

Soda Lime

A

USA – baralime.
90% = calcium hydroxide;
Ca(OH)2 +CO2 -> CaCO3 + H2O + Heat. Therefore gas warmed and humidified.
Colour change – usually to purple but NOT permanent so change if needed at end of anaesthetic.
Dust. Tracking of gas. Dead space. Resistance. Hyperthermia.
Exhaustion – colour change, no heat, increased heart/resp rate and bp, wound ooze, red mms.

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270
Q

Gas storage safety aspects

A

Oxygen/nitrous support combustion – naked flames/heat/electrical sparks.
Puncture cylinders – rocket effect; chain/ secure well. Move with carts. Store upright in dedicated area.
Keep tops dust free – plastic and blow dust off briefly before attachment.
Clearly label full/in use/empty.

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271
Q

Inhaled anaesthetic agent storage safety

A

Ether – highly flammable.
Halothane/Isoflurane/Sevoflurane.
Store upright in cool cupboard and avoid breakages.
Fill vaporisers at end of each day.
Recap bottles when empty.
If spill – open windows, wear gloves/mask and use absorbent into airtight container.

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272
Q

Scavenging

A

Prolonged exposure to anaesthetic gases potentially detrimental
Some anaesthetic are ozone gases
Legal requirement to control pollution
Control of substances hazardous to health
(COSHH)

Need to vent waste anaesthetic gases
Recommended max concentrations (UK)

  * 100 ppm Nitrous oxide
  * 50 ppm isoflurane
  * 10 ppm halothane

Excess gas vented via pressure relief
(pop-off valve/APL valve)
Disc held by weak
spring
Connected to wide –bore
scavenge tubing

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273
Q

Types of scavenging

A

Charcoal cannister e.g. Cardiff aldasorber
Passive
- window
- hole in wall
- vent to outside
Active
- pumped outside

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274
Q

Charcoal canister

A

Cardiff aldasorber
Charcoal absorbs halogenated anaesthetics
Does not absorb nitrous oxide
Increasing weight indicates exhaustion
Heating causes release of gases

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275
Q

Active scavenging

A

Collecting & transfer system
Receiving system
- valveless open-ended reservoir
- bacterial filter
Pump to generate vacuum

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276
Q

Scavenging systems and safety

A

IMPORTANT – long term exposure to IAAs/nitrous possibly associated with;
Abortion/congenital problems.
Halothane hepatotoxicity.
Neurological problems – memory.
Bone marrow suppression/anaemia (nitrous).
?renal toxicity with methoxyflurane.

Therefore;
Cuffed tubes
Closed breathing systems
Wear gloves and fill vaporisers at end of day in fume hood
Key filling system
Turn on gas flows only if animal connected
Avoid mask induction and ventilate room – 20 air changes an hour
Monitor and inspect equipment

Oxygen failure alarm
Nitrous cut-off or oxygen failure protection device: if oxygen pressure is lost then the other gases can not flow past their regulator
Hypoxic-mixture alarms (hypoxy guards or ratio controllers) to prevent gas mixtures which contain less than 21-25% oxygen being delivered to the patient
Often chain linked (link 25 system). Located on the rotameter assembly, unless electronically controlled.
Ventilator alarms, which warn of low or high airway pressures.
Interlocks between the vaporizers preventing inadvertent administration of more than one volatile agent concurrently
Pin Index Safety System on gas cylinders
Pipeline gas hoses have non-interchangeable Schrader valve connectors, which prevents hoses being accidentally plugged into the wrong wall socket

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277
Q

Ambulatory infusion:

A

An animal is freely moving without need for a tether to connect with the catheter. This is normally only possible with larger animals that can be fitted with jackets to carry an infusion pump and compound reservoir. Totally implanted pumps can sometimes be used in rodents but have size limitations.

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278
Q

Atraumatic:

A

Minimal tissue injury is caused during the procedure

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279
Q

Biocompatibility:

A

Good toleration of implants by animal tissues after implantation.

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280
Q

Biofilm

A

A coating which develops on implanted materials derived from the animal’s own tissue fluids and cells

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281
Q

Catheter/cannula:

A

Flexible tube inserted into body cavities or organs for medical or experimental procedures

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282
Q

Dehiscence:

A

Bursting open or splitting along natural or sutured lines.

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283
Q

Haematogenous spread

A

Spread of microbial infection through the blood stream

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284
Q

Thrombogenic:

A

Property of causing or promoting blood clotting (thrombosis).

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285
Q

Breathing system requirements

A

Supply fresh gas & anaesthetic to patient
Allow removal of carbon dioxide
Allow scavenging
Enable positive pressure ventilation
Easy to use & clean
Inexpensive to buy and use

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286
Q

Re-breathing systems

A

Expired gas is ‘scrubbed’ of CO2
Chemical CO2 absorber
Low fresh gas flow
Economical
Expensive to buy
Large and cumbersome
Conserves heat and moisture
Increases resistance to breathing
Only suitable for larger animals
e.g. > 10 kg
Large animal systems available

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287
Q

formula Working out gas flow requirements for rebreathing systems

A

Minimum requirement is metabolic oxygen demand

                        i.e. 10 ml/ kg/ minute

However, must supply minimum vaporizer flow
e.g.Penlon sigma (sevoflurane) 0.25 Lmin-1

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288
Q

Denitrogenation

A

With any rebreathing system where carrier gas is oxygen
Use higher flows for ~10 minutes- 2l or 3 l per minute
Risk of alveolar hypoxia
N.B also after short disconnections – movement between theatres etc
can also increase to deliver more anethesia

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289
Q

Non-rebreathing systems

A

High gas flow requirements
Loss of heat and moisture
Cheap to purchase, expensive to run
Low resistance to respiration
Suitable for very small patients

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290
Q

formula for Working out gas flow requirements for non rebreathing systems

A

Based on multiples of minute volume, where minute volume is;

                Respiratory rate x Tidal volume

				OR

              	  	200 ml per kg
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291
Q

Magill non rebreathing system

A

Reservoir bag at fresh gas inlet
Awkward to use
1 x Vm (Vm = Vt x RR) or (Vm =200ml/kg)
no ippv

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292
Q

Lack non rebreathing syste

A

Co-axial Magill
1 x minute volume
Damage to inner limb results in rebreathing
no ippv

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293
Q

Mini Lack non rebreathing system

A

Alternative to T-piece for patients under 10 kg
Bodyweight range 1-10kg
1 x minute volume
No bag twist hazard
Very low resistance
Easy to clean smooth bore tubing
no ippv

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294
Q

T-piece

A

Suitable for very small patients, < 8 kg
2-3 x Vm- half as efficent at lck or magill
Suitable for IPPV

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295
Q

Bain non rebreathign system

A

Co-axial T-piece
Suitable for 7 – 10 kg
2- 3 X Vm
Beware – damage to inner tub

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296
Q

Humphrey ADE

A

3 different modes
- lever upright (lack)
- lever down (T-piece)
- circle

Versatile, suitable for 4 kg - >20 kg
Pros
Compact
Well designed
Scavenge at machine end
Straightforward conversion to IPPV (Nb increase flow)
Applies PEEP
Increases FRC
Prevents microatalectasis
Lowers work of breathing in human infants

Cons
Cost
Very heavy – strain on common gas outlet
Flows of 50ml/kg/min in lever up (lack) not substantiated in animals
Relies on 3 human references
Unquantified resistance from inspiratory/expiratory valves
Hoses pinch at valve end and start to crack
Colour codes misleading (S. African)
Excessive (unquantified) mechanical dead space
Surprising lack of veterinary controlled trials

Soda lime canister capacity 690ml
Filled with soda lime capacity 345ml
This intergranular volume falls as anaesthesia progresses as soda lime is used up
Expired volume must not exceed this or expired breath will not be completely scrubbed of carbon dioxide
This leads to maximum limit of 29kg dog with tidal volume of 12ml/kg

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297
Q

Morphology of necrosis

A

Continued swelling and hypereosinophilia

Nuclear changes:
Pyknosis = shrinkage
Karyorrhexis = fragmentation
Karyolysis = dissolution

Inflammation

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298
Q

Pyknosis

A

shrinkage or condensation of a cell with increased nuclear compactness or density

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299
Q

Karyorrhexis

A

the destructive fragmentation of the nucleus of a dying cell whereby its chromatin is distributed irregularly throughout the cytoplasm.

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300
Q

Karyolysis

A

he complete dissolution of the chromatin of a dying cell due to the enzymatic degradation by endonucleases.

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301
Q

Causes of necrosis - anoxia

A

Reduction or cessation of ATP production due to hypoxia or anoxia respectively will result in loss of function on energy-dependent cell pumps: -Na+/K+ pumps
Results in cell swelling due to osmotic pressure
ONCOTIC NECROSIS- Cell swelling is the typical feature and distinguishes it from apoptosis

-Calcium efflux pumps
are also affected
resulting in accumulation of intracellular calcium

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302
Q

describe membrane damage as a Cause of necrosis –

A

Membranes can be directly damaged by:
Pore-forming infectious agents/toxins- One of the best examples of membrane damage by pore-forming toxins are those produced by Clostridium perfringens
Reactive oxygen species (ROS)
Phospholipase activation
Protease activation- cytoseletal damage

Viruses can damage cell membranes as they leave the host cell.
Enveloped viruses require incorporation of host cell membrane to form part of their envelope
Viruses that bud off from the outer cell membrane (retroviruses) do so quietly, leaving an intact host cell
Those that bud from the golgi or RER (flavi, corona, arteri, bunya), and those that bud from nuclear membrane (herpes) lyse the cell as they go
Non-enveloped viruses can also only leave the host cell upon lysis
Additionally, viruses may causes cell lysis due to disruption of the cytocavitary network and other homeostatic mechanisms when they “hijack” intracellular processes for replication
Viruses will also induce apoptosis

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303
Q

how do viruses cause cell membrae damage

A

Viruses can damage cell membranes as they leave the host cell.
Enveloped viruses require incorporation of host cell membrane to form part of their envelope
Viruses that bud off from the outer cell membrane (retroviruses) do so quietly, leaving an intact host cell
Those that bud from the golgi or RER (flavi, corona, arteri, bunya), and those that bud from nuclear membrane (herpes) lyse the cell as they go
Non-enveloped viruses can also only leave the host cell upon lysis
Additionally, viruses may causes cell lysis due to disruption of the cytocavitary network and other homeostatic mechanisms when they “hijack” intracellular processes for replication
Viruses will also induce apoptosis

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304
Q

describe free radicals as a Cause of necrosis –

A

Free radicals are any molecule with a free electron
Reactive oxygen species (ROS) and reactive nitrogen species (NO)
Produced by oxidative metabolism, therefore most frequently made by mitochondria, but will also damage the mitochondria if cannot be removed.
Vitamin E and selenium are important co-factors in the neutralisation of free radicals

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305
Q

Programmed cell death - apoptosis

A

Apoptosis is normal- Embryological, Physiological

May be due to a pathological process:
Organ not receiving stimulus- portosystemic shunt
Cell contains infectious agent
Cell is irreparably damaged
DNA is irreparably damaged
Cell is cancerous

Two main mechanisms of apoptosis
Intrinsic- due to something within the cells. meachanism within the cell tell cellt to die
Extrinsic- more complex. binding of death ligand with cell receptor

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306
Q

morphology of apoptosis compared to necrosis

A

Morphology differs to necrosis:
Cell is shrunken
No/minimal inflammation- only a few inflamatory cells coming to clean up dead cell
Chromatin condensation around nuclear periphery (most characteristic)-
Formation of cytoplasmic blebs = apoptotic bodies as oposed to bursting out as in Karyorrhexis,
Karyolysis

There are different types of programmed cell death

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307
Q

Fresh Gas Flow Calculations

A

• To calculate fresh gas flow calculations we first need to calculate the animals minute volume (MV).
• All our non-rebreathing systems require 1-1.5 or 2-3 times the minute volume to run effectively and efficiently. This is know as the circuit or system factor.
• To calculate the minute volume (MV) we need to know the volume of air inspired or expired in one breath (tidal volume) and over a minute (minute volume)
• Minute Volume (MV) = Tidal Volume (TV) x Respiration Rate (RR)
• Tidal Volume (TV) = 10-15ml/kg
• We then multiply this amount with the system/circuit factor.
• Alternatively, the MV can be estimated using 200ml/kg/min.

fgf= MV x CF

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308
Q

A 4 year old Male Entire Staffordshire Bull Terrier presents at your practice for a dental descale and polish (routine). His Pre-op bloods and physical exam are normal. He weighs 19.8kg.

  1. Which of the following would be a suitable choice of breathing system for this patient? If not, why not?
    a. Bain
    b. Parallel Lack
    c. Circle
    d. T-piece
A

b

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309
Q

Aims of premedication

A

Sedation and anxiolysis (The reduction of anxiety by means of sedation or hypnosis) facilitating handling of the animal
Reduction of the stress for the animal- reduce adrenaline, prevent cardiac problems
Reduction the amount of other anaesthetic agents
Provision of a balanced anaesthesia technique
Provision of analgesia
Counter the effects of other anaesthetic agents to be administered during the anaesthesia procedure e.g. atropine to prevent an opioid mediated bradycardia
Contribute to a smooth, quiet recovery after anaesthesia

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310
Q

ideal Properties of drugs of pre med drugs

A

Reliable sedation and anxiolysis
Have minimal effects on the cardiovascular system
Cause minimal respiratory depression –animals will not be intubated following premedication until induction of anaesthesia, therefore they should breathe spontaneously after premedication
Provide analgesia, e.g. Opioid component
Be antagonisable: The ability to antagonise the effects of premedication may be desirable to hasten recovery from anaesthesia

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311
Q

Alpha2 Adrenoceptor Agonists (Alpha-2s) as premeds

A

Potent sedative and analgesic drugs- keeps patient really sedated. very good for very sick patients post op as anelgesia
Xylazine was the first a2 agonist to be used in veterinary practice
Superseded by medetomidine & dexmedetomidine (cats & dogs), both lasting about 45 minutesas xylazine is assosiated with death
Xylazine (30minutes), detomidine (45 minutes)and romifidine (60 minutes, less ataxia) used in horses- only real difference is leanth of action
Xylazine and detomidine used in cattle- licenced for food animals

The superior selectivity of dexmedetomidine makes it the theoretical a2 agonist of choice for use in small animals

work on alpha 2 receptiors on presynaptic neurons- widly distributed on cns- alpha 2s activate alpha 2 receptors and provides negative feedback and reduces release of neurotransmitor

Sedation is profound & dose related
Alpha 2 agonists provide good analgesia through an agonist effect at spinal cord A2 receptors
The duration of analgesia provided by a 10 µg/kg dose of dexmedetomidine is approximately 1 hour
Intra-op analgesia improved
The dose of induction and maintenance agents required after alpha 2 agonists are dramatically reduced in small animals- be careful of this
Intravenous induction agents must be given slowly and to effect (vein to brain circulation time is slowed)

Alpha 2 agonists produces a biphasic effect on blood pressure (initial increase followed by a return to normal or slightly below normal values)
Heart rate is decreased throughout the period of a2 agonist administration HR 45-60bpm dogs and 100-120 bpm cats
Alpha2agonists cause a reduction in cardiac output & in healthy animals.
Urine production is increased due to a reduction in vasopressin and renin secretion
avoid these drugs in patients with heart issues

Endogenous insulin secretion is reduced leading to a transient hyperglycaemia- do not test for diabetes after administration of these drugs
Both liver blood flow and the rate of metabolism of other drugs by the liver are reduced
Peripheral vasoconstriction tends to reduce peripheral heat loss
As a consequence it can be easier to maintain normothermia during the peri-operative period compared to animals given acepromazine
Small ruminants are quite sensitive to alpha 2 agonists

Alpha 2 sedation and analgesia is rapidly antagonised by the administration of atipamezole, a specific alpha2 adrenergic receptor antagonist- wont always antagonise cardiovascular effects
Reversal is advantageous because the recovery period is noted to be a high risk time for anaesthetic complications
IM atipamezole produces smooth and good quality recoveries
IV atipamezole produces a very rapid, excitable recovery from anaesthesia and this route of administration is not recommended
It is important to ensure that analgesia is supplemented with different classes of drugs
Atipamazole rarely used in horses and cattle

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312
Q

Phenothiazines

A

Acepromazine commonest/only licensed one
Sedation and anxiolysis that is initially dose dependent- less flat out sedation
can last 46 hours- lasts through recovery
With larger doses the duration of action is more prolonged
The quality and reliability of sedation can be improved by combination with an opioid (neuroleptanalgesia)
Addition of an opioid also provides analgesia, advantageous since acepromazine itself is not analgesic
To maximise sedation the animal should be left undisturbed for 30-40 minutes after administration
Less reliable sedation cf dexmedetomidine

Acepromazine (ACP) is an antagonist of a1 adrenoreceptors and can cause peripheral vasodilation and a fall in arterial blood pressure- will bleed more
Avoid in animals with marked cvs disease or animals in shock
Acepromazine is long lasting & non-reversible(!) so avoid in hypotensive animals
Acepromazine has anti-arrhythmic properties which may be advantageous during anaesthesia- decreses central arythmia, very potent at this
Reduction in body temperature occurs due to a resetting of thermoregulatory mechanisms combined with increased heat loss due to peripheral vasodilation

No evidence to suggest that acepromazine alters seizure threshold despite what some say
Giant breeds of dog may be “more sensitive” to the effects of acepromazine
Some boxer dogs are sensitive to even small doses of acepromazine, which has been attributed to acepromazine induced orthostatic hypotension or vasovagal syncope in this breed
Although acepromazine is not contraindicated in boxers, it is not the premedicant of choice in this breed - a very low dose (≤0.01 mg/kg) is recommended and animals should be monitored carefully after administration
Acepromazine is a dopamine antagonist- Anti-emetic
Contraindicated in breeding stallions- causes repro problems
comes in gell for horses and tablet ofr dogs and cats as well as injectable

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313
Q

neuroleptanalgesia

A

combination of opiod and Phenothiazines (ACP)

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314
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Midazolam or diazepam (MA coming for midazolam, diazepam has MA in France)
Benzodiazepines alone produce minimal or no sedation in healthy cats and dogs
May even cause excitation due to loss of learned “inhibitory” behaviour
Benzodiazepines are therefore given in combination with other sedatives
In dogs benzodiazepines often combined with opioids because both classes of drugs are cardiovascularly stable and the combination can provide reliable sedation
In cats benzodiazepine and opioid is not very sedative, so benzodiazepine is most commonly combined with ketamine
These drugs have minor effects on cardiorespiratory systems
Therefore these drugs tend to be used as premedicants in animals with cardiovascular compromise.
Benzodiazepines are commonly used to manage convulsions, particularly as a first line intervention for animals presenting in status epilepticus

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315
Q

Premedication drug combinations (dogs and cats)

A

Acepromazine + opioid
Alpha 2 agonist + opioid
Alpha 2 agonist + BZD
Alpha 2 agonist + Ketamine
BZD + Ketamine
Opioid + BZD
Alpha 2 agonist + BZD + opioid

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316
Q

how to choose premeds for anethesia

A

Reason for anaesthesia or sedation
Duration of sedation required
Procedure to be carried out
Degree of pain expected from the procedure
Species and breed of the patient
Age of the patient
ASA classification of the patient

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317
Q

Injectable Induction,Why choose it?

A

Can be injected:
direct from needle/syringe (IM, SC, IV)
via IV cannula/syringe (IV only)

Renders patient unconscious by drug reaching brain directly via blood - rapid and smooth

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318
Q

Injectable Induction Agents in Common Use – Small Animals

A

Propofol
Alphaxalone
Dissociative agent & benzodiazepine

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319
Q

Inhalant Induction

A

Simple

Choice of agent critical
Speed
Pungency

Not generally recommended – VERY POOR for the patient and associated with higher mortality
distressing for animal

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320
Q

propofol

A

pros- Quick recovery with no hangover
cons-Apnoea if given too quickly

Propofol (‘milk of amnesia’)
Most commonly used anaesthetic in UK (dogs and cats)
Alkyl phenol, white emulsion 10mg/ml
Soyabean oil, glycerol, egg lecithin, no preservative, NaOH (changes pH)
Supports bacteria and endotoxin
Use within 24 hours
A multi-dose vial with preservative was available (‘Propoflo Plus’ – Zoetis) 28d shelf life

Rapid onset of action -rapid uptake by CNS
Short period of unconsciousness (5-10 mins)
Large volume of distribution (lipophilic)
Rapid smooth emergence due to redistribution & efficient metabolism (hepatic and extra hepatic) metabolites inactive
good for patietn swith hepatic problems as it is alos metabolised in the lungs

Respiratory depression (apnoea) - IPPV - Speed of injection should be slow, less needed if given over longer period
Cardiovascular depression
Rapid and smooth recovery
Suitable for top ups or TIVA
Muscle relaxation usually ok- can cause extention and rigisity of legs, wait it out or give muscle relaxant
Anticonvulsant
Not irritant, pain reported
not Analgesic
↓ ICP (patients with raised and normal ICP)

problems-
Rigidity, twitching
Apnoea
Profound bradycardia
Care in hypoproteinaemia
Heinz body anaemia in cats
??? Use for patients with pancreatitis / hyperlipoproteinaemia or diabetic hyperlipidaemia
Pain on injection ?
Local reaction (clear formulation, discontinued)

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321
Q

Alfaxalone

A

Is suitable for cats and dogs (& other spp)
Alfaxalone is a clear colourless neuroactive steroid
Causes anaesthesia by activating the GABA (inhibitory) receptor
has a short plasma elimination half life and is cleared from the body relatively quickly
Alfaxalone can be give as repeated boluses or as TIVA to maintain anaesthesia
Premedication is preferable
Anaesthesia induction is smooth, and the injection is given slowly over 60 seconds.
Occasional apnoea is seen and IPPV may be necessary (more than propofol)

The drug has good cardiovascular stability, causes no histamine release and produces good muscle relaxation

Animals should not be disturbed during recovery as excitement can occur

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322
Q

Dissociative Agents

A

Ketamine (also Tiletamine in Europe/USA)
Weak organic base pH 3.5
Racemic 10% solution (100mg/ml)
IV, IM, SC, IP, PO, epidural
Dissociative state
Used in many species for induction and analgesia

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323
Q

What is ‘dissociative anaesthesia’?

A

Dissociative anaesthesia = detached from surroundings- Patient may have their eyes open and make reflex movements during surgery

In recovery the patient may be agitated- Hallucinations are associated with human ketamine anaesthesia, Can be reduced by premedication with benzodiazepines

Ketamine increases the intracranial pressure- causes rigitity, give other meds along side this

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324
Q

Ketamine

A

Can be combined with BZD, alpha 2 agonists, acepromazine, opioids
Versatile induction agent and wide safety margin
Invariably needs to be combined with something

Rapid induction
Respiratory effects are mixed – bronchodilation and RR usually preserved but my stop!
GOOD ANALGESIA
CVS effects depend on dose
Muscle tone ↑ and jerky movements
Salivation and lacrimation ↑
Ketamine can be diluted with sterile water or physiological saline

Stormy recovery if disturbed or not adequately premedicated
Depth assessment is different (eyes open)
Corneal drying - use ‘Lacrilube’ or similar tears
Vomiting common with alpha 2 combinations avoid in patients with GI obstruction
Avoid in patients with ↑ Intra ocular pressure, ocular surgery, fever, hyperthyroidism

schedual 2 control drugs- records important

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325
Q

MAC

A

Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)

The alveolar concentration (at 1 atm) producing immobility in 50% of patients in response to a noxious stimulus
i.e. Potency

MAC is for healthy, un-premedicated patients

MAC affected by
Age, N2O, hypotension, hypoxia, anaemia, opioids, sedatives , LAs, pregnancy

premeds reduce mac- not nsaids though

MAC not affected by
Stimulation, duration, species, sex, CO2, NSAIDs

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326
Q

Concentration of agent rises in plasma at a rate that depends upon

A

Ventilation
Concentration of agent in carrier gas
Cardiac output (inversely)
Solubility of agent in the body (inversely)- the more soluble the slower the effect

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327
Q

Blood:gas partition coefficient =

A

Solubility
This is the ratio of the amount of anaesthetic in blood and gas when the two phases are of equal pressure and volume
The LESS soluble agents (low coefficient) are washed away less quickly therefore the alveolar concentration rises FASTER

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328
Q

Blood: gas partition coefficient

A

The LESS soluble agents (low coefficient) are washed away less quickly therefore the alveolar concentration rises FASTER

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329
Q

a fat animal will recover from anethesia slower than a thin one. why?

A

Recovery is the reverse of induction, so dependant on blood solubility, redistribution will have occurred into the fat, which then acts as a depot of anaesthetic so (depending on fat solubility) a fat animal will recover slower than a thin one….

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330
Q

ideal anasthetic agent

A

Stable
No preservatives
Non-inflammable
Cheap
Ozone friendly
Non metabolised
Non-toxic
No CVS effects
Analgesic

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331
Q

What are negative effects of inhaled agents?

A

To the animal-
Cardiorespiratory depression
Formation of carbon monoxide with soda lime
(Formation of other toxic gases)

To the anaesthetist-
Little or no evidence apart from nitrous oxide
Bone marrow suppression
Teratogenesis

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332
Q

Nitrous oxide – becoming obsolete (why?)

A

H and S issues
Expensive
Analgesic
Min CVS & resp effects
V high MAC > 100%

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333
Q

Isoflurane

A

Lower solubility
Different CV depression
‘SAFER’ in dog
CEPSAF

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334
Q

summerise the considerations made with anethetic agents

A

Most anaesthetics induced by injection and maintained by an inhalational agent.
Recovery faster with a less soluble agent such as sevoflurane but MAC is higher
MAC is altered in states such as pregnancy and with other drugs
Scavenging is important although little evidence for problems
All inhalants are CV depressants
Evidence supports use of isoflurane over halothane
No data supporting further reduction of risk with sevoflurane

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335
Q

methods other than vapors to maintain anaesthesia

A

TIVA = total intravenous anaesthesia
PIVA = partial intravenous anaesthesia

Often used in horses but increasingly in small animals
Offer environmental advantages

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336
Q

TIVA

A

total intravenous anaesthesia

Can be used for short procedures in small animals/aggressive patients
E.g. ‘quad’ anaesthesia for cat neuters
The Cat Group

Routinely used for field procedures in horses
E.g. ‘GGE, ketamine, alpha-2 agonist – so called triple drip
Various ‘recipes’

GGE (Guaifenesin, a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant with little or no analgesic properties)
Supplied as 5% guaifenesin in 5% dextrose and infused to effect until signs of ataxia are seen, at which time IV bolus of ketamine is given

Maintained with infusion given to effect

However, always remember
Protect the airway – regurgitation risk (which species?)

Supply oxygen

Have a means to ventilate

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337
Q

PIVA

A

partial intravenous anaesthesia
Goals of PIVA
Reduce MAC
Reduce cardiopulmonary depression
Provide additional analgesia
Improve environmental impact

(Improve plane of anaesthesia)

Reduced cardiopulmonary depression, and less inhalant can be used
Analgesia provision
Less pollution & organ toxicity
Improved intra operative conditions
Improved outcome?
We don’t know yet
Evidence based medicine

Cardiopulmonary depression will still occur
Most IV drugs accumulate over time
Additional equipment required

the ideal drug-
MAC reduction
Analgesic
Minimal toxicity
Minimal effects on the body
Short context sensitive half life
Compatible with other drugs

NO single drug meets these requirements
Hence the need for combinations

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338
Q

combinations for PIVA

A

Inhalant+

Lidocaine- Analgesic
MAC reduction (25%)- not for cats !!!

Ketamine-
Often given as boluses during anaesthesia
Ketamine CRI (30% MAC reduction)

Alpha 2 agonists (not licensed as CRIs)- Xylazine, detomidine, medetomidine and dexmedetomidine can be given as small (tiny) boluses
Bradycardia !
Can also be given as CRIs

Opioids – various commonly used

Combinations may be the key
Remember most drugs accumulate over time
Lidocaine + ketamine have been shown to improve cardiovascular stability during isoflurane anaesthesia
Many combinations are possible and again we must used evidence based medicine to recommend the recipes

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339
Q

what can be measured on a monitor during anesthesia

A

Capnograph- The term capnography refers to the noninvasive measurement of the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) in exhaled breath expressed as the CO2 concentration over time.
Blood pressure
ECG
Pulse oximeter
Cardiac output

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340
Q

What Should We Monitor in a patient under anesthesia?

A

CNS depression- Eye position, jaw tone, EEG, BIS, etAA

Physiology and homeostasis-
Respiratory: Oesophageal stethoscope, capnograph, pulse oximeter
Cardiovascular : Blood pressure (MAP), pulse, ECG

Delivery of oxygen = how much oxygen is being carried to the tissues by how much blood pressure

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341
Q

Temperature under anesthesia

A

Anaesthetised, sedated and critical patients unable to regulate temperature

Measure temperature using rectal thermometer (may under read) or oesophageal thermoprobe (gold standard)

Core-periphery differences

Use bubble wrap, socks, hot water beds, lamps, low flow anaesthesia, warm theatre, heated pads, blankets, themovents/HMEs
Temperature affects many aspects of anaesthesia
Increased pain
Increased wound infections
Delayed recovery

Core temperature support?-
Consider warm saline irrigation
Circle systems (rebreathing system)
Consider warm water enemas

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342
Q

Hypothermia during anaesthesia

A

Temperature falls due to
Reduced shivering
Vasodilation
Reset thermoneutral point- opiods
Open body cavity
Cold gases
Dry gases
Wetting and prep

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343
Q

monitoring pule during anethesia

A

Use peripheral pulses
Get used to palpating pulses at different sites
Femoral artery
Dorsal metatarsal artery
Lingual artery
Auricular artery
Compare dorsal metatarsal artery and femoral artery
With hypotension dorsal metatarsal artery disappears

use fingertips to locate artery

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344
Q

Pulse Oximetry

A

Displays percentage oxygen saturation of haemoglobin

Accuracy is affected by
poor circulation (common in critical patients)
ambient light
movement of the probe
chow-chows

Limitations- High/low heart rates
Probe design

Useful post-op
saturating on room air?

Early warning?

Cyanosis – crude estimation

But ‘On a cliff edge

How is the haemoglobin saturation SPO2% (reading from pulse oximeter) related to PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in the blood)?

Oxygen content is dependent on both SaO2 and PaO2

Oxygen content
= (1.39 x Hb x SPO2%) + (0.003 x PaO2)

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345
Q

SPO2%

A

the haemoglobin saturation

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346
Q

PaO2

A

amount of oxygen disolved in the plasma
drives SPO2%

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347
Q

Cyanosis

A

not enough oxygen in the blood
Hb of 15g/dL (PCV 45%)
Cyanosis may start to manifest at SpO285% - no other signs
Haemoglobin of 9 g/dL (PCV 27%)
The threshold SaO2 level for cyanosis is lowered to about 73% (PaO2 38 mm Hg), the patient would certainly have other signs

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348
Q

Oxygen Content

A

Blood gas analysis-
pH
HCO3
PCO2
PO2

Arterial blood gases- the most accurate
Capnography – a good alternative for (PACO2)

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349
Q

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

A

ECG analysis does not give information about the mechanical activity of the heart
Important for arrhythmia diagnosis and monitoring response to treatment
Various arrhythmias may be seen

Tachycardia (sinus) may be the result of
Nociception- pulling on ovaries
Hypercapnia
Hypovolaemia
Hypokalaemia
And many more…

ECG may show characteristic changes depending on the underlying cause

Bradycardia (less common)
Drugs (e.g. alpha-2 agonists, opioids)
Hypothermia
Electrolyte disturbances e.g. severe hyperkalaemia

Knowledge of the patient is vital to determine treatment;

Alpha-2 agonist-induced bradycardia with second degree AV blocks
treatment is antagonism of the original dose

Opioid-induced bradycardia
treatment is the administration of an anticholinergic (contraindicated following alpha-2 agonist administration)

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350
Q

Capnography

A

Capnography (carbon dioxide measurement) conveys information relating to both respiratory and cardiac function

The end tidal carbon dioxide concentration is measured from the alveolar plateau and should remain constant with unchanged ventilation and cardiac output

Main-stream (measured directly in the box) and side-stream machines (measured via a water trap are available

need to be scavenged from!

Normal ET CO2 = 35–45 mm Hg
Hyperventilation – Decreased ETCO2
Hypoventilation - Increased ETCO2

obstructive pattern- sharks fin pattern:
asthma
kinked endotrachial tube

not reaching baseline- rebreathing:
sodalime has run out
non rebreathing apperatus has inadiquate flow

Other indicators
Oesophageal intubation
Leak at cuff/Patient disconnection
Adequacy of resuscitation

Normal variation – cardiac oscillations

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351
Q

Arterial Blood Pressure Monitoring methods

A

Non-invasive blood pressure (NIBP) monitoring, sphygmomanometry, oscillometric ( & HDO)

Doppler

Invasive blood pressure monitoring

Finger on pulse?
NO (Systolic 90-150 feels the same)

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352
Q

Monitoring Blood Pressure- Doppler

A

Set up takes a few minutes
Piezoelectric crystal placed over artery (clip fur, use gel)
Locate artery with distinct noise of arterial pulse
Cuff placed proximal to probe
Cuff size must be accurate
Audible signal v useful
Systolic pressure only (cats?)

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353
Q

Non-invasive blood pressure (NIBP) monitoring- oscillometric

A

Cuff size must be accurate- must go 1/3 of the way around
small cuff size makes reading high- large cuf size makes reading low
Unreliable in cats & small dogs
Quite expensive
More accurate methods available
High definition oscillometric devices– the future?, fast can cope with high HR & poor perfusion but clinically poor

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354
Q

Invasive blood pressure monitoring- Artery cannulation

A

Direct arterial pressure via an arterial cannula “gold standard”

Usually placed in the dorsal pedal artery
Auricular and facial arteries also used

Cannula is attached via saline-filled non-distensible tubing to an electrical transducer which gives continuous ‘beat to beat’ diastolic, mean and systolic arterial pressures
Must label cannula, line & flush regularly (hep saline)

Never inject any other drugs

Tubing must be narrow bore and non-compliant to amplify signal

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355
Q

Causes of decreased blood pressure include

A

Intravascular fluid loss (haemorrhage, third space losses)
Failing myocardial function
Sepsis
Relative hypovolaemia (vasodilation – drugs/sepsis)

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356
Q

determining renal perfusion

A

Although blood pressure monitoring is important it does not tell us directly about organ perfusion

Assessing urine output may be of equal value in determining renal perfusion
Aim for 1-2ml/kg/hr intraoperatively

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357
Q

treatment of Hypothermic patient with bradycardia and low blood pressure

A

Anticholinergic treatment and warming to raise heart rate and subsequently blood pressure

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358
Q

treatment of Septic patient with tachycardia but poor blood pressure

A

Intravenous fluid therapy to improve status

Patients with advanced sepsis require pressor support
Noradrenaline
Dopamine
Phenylephrine

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359
Q

Central Venous Pressure (CVP)

A

Used as an approximation of right atrial filling pressure (late guide) but of limited clinical value in anaesthesia
?Acts as a guide to correct fluid therapy (late guide)
May aid in detection of tricuspid valve problems

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360
Q

Central Nervous System Monitoring

A

Aims -Adequate ‘depth’ for procedure undertaken

Electroencephalogram (EEG)
Experimentally – Bispectral index (BIS)

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361
Q

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

A

Raw signal data
Spectral edge frequency
Auditory evoked potentials
Very limited clinical value

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362
Q

Anaesthesia Recovery

A

The process of allowing a patient to regain consciousness after anaesthesia
Recovery is the most common time for an anaesthetic-related death

Recovery Involves-
inhalant- Turn off inhalant.

Remain on oxygen.

Allow inhalant to be breathed off.

injectable-Turn off infusion/stop top-ups.

Drugs are metabolised/re-distributed.

Goal of recovery is to ensure patients return to the physiological norm as quickly as possible
Key points:
Heat loss leading to hypothermia

Extubation
Only perform when patient can swallow and has control of airway
Care with brachycephalic breeds

IV access
Leave cannular in for 1 hour after patient appears stable for patients not on longer term IV fluids

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363
Q

causes and solutions to prolonged recovery

A

Hypothermia
Excessive pre-med use
Patient too deep during maintenance
Hypoglycaemia
Choice of inhalant
Choice of induction agent

solutions-
Heat supplementation
Reconsider premed use
Closer monitoring to give as little anaesthetic as possible
IV fluids
Use faster acting inhalant
Use shorter acting induction agent

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364
Q

causes and solutions of airway instructions

A

Debris or gauze left
after dental procedures
Body fluids eg vomit,
blood

solutions-
Clear oral cavity then extubate after patient gains control of swallow reflex

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365
Q

causes and solutions of agitated recovery

A

Inadequate use of premeds or analgesics

solutions-
Reconsider premed and analgesic protocol and dose rates

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366
Q

Recovery in BOAS Patients

A

Sedation (acepromazine followed by alpha-2 agonist or vice versa)
Don’t forget analgesia (NSAIDS* +/- opioids)
*caution if steroids
Oxygen supplementation
Monitoring plan

Leave IV cannula in situ

Check for regurgitation prior to extubation

EXTUBATE LATE - after the head is raised
Very well tolerated!
Be prepared to re-intubate
Have a full dose of induction agent ready
Tracheostomy

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367
Q

When to re-intubate?

A

SPO2 consistently low on room air
If reading 80 something then consider oxygen / re-intubation

Pulling tongue out assists readings
Obvious effort/distress
Cyanosis
Paradoxical breathing

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368
Q

Post operative analgesia

A

Untreated pain leads to;

Chronic pain states
Wound infection
Wound breakdown and interference
Occasional reports of diabetes mellitus
Catabolic states (insulin resistance)
Welfare concerns
Unhappy owners

Will anything given pre or intraoperatively last into recovery period?

What is the predicted degree of pain post operatively?

Is it a requirement that the animal is fully conscious rapidly post operatively ?

Is a slower recovery required?

What is the preferred route of administration?

Enteral – oral , rectal, transmucosal

Parentral – intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, transdermal

How long is the predicted length of analgesic requirement?

Intermittent bolus

Continuous rate infusion

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369
Q

How Can We Apply Local Anaesthetic Techniques in addition to general anethesia?

A

Somatic infiltration generally reliable & safe
Multiple intradermal (or s/c) injections
Usually administered in sedated/anaesthetised animals
Lidocaine spray – ‘Intubeaze’ (2%)
Lidocaine jelly (2%) for catheterising the urethra
Lidocaine & prilocaine cream (EMLA) useful for IV cannula placement
Proparacaine 0.5% and butacaine 2% topical on cornea (10-20 minutes)

can improve recovery

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370
Q

How Do We Use Local Anaesthetic?

A

Intravenous route- Only use lidocaine IV
More benefit in soft tissue pain??
Can be used in both dogs and horses
Decreases MAC and reduces opioid requirements
Can also be useful post-op
AVOID in cats- very sensitive

Somatic infiltration generally reliable & safe
Multiple intradermal (or s/c) injections
Usually administered in sedated/anaesthetised animals
Lidocaine spray – ‘Intubeaze’ (2%)
Lidocaine jelly (2%) for catheterising the urethra
Lidocaine & prilocaine cream (EMLA) useful for IV cannula placement
Proparacaine 0.5% and butacaine 2% topical on cornea (10-20 minutes)

Small animals
Splash blocks
Epidurals
Dental blocks
Limb nerve blocks
Intraoperative articular blocks

Farm animals
Cornual block
Caudal epidural
Inverted L-block
IVRA
Paravertebral

Horses
Diagnostic nerve blocks
Epidural
Eye and dental blocks
Intraoperative + intraarticular

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371
Q

small animal anesthetic techniques

A

Splash blocks
Epidurals
Dental blocks
Limb nerve blocks
Intraoperative articular blocks

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372
Q

Farm animals anesthetic techeniques

A

Cornual block
Caudal epidural
Inverted L-block
IVRA
Paravertebral

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373
Q

Horse anesthetic techniques

A

Diagnostic nerve blocks
Epidural- caudal
Eye and dental blocks
Intraoperative + intraarticular

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374
Q

Local Blocks

A

Revise anatomy!
Place local anaesthetic in region of the nerve
Nerve Location Techniques- Nerve stimulator, Ultrasound of femoral triangle

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375
Q

Head/Dental Blocks

A

infraorbital n.- upper lip, nose, roof of nose, skin rosral to canal

maxillary n. - maxilla, upper teeth, nose upper lip

rigeminal n.- akinesia of globe, desensitises eye and orbit

mental n,- lower lip, incisors

mandibular n.- mandible, teeth, akin, mucosa

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376
Q

Infraorbital Block

A

upper lip, nose, roof of nose, skin rosral to canal

Transbuccal
Transdermal
Place needle into canal

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377
Q

Maxillary Block

A

Tmaxilla, upper teeth, nose upper lip

ransorbital approach
Transdermal approach
Ventral to notch in zygomatic arch
Transmucosal – cannula into infra-orbital canal

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378
Q

Mental Block

A

lower lip, incisors

Mandibular nn
Mental foramen

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379
Q

Mandibular Block

A

Medial mandible
Just rostral to angular process
Or transmucosal – medial aspect mandible

mandible, teeth, akin, mucosa

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380
Q

Ophthalmic Blocks

A

Auriculopalpebral
Supraorbital
3 point
Petersen block
Retrobulbar

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381
Q

Forelimb Blocks

A

Brachial plexus
Median
Radial and ulnar
(RUMM block)
Digital

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382
Q

Hindlimb Nerve Blocks

A

Sciatic
Femoral
Tibial
Fibular
Digital

Motor- ok in small animals but bad in large animals- flighty horse will be stressed by loss of use of limbs
Sensory

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383
Q

Forelimb Blocks

A

Brachial plexus
Median
Radial and ulnar
(RUMM block)
Digital

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384
Q

Intercostal Blocks

A

Useful for:
Rib fractures & flail chests
Chest drains
Thoracic surgery

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385
Q

‘Soaker’ Cathetersv

A

Useful for analgesia for total ear canal ablations (TECA), limb amputations & extensive reconstructive surgery
Relatively large bore (6-12 French) catheters with very tiny holes
Allow distribution of local anesthetic into the surgical site
Placed just before closing incision and secured to the skin at the end of the surgery

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386
Q

Intravenous Regional Anaesthesia (IVRA)

A

Esmarch bandage applied and tourniquet proximal
After removal of the bandage 0.25-0.5% lidocaine (2.5mg-5mg/kg) injected using a vein distal to tourniquet
Tourniquet can be left in place for up to 90 minutes
Used in conjunction with GA or heavy sedation
Common in cattle -digit amputation

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387
Q

Paravertebral Anaesthesia

A

Predominantly used in farm animals – traditionally!
Inject L.A around spinal nerves emerging from vertebral canal

Advantages
Desensitizes large area
Good muscle relaxation - motor
Reduced I/abdominal pr
?simple/quick
Less L.A required than infiltration

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388
Q

Epidural Analgesia

A

Indications

Abdominal and hind quarter surgery in small animals under light GA

Post operative analgesia

Standing surgery in farm animals and horses

Post operative analgesia for above surgeries or injuries

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389
Q

Caudal Epidural Analgesia

A

Commonest technique in large animals
Inject slowly over 5-10sec
Iml/100kg 2% lidocaine
Max effect in 10 min - lasts c. 60 min

Useful in small animals – tail amputations, perineal surgery

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390
Q

Epidural Analgesia Complications

A

Accidental vascular injection
Haematoma formation
Subarachnoid injection
Infection
Hypotension
Respiratory depression due to cephalad spread

Nerve damage
Pruritis
Urinary retention
Motor dysfunction
Hypothermia

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391
Q

Supporting Anaesthetised Patients

A

Influence on outcome – evidence base
Ethical considerations
Common sense….

Supporting oxygenation: Indications
During all anaesthetics
Pre-induction
Recovery

Increased FIO2-
Methods
Flow by
Intranasal
Intratracheal
Tracheostomy
Incubator
Mask

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392
Q

Hypothermia during anaesthesia:

A

Hypothermia causes
Increased pain
Wound infection
Delayed recovery

Temperature falls due to
Reduced shivering
Vasodilation
Reset thermoneutral point
Behavioural modification
Open body cavity
Cold gases
Dry gases
Wetting and prep

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393
Q

Core temperature support

A

Active warming
Minimise heat loss
Circle systems (rebreathing system)
Pre-clip
Warm environment
Minimise wetting
Aim for short anaesthesia time
Drug choices?

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394
Q

Support of renal function during anesthesia

A

Fluids during anaesthesia
5 x maintenance.. Why?
10ml/kg/hr dogs (less for cats)
Estimated output 1-2ml/kg/hr
Measurement
Volume - use of collection systems
specific gravity

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395
Q

Minimal Support for anesthesia

A

Baseline monitoring
Oesophageal stethoscope
Finger on pulse
Ventilation rate
Monitoring record (BP, capnography, temperature)
Fluids and intravenous access
Oxygen
Analgesia

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396
Q

what breathing system would you use on a 5 kilo patient

A

a tpiece if you neet to ippv
a lack if not

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397
Q

what breathing system would you use on a 10 kilo or above patient

A

a rebreathing system
effiecine with lower flows
cant be used for patients lees than ten kilos due to valve and sodalime- resistance

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398
Q

minute volume (MV)

A

the volume breathed per miniute
on average this is 200ml per kg

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399
Q

risks of equine GA

A

duration of anesthesia corellates with increased risk
difficult to manage after and hour and a half

factors that effect duration:
-caseload
-skill of surgeon and staff
- current condition of surgeon and staff- time of day or week, have they had a break

why increased risk-
big
flighty
cardiopulmanory depression- nit designed to lie down
- experience with anesthesia- horse thats experienced it before is more acoustomed to it

specific risks- cardiac arrest, fracture (esspecially of a long bone- mares who have recetly had foals most at risk)

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400
Q

feild equine anesthesia

A

minor procedures
castration, sacrcoid removals ect

Total Intreveneous Anesthesia- TIVA

extra boluses of ketamine to maintain anesthesia

check the feild- stones, watercourses, batteries, holes, slopes, type of fence (barbed wire)- anything that could injusre horse as it goes down

draw up all drugs and palce iv cannula- get all equipment ready

fit horse with padded head collar

have help and a plan

administer drugs and induce anesthesia

position horse- if horse in lateratl, bottom forelimb forward, hind limbs parallel

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401
Q

hospital equine anesthesia

A

more majour surgery
horse is intubated-same as small animals but cannot visulise the larynx- use gag
endoscope up the nares could be used

dorsal recumbancy is maintianed when using oxygen in isofurane

monitor as usual

pre-oxygen rarly tolerated but used in very sick cases

theater equipmetn must be checked- hoist, inflatable beds

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402
Q

equine premed

A

aim is to produce a horse sedate enough for ketamine
could use propofol but requires large amount

healthy horses ofter recive acp intramuscularly- only drug assosiated with improved outcome- not good for colic due to vasodilation

iv jugular canula- want to place on uppermost side depending on surgery

alpha 2 agonists also used-
xylazine- quick acting, can top up, good for colics
romifodine- takes 5 to 10 mins, longest acting, less ataxia, could take too long. lasts 45 mins,
detomidine- interediate, lasts 45 mins, small volumes

can tell sedation by knocking on sinuses or indeifference to lip being touched

GGe- used in horses not healthy enough for an Alpha 2 (specifically for cardiovascular problems)- muscle relaxant
infuse IV until horse is “knuckling then give etamine and microdose of APHA 2

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403
Q

equine induction agents

A

ketamine-
dissociative
good anesthesia
must not be used alone- causes sezures
eyes remain open and central
can be used as top ups (dont exceed induction dose)- every 10-20 mins
takes 2 mins to go down
use head to guide which side horse goes down in

Used in combination with acepromazine, alpha 2 agonists, BZDs or guaifenesin (GGE)

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404
Q

give an example of the “recipe” for a GA eqine feild induction

A

ACP- wait 30-45 mins
detomidien IV- wait 5 mins, check heart rate (> 20 BPM), chek for adiquate sedation

diazepam/ katamine iv for induction

ketamine iv top ups every 8-15 mins or triple drip (GGE, Ketamine, Alpha 20
add 1/4 doese detomidine after 4/5 doses i using katamine alone

with ketamine continue to give top ups of alpha 2

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405
Q

problems suring equine anesthesia

A

arterial blood pressure
low PO2
high CO2- vetilate patient
bradycardia- common
tachycardia- rare
aponea
pain
movment
poor recovary

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406
Q

methods of equine hospital recovery

A

free recovery
rope recovery

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407
Q

anaesthesia of ruminents

A

licenced drugs for food animals must be considered
many orocedures done standing
usually achived via iv (calves cna be masked)
diffucult cows may drink chloral hydrate

iv cannula placment??

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408
Q

intubation of ruminents

A

small ruminents -direct visulisation
larger ruminents- intubated by palpation, developed skill
cuffed tubes- regurgitation risk! rumenants have a rumen!!!

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409
Q

induction of anesthesia in pigs

A

deep im (just behind ear- dont go into back or hindlimb), iv or mask with inhalant

ketamine, alfaxalone, propofol
ketamine combinations

malignant hyperthermia- rare condition of pigs. after exposure to inhalant, rapidly fatal- can be treated with drug

intubation is challenging- larynx is complex

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410
Q

anasthetic risk for rabbits

A

difficult to intubate- lidocane needed, big fleshy tounge
difficult to handle
lack of familiarity
sublinical disease
small lungs
prone to hypothermia

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411
Q

rabbit premed

A

if in doubt go low with dose
buprenorphine- 30 40 mins to peak if given Im

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412
Q

maintanence and monitoring or rabbits

A

difficult to monitor depth

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413
Q

gi support of rabbuts for anestheisa

A

gut stasis big killer

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414
Q

Why do we Encounter Dysrhythmias?

A

Older/sick patients
Multiple underlying conditions

Cardiovascular depression
Vasoactive drugs (which?), inhaled anaesthetic agents (effects?)
Hypothermia
Fluid loss

Overstimulation
Nociception

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415
Q

ECG triangle

A

lead 2 (left leg)- standard lead, most diryhtmias recorded in
lead 1(right arm)
lead 3(left leg)

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416
Q

ecg wave

A

p wave- atrial depolarisation
qrs complex- ventricular depolarisation
t wave- repolarisation of ventricals

qrs complex is bigger as it is a cordinated movmemt involving punjinke fibres. t wave is doen by individual myocytes

st segment should be at same level as baselinw but is often below- indicates myocardial hypoxia

a big q wave could mean a thickened intraventricular septum

ecg does not tell you anything about the pulse- Pulseless electrical activity can occur- electrical activity without actual beat of the heart

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417
Q

st segment depression indicates…

A

myocardial hypoxia

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418
Q

Dysrhythmia Interpretation

A

What is the rate

What is the overall rhythm

Is there a P for every QRS

Is there a QRS for every P

Are there aberrant (usually ventricular) complexes

What do the monitors tell you about the patient?

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419
Q

Sinus arrhythmia

A

Perfectly normal rhythm

Often seen in fit anaesthetised patients

Sign of high vagal tone?
Be careful of procedures that stimulate vagus such as ocular surgery

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420
Q

(1st degree) and 2nd Degree A-V Block

A

Occasional p waves with no QRS
Common to see

Can be caused by vagal stimulation or very ‘deep’ anaesthesia

Can be idiopathic

Commonly as a result of alpha-2 agonists
Very rarely HIGH dose opioids

Will be heard as missed heartbeats

Treatment?- do you need to?-
Is treatment necessary?
How would you decide?

If necessary, antagonise the alpha-2 agonist (or administer naloxone?)
Problem with this?

Decrease anaesthetic depth

If still no response and reduced cardiac output?
Consider atropine/glycopyrrolate

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421
Q

3rd degree AV block

A

P waves and qrs doing own thing
Artial pacemaker cells and avn are not working in sync
Impulse not originating in avn

REAL PROBLEM

Treatment while under anesthesia– Stop further deterioration, ensure all other parameters are normal- depth of anesthesia ect

pacemaker can be places

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422
Q

Atrail Fibrilation and ventricular ectopic

A

Gap of complexes different
Height of complexes different
No pause after ventricles contract

worring!!!
ventricular ectopic-electric signals in the heart starting in a different place and travelling a different way through the heart.

Treatment?

Stop further deterioration, ensure all other parameters are normal
Recover asap, ?amiodarone
Then cardiology
Rate control if there is underlying heart disease – medical mx
Electrical DC cardioversion may be an option

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423
Q

Ventricular premature complexes (VPCs) plus compensatory pause

A

Fairly regular but with a few ventricular ectopic beats- strange and occasional variation in size of qrs complex
Is the pause good or bad?

Treatment?

Check physiology – often due to hypoxia or hypercapnia. Sometimes low blood pressure
Add analgesia – may be due to nociception
Possible lidocaine if becoming frequent

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424
Q

Ventricular tachycardia (V tach)

A

Some normal beats
Others wide, abnormal ventricular beats

Ventricular tachycardia (V tach)

Often a deterioration of SVT – treat underlying cause
Often as a result of sepsis or a major underlying condition

May deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation (often fatal)

Treatment = underlying cause, lidocaine, amiodarone, magnesium
Ensure all other parameters normal

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425
Q

Ventricular escape

A

Triphasic qrs
Actually quite normal
Ventriclas are firing to restart normal rhythm

Would you treat this?
Possible due to alpha-2 agonists or high dose opioids?

What would you do?
Treat cause otherwise ensure all other physiology is normal- probebly no nead to treat

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426
Q

Whatever the Cause of abnomal ECGs, you should always

A

Apply First Principles..
Check physiological parameters and correct if possible
Oxygen, carbon dioxide, temperature, heart rate

External factors and correct if possible
Blood loss, surgery, nociception, drug reaction (contrast for example)

Antagonise drugs (or add more – nociception)

Finish surgery as soon as possible – into ICU

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427
Q

Imaging Modalities for imaging the thorax:

A

Radiography
Widely available
Non-invasive
Time and cost-efficient

Ultrasonography (echocardiography- imaging the heart)
Complementary
First choice for cardiac disease
no good if lungs are full of air

Computed Tomography (CT)
Where radiography and US fail
Higher sensitivity

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428
Q

Assess technical quality

A

Positioning
Centring/Collimation
Exposure factors
(Inspiratory)
Labelling
No Artefacts

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429
Q

Restraint
methods for imaging the thorax

A

Chemical
General Anaesthesia-
Avoids voluntary patient movement
Allows control of respiratory movement
Facilitates good oxygenation
Increased atelectasis of the dependent lung

Sedation-
Safer if suspect CVS or pleural disease e.g. butorphanol
Can lead to respiratory depression (so monitor and flow by O2)
No control of respiration

Physical restraint alone – does not mean manual restraint
Difficult to get good quality images
Rabbit burrito/cats in resp distress in a box can work well.

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430
Q

how do you decide which views to take on a radiograph

A

A minimum of 2 orthogonal views
Beyond that – case dependent!
Routine (inc cardiac) cases – RL and DV
Screening for metastases RL + LL + VD/DV
Specific lung pathology – RL + LL + VD
Appearance unclear on one lateral and DV/VD – take the other lateral

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431
Q

taking a right lateral view

A

Right lateral preferred
Cardiac silhouette position more consistent
Diaphragm obstructs less lung field
More lung between cardiac silhouette and thoracic wall

Position:
Right lateral recumbency
legs secured cranially, neck extended
foam wedge to prevent rotation

Centering/Collimation
Centre beam slightly caudal to caudal border of scapula
Collimate to thoracic inlet, thoracic spine, sternum and diaphragm (cranial abdomen)

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432
Q

taking a ventral dorsa/ dorsal ventral view

A

DV/VD centring/collimation
Ensure symmetrical positioning with spine and sternum superimposed (to avoid axial rotation)
Centre beam in midline, at level of caudal border of scapula
Collimate to thoracic inlet, diaphragm and body wall (skin edges) – unless investigation requires otherwise.

vd
Heart rotates to one side and distorts shadow
May produce better pulmonary detail
Can see more of the lung fields

dv
Safer in dyspnoeic patient
Heart lies in anatomically correct position – easier to interpret cardiac silhouette

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433
Q

Timing of exposure when imaging the thorax

A

Aim for peak inspiration:
Diaphragmatic line straight dorsally – T12/13

Expiration:
Diaphragmatic line domed, increased contact with CS
– T10/11

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434
Q

Avoiding movement blur when imaging the thorax

A

Good restraint
Good radiographic technique
Exposure time - High kV / low mAs technique
Relevant to film radiography
Low mAs minimises exposure time
High kV reduces the high contrast appearance of the thorax
Less relevant with digital radiography
Use a grid if thickness > 10cm
Controls scattered radiation
Timing of the exposure
At peak inspiration
May need to use the expiratory pause in a conscious panting animal

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435
Q

Radiopacities

A

The five basic densities:
Metal – White (all x-rays absorbed – most opaque)radiopaque
Bone – nearly white
Soft tissue/Fluid – mid grey
Fat – dark grey
Gas – very dark/black (few x-rays absorbed – most lucent)- radiolucent

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436
Q

Border obliteration​

A

How visible is the border of the structure being evaluated?​

Structures of the same opacity which are in contact will appear as one shadow​

Border obliteration​
(silhouette sign or border effacement​)

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437
Q

Mass effect

A

Displacement of structures due to adjacent space-occupying lesions

e.g. fluid or mass

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438
Q

Interpretation of thoratic Radiology

A

1.Assess technical quality (Pink Camels..)

  1. Assess the respiratory system
  2. Assess the cardiac silhouette
  3. Assess everything except the heart and lungs

General Principles:
Be consistent!
Ensure you evaluate:
Thoracic boundaries
Pleural space
Lower airways and lung fields
Mediastinum
Heart and blood vessels

Always ask:
Is the radiographic diagnosis consistent with clinical findings?
Is the quality of the radiograph adequate to permit a confident radiographic diagnosis?

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439
Q

Roentgen Signs

A

Number
Location
Size
Shape
Margination
Radiopacity

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440
Q

Pulmonary Vasculature on imaging

A

Normal vasculature
Normal pulmonary vessels are clearly visible in central and middle zones
Vessels taper towards the periphery
In lateral view
Artery is dorsal to bronchus and vein
Veins are ventral to bronchus and artery
In DV view
Veins are medial to arteries
so.. veins are ventral and central

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441
Q

Lung Patterns on imaging

A

Lung disease
different characteristic radiological appearances depending on which component of the lung is affected.
Known as lung patterns:
Bronchial
Alveolar
Vascular
Interstitial
Diffuse
Nodular

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442
Q

lung varitation Dogs vs Cats

A

In dogs, caudodorsal lungs very close to spine, right up to the tip
In cats, diverge slightly from the spine around caudal T11/cr T12 due to the larger sublumbar muscles

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443
Q

Cardiac Silhouette

A

Assess the cardiac silhouette

Generalised enlargement
Individual chamber enlargement:
left atrium
right atrium
Left ventricle
Right ventricle

Change in great vessels

VD​
Diaphragm often appears as 3 ‘humps’​
Distance between diaphragm & heart is greater than for DV​
Better visualisation of accessory lobe​
Gas should be in the pylorus​
Right and ventral​

DV​
Diaphragm appears as a single dome​
Gas should be in the fundus​
Left and dorsal​

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444
Q

Normal Heart Size - Cat

A

Cat - Normal width (DV)
< 2/3 width of thorax
Normal short axis (lateral)
= cranial 5th rib to caudal 7th rib
Normal long axis (lateral)
2/3 height of thorax

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445
Q

Vertebral Heart Scores

A

Leanghth + Width = VHS
Normal values:
Dog = 8.5 – 10.5
Cats = 7.5

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446
Q

Pericardial Effusion on imaging

A

Cardiac silhouette grossly enlarged
Globoid appearance
Ultrasound = sensitive indicator!

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447
Q

Pneumothorax on imaging

A

Lung retraction from thoracic wall
Space between heart and sternum

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448
Q

Example recipe for GA Hospital

A

Acepromazine im, wait approx 30-45 minutes

Detomidine iv, wait 5 minutes, HR>20 bpm, adequate sedation must be apparent

Diazepam/ketamine iv for induction (can use ketamine alone)

Intubate, maintain on isoflurane in oxygen

Monitor depth, keep ABP > 70mmHg, and PCO2 <60mmHg IPPV if necessary. Sedate for recovery

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449
Q

Achieving a secure airway in a rabbit

A

Obligate nasal breather
need to disengage the soft palate from the epiglottis to visualise larynx

Big fleshy tongue
Narrow gape
cheeks
VERY sensitive larynx
I always use lidocaine spray prior to an ETT

Depth Test - jaw tone??, tongue withdrawal (care), cough when local applied to larynx. Breath holding vs apnoea.

Raise the head and extend the neck to disengage the soft palate
Ideally visualise the larynx to intubate the patient
apply local to larynx
otoscope/laryngoscope
slightly curved ET tube, no cuff
~1 mm diameter for every kg bw

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450
Q

Right parasternal long-axis view

A

obtained with the transducer in the parasternal window with the transducer index mark pointed toward the patient’s right shoulder (10 o’clock) in the third or fourth intercostal space.

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451
Q

Depth of an ultrasound

A

this adjusts the field of view (the real-time image should fill the field)

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452
Q

Gain of an ultrasound

A

power (high gain = white image)

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453
Q

Sector Width of an ultrasound

A

(the smaller the sector angle, the faster the frame rate and the higher the resolution of the real-time image)
Sector width affects frame rate.
The narrower the width, the higher the frame rate.

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454
Q

Focus of an ultrasound

A

make sure you place the focal point at the depth level of interest on the image

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455
Q

Right-sided ultrasound views – why do we want them?

A

Subjective assessment of chamber size and systolic function

Evaluate the mitral and tricuspid valves

Measure chamber size (particularly the left ventricle and left atrium)*

Evaluate some measurements of systolic function

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456
Q

How to perform a basic echo exam

A

PREPARATION
clip fur
dont sedate when posible
ECG trace – don’t worry about where your ECG clips are. You just want the timing intervals.
Remember your cardiac cycles.
Beginning of the QRS is end-diastole.
End of the T wave is end-systole.

Choose the correct transducer according to patient size.
Palpate the apex beat prior to scanning.
POSTURE – avoid twisting to look at the screen. Use an arm rest. Try to relax and DON’T PRESS TOO HARD! Use more gel….takes a few minutes to soak in.
Try to ultrasound as many patients as possible to get a good technique and develop consistency. PRACTISE!
Understand cardiac pathophysiology well.

make sure image fills screen

obtain Right Parasternal Long-axis Four Chamber View- asses systolic function: Interventricular septum, Interatrial septum, Mitral valve

Watch the left ventricle contract

turn thumb and tip probe till left ventrical is curcular- Right Parasternal Short-axis View (papillary muscle level)

tip transducer upwards ot visulise mitral valve- fish mouth view

tilt it further to visulise the aortic valve

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457
Q

Measurements – How to Make Them on an echocardiogram

A

As a general rule, measurements should be taken from 3 cardiac cycles then averaged.

Most importantly, ensure that the view is correct and well aligned before taking any measurements. It is best not to make measurements if your image is substandard.

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458
Q

Fractional Shortening

A

FS (%) = (LVDd – LVDs)/ LVDd

LVDd=Left ventricular internal diameter during diastole

LVDs=Left ventricular internal diameter during systole

FS% is affected by many external factors therefore has its limitations

standard reference ranges can be obained

measure of contractillity and function
can be effected by preload, afterload and contractility

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459
Q

Cornell measurement

A

When assessing LV diameter, use published breed specific reference ranges when possible, however, these are not always available OR the dog may be a cross breed. What then?
LVDd=Left ventricular internal diameter during diastole
For those dogs which are cross breeds are pure bred dogs with no published reference ranges available, then the “Cornell method” scales the LVDd (cm) to bodyweight (kg).
Cornell formula; LVDd cm/BWˆ0.294
For the “EPIC Study”*, dogs were classified as having enlarged left ventricles when the LVDdALLO was >1.7

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460
Q

E-Point to Septal Separation (EPSS)

A

an easy measurement to obtain that is accurate in estimating the LVEF. EPSS is measured in the parasternal long axis view (PLAX) of the heart, which gives a view of the left ventricle and is often used to assess its function.

sensitive and specific for ventricular function

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461
Q

Indications for Echocardiography

A

Investigation of a heart murmur*.
Investigation of breathlessness, cough and/or collapse.
Investigation of an arrhythmia.
Investigation of a gallop rhythm.
Investigation of the presence, significance and cause of pericardial disease.
Investigation of ascites or pleural effusions whereby noncardiac disease has been excluded.
Investigation of unexplained pyrexia.
Breed screening (in particular for preclinical dilated cardiomyopathy).
Assessment pre-chemo.

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462
Q

Eupnoea

A

Normal respiration

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463
Q

Tachypnoea

A

Increased respiratory rate (not necessarily depth)

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464
Q

Apnoea

A

Absence of respiration

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465
Q

Hypoventilation Hyperventilation are both examples of

A

Alterations in ventilation at the alveolar level

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466
Q

Hypercarbia

A

Increased CO2 in blood•Hypoventilation•Incprodnof CO2Primary drive for respiration

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467
Q

Hypoxaemia

A

Decreased O2 in blood•Poor O2 intake•Hypoventilation•Increased O2 consumption•Decreased O2 carrying capacity

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468
Q

Differentials for tachypnoea

A

Primary cardiac disease
Neurological disease- Damage to respiratory control centre
Metabolic disease- Acidosis/alkalosis, Increased PaCO2
Hyperthermia- Cooling mechanism
Stress
Pain
Abdominal discomfort- Restricted movement of diaphragm
Primary respiratory disease

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469
Q

OBSTRUCTIVE RESPIRATORY PATTERNs

A

LRT Obstruction- Thickening, inflammation and mucus
Causes increased expiratory effort
Small airways held open during inspiration
Early collapse during expiration
e.g asthma
positive pressure of inspiration created allows easire passage of air. experation needs more effort
dont get stertor or sridor with this pattern

URT Obstruction- Causes marked inspiratory effort
Dynamic collapse of soft tissues due negative pressure associated with inspiration
Inspiratory STRIDOR or STERTOR
as animal breathes in, negative pressure is created meaning there will be more effort needed to inspire than expire with this pattern

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470
Q

Restrictive Respiratory Pattern

A

Expansion of the thorax restricted> Decreased tidal volumeTachypnoea / short-shallow breaths> Hypoventilation

restriction can be in lungs, in pleural space or withing ribs or diaphram.

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471
Q

Paradoxical Respiratory Pattern

A

results form significant trauma to the ribcage
road traffic accidents
Paradoxical movement of the chest wall: -Trauma –“Flail” chest
-Terminal respiratory failure –fatigue of muscles

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472
Q

SEROUS

A

Nasal Discharge
Inc. nasal secretionsAllergic rhinitisAcute InflammationViral infection

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473
Q

MUCOID nasal discharge

A

Nasal Discharge

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474
Q

PURULENT Nasal Discharge

A

Bacterial infection1o or opportunisticpathogen

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475
Q

HAEMORRHAGIC Nasal Discharge

A

TraumaClotting disorderVascular diseas

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476
Q

Nasal Discharge

A

Can be difficult to identify
•Intermittent nature
•Cleaning / Licking of nasal planum

Character of the discharge + Unilateral or Bilateral Presentation + Knowledge of common diseases

URT Origins (usually unilateral)-
•Nasal cavity
•Paranasal sinuses
•Guttural Pouch (horses)- could be bilateral
•Nasopharyngeal - could be bilateral
•Trachea- could be bilateral

LRT Origins ( will be consistantly and evenly bilateral)-
•Bronchoalveolarspace
•Oedema, Pneumonia
•Pulmonary vasculature
•Haemorrhage

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477
Q

Coughing

A

Upper respiratory tract-
•Harsh, dry, hacking cough
•Tracheitis or tracheobronchitis
•Often productive

Lower Respiratory Tract-
•Soft, chesty cough
•Pneumonia
•Lower airway inflammation
•Cardiogenic

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478
Q

Respiratory Sounds

A

Normal:
Tracheal / Bronchovesicular-
•Normal air movement through airways
•Increase airflow > Harsh intensity

Abnormal:
Wheezes-
Air passing through narrow airways
Bronchoconstriction
Crackles/Rales- Air passing through fluid
Oedema, harmorrhage, pneumonia
Dull/Absent- No air movement though lung
Pleural rubs Friction between pleural surfaces

Systematic auscultation- larynx, trachea, multiple points thorax: craniodorsa, caudodorsa, Hilus, cranioventra

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479
Q

Accentuating Respiratory Sounds

A

Adventitious noises can difficult to detect during normal: respiration-
•Subclinical inflammatory airway disease / asthma •Interstitial disease

Re-breathing exam (plastic bag over horses nose) -Increase tidal> volumeIncrease air flow> Accentuate adventitious noise

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480
Q

PERCUSSION- assessing resonance of air-filled structures

A

Thoracic percussion–Lung Parenchyma•Pulmonary consolidation•Pleural fluid accumulationGenerally used as adjunct to auscultation

Sinus percussion-
•Altered resonance in paranasalsinuses •Fluid / pus
•Cysts / Masses Very useful assessment in horses

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481
Q

what is visualised in an endoscopy

A

Nasal meati
Nasopharynx
Ethmoid turbinates
Nasomaxillary opening
Guttural Pouches
Trachea

can be done without sedation in horses, and possibly while ridden (dynamic endoscopy)- can diagnose Laryngeal Hemiplagia (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

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482
Q

Laryngeal Hemiplagia

A

(recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Common cause of poor performance in race horses
•Also occurs in dogs, in association with hypothyroidism

paralysis of larangel cartilages, usually of the recurrent laryngeal nerve

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483
Q

RHINOSCOPY

A

used to investigating URT disorders

Restricted access in small animals-
•Rigid rhinoscope
•Narrow-bore flexible endoscope
•Otoscope

Indications-
•Nasal foreign body
•Nasal mass –biopsy

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484
Q

RADIOGRAPHY to Investigate URT disorders

A

Commonly used to assess paranasal sinuses-
Lateral, dorsoventral and oblique projections

Cheap•Quick•Readily available•Doesn’t usually require GA•Excellent for assessing lung parenchyma

Identification of;
•Fluid accumulation in sinus (sinusitis) (fluid line)
•Soft tissue masses
•Distortion/destruction of normal bony architecture

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485
Q

Nasal / Nasopharyngeal Swab

A

Not appropriate as a screening tool-
•Wide array of commensal bacterial flora
•Contamination of sample is impossible to avoid

Only use for identification/isolation of specific pathogen(s)-
•Virus identification
•Bacterial isolation
-Streptococcus equi equi, Influenza, herpes, IBR

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486
Q

nvestigating LRT disorders using radiography

A

Cheap
•Quick
•Readily available
•Doesn’t usually require GA•Excellent for assessing lung parenchyma

1.Ensure good (and safe) positioning
2.Obtain 3 standard views if possible- RL, LL. DV
3.Expose on inspiration

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487
Q

Radiographic Patterns- Interstitial

A

•Interstitiumis the space between the alveoli and capillaries
•Interstitiumbecomes more prominent
•Air still present in alveoli and normal vessels seen

Diffuse(unstructured) -e.g. oedema/ diffuse lymphoma. the tissue around the broncheoles is more radiodense

Nodular –e.g. soft tissue mass ie. neoplasia/abscess- tissue around bronchi is more radiodense but in a more “smattered” pattern

Underexposure, expiration or obesity can look similar –often misdiagnosed

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488
Q

Bronchial Radiographic Patterns

A

Thickened bronchi
•Infiltration/mineralisation of bronchial walls or due to peribronchialchanges
•Classical ‘donuts’ or ‘tramlines’
•Bronchi may be more obvious in the periphery of the lungs where normally wouldn’t be seen

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489
Q

Alveolar Radiographic Pattern

A

Consolidation or collapse of alveoli
Air in alveoli is replaced by fluid (oedema/haemorrhage) or cells
Air bronchogram is commonly seenCan be focal or diffuse
Examples; bronchopneumonia, aspiration pneumonia, oedema, haemorrhage, neoplasia, lung lobe collapse or torsion

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490
Q

Vascular Radiographic Pattern

A

Any changes to the size, course or opacity of the pulmonary vessels
•Vessels may be larger or smaller than normal or may be tortuous
•Commonly seen associated with cardiac disease
•Tortuous vessels seen with heartworm
•Differentials depend on vessels affected

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491
Q

Pleural Disease

A

Pleural effusion:
•Fluid in the pleural space
•Transudate, exudate, haemorrhage, chyle

Pneumothorax:
Air in the pleural space

Both cause lung edges to move away from the thoracic wall

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492
Q

investigating LRT disorders- ULTRASONGRAPHY

A

Cheap
•Very Quick
•Readily available
•Ideal where sedation/GA is contraindicated

Excellent for assessing; •Pleural space
•Pleural effusion
•Diseased lung tissue

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493
Q

RESPIRATORY SECRETION SAMPLING

A

investigating LRT disorders

TRACHEAL WASH-
Sampling of tracheal mucus
Trans-endoscopic
Trans-tracheal
Representative of tracheal secretions and ascending lower airway secretions- wont tell if left lung/ right lung
Cytology + Culture

BRONCHALVEOLAR LAVAGE-
Sampling of bronchoalveolarspace
Trans-endoscopic
Blind
Cytology only

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494
Q

Syncope

A

another word for fainting or passing out

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495
Q

Cardiogenic syncope

A

Intermittent, profound hypotension resulting in marked reduction in blood flow to brain
Estimated blood pressure fall ≤50%

Arrhythmia:
Asystole – sinus arrest or ventricular standstill
Marked reduction in cardiac output – rapid V Tach

Duration 10-30 seconds:
Activity level and presence/ absence structural heart disease
Pulmonary hypertension

Most common cause bradyarrhythmias
Might be intermittent

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496
Q

Pre-syncope/ episodic weakness

A

Intermittent, profound hypotension resulting in reduction in blood flow to brain
BUT lesser degree of hypotension cf. syncope

Arrhythmia:
Less rapid v tach
SVT
Less profound bradyarrhythmias

Structural heart disease and pulmonary hypertension may exacerbate- Excitement/ exertion

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497
Q

Bradycardias

A

Disorder of impulse formation and conduction systems of the heart
Dogs <60bpm and cats <100bpm

Bradycardias to consider:
Advanced AV block (High grade 2nd degree and 3rd degree)
Sinus arrest
Atrial standstill due to hyperkalaemia
Persistent atrial standstill

Can be drug induced:
ACP
Opioids
Alpha2-agonists
B-blockers, calcium channel antagonists and potassium channel blockers are all c/i in sinus bradycardia, SSS and AVB greater than 1st degree

Sinus bradycardia usually high vagal tone and does not result in syncope

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498
Q

Tachycardias

A

Supraventricular and ventricular tachycardias
Dogs >160bpm and cats >200bpm
Supraventricular tachycardia

Most common is atrial fibrillation (AF)- New onset – weakness, collapse or syncope. no consistent p waves
loss of atrial contraction and also variable diastolic filling time reduce CO

SVT is an umbrella term-AF, accessory pathways, atrial flutter…
Regular SVT less common cause of syncope- less syncope because regular rhythm and activation of the heart is normal sequence.

Ventricular tachycardia-
Boxers and Dobermanns
Can drop CO dramatically
Sudden death – more so when abnormal function of LV
drop of CO due to short diastolic filling time, lack of atrial connection, aberrant sequence of ventricular activation

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499
Q

Neurocardiogenic syncope

A

Also called vasovagal syncope
Profound hypotension due to combination of bradyarrhythmia AND vasodilation

Sudden autonomic nervous system failure
Withdrawal of sympathetic tone
Abrupt increase in vagal tone

Triggering events are variable
Coughing (tussive)
Excitement e.g. excited boxer
Situational e.g. micturition, defecation, vomiting, sneezing…

Exacerbated by structural heart disease (SAS) or concurrent GIT disease

Neurally mediated syncope represents an exaggeration of the CV reflexes that normally control the circulation. Syncope occurs when these reflees intermittently become inappropriate in response to a trigger. It is likely that dogs that suffer this type of syncope have some sort of disorder of autonomic control.
Remember that bradycardia can occur on its own as can vasodilation or they can occur together. The degree to which one predominates over the other will vary and persist to differing degrees.
The medulla is the control centre of the reflex.
Neurocardiogenic syncope is an adrenergically stimulated vagal reflex bradycardia/ Vagal mechanoreceptors (C-fibres) initiate the reflex when stretched- they are found in the in the ventricle, LA and LA-PV junction and Pas

Triggered by fight or flight scenarios

Apparently healthy individuals or predisposed individuals:
Genetics
DCM
High preload

Diagnosis often presumptive

Common situation is exertion/ excitement in small breed dog with advanced MMVD-
Hyperdynamic ventricle – increased by sympathetic surge
Vagal afferents when suddenly stretched trigger reflex
In this cohort it is often a sign of v high preload and impending/ overt CHF
Can also occur on diuretics if preload reduced too much

Diuertics is usually treatment of MMVd and syncope associated with high preload. Although if over diurese can cause syncope due to empty ventricle

Boxers-
Bimodal age at 6-24 months 0r 7-10 years
Triggered by exertion with excitement
Older Boxers also ARVC!
Both can occur in same dog

Situational syncope-
Easily identified trigger e.g. cough
Common in small, middle-aged or elderly dogs
Often associated with tracheal/ bronchial compression or big LA
Tussive syncope – transient bradycardia +/- reduced cardiac output

Cats with HCM- On exertion
Pulmonary hypertension, outflow tract obstruction (pulmonic/ sub-aortic): Severe - exertional syncope due to inability to increase RV output
Impaired right-sided inflow:
Compression, pericardial effusion with tamponade
Hypoxia and hypoglycaemia (insulinoma)
Severe anaemia with exertion
Exercise induced – Labradors, Border collies

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500
Q

Non-syncopal collapse

A

Wide range of diseases
Difficult to differentiate from cardiogenic/ neurocardiogenic
Neurological conditions

Profound hypoxaemia-
Can also have tussive syncope

Metabolic disorders-
Hypoadrenocorticism
Hypoglycaemia

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501
Q

Diagnostics for syncopy

A

Blood tests-
Complete blood count
Biochemistry & electrolytes
Cardiac troponin I
NT-proBNP?
Basal cortisol?
Fasted glucose level?
Ammonia/ BAST?
Thyroid panel?

Blood pressure -Especially if present collapsed

ECG- Bradyarrhythmia
Tachyarrhythmia

Thoracic and abdominal imaging-
POCUS
Radiography
Abdominal ultrasound

Echocardiography-
Structure and function

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502
Q

Viral causes of livestock respiritory diseae

A

In cattle the most common viral causes of pneumonia are Parainfluenza 3 (PI3) and Respiratory Synctial Virus (RSV).

IBR can affect any age of stock but is rarely found in young calves. In the endemic setting it is insidious, causing low grade respirator disease in stock. The real problems are seen when it enters a naive population as it causes severe disease and transmits rapidly. Following infection it becomes latent in the cows cells, recrudescing at times of stress.
Bovine viral diarrhoea virus (BVD) as the name suggests doesn’t cause respiratory disease directly but it significantly affects the immune system opening the door for other pathogens. It is therefore commonly considered as part of the respiratory disease complex.

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503
Q

bacterial causes of livestock respiritory diseae

A

Mannheimia haemolytica

Pasturella multocida

Histophilus somnus

Mycoplasma spp.

Others

A variety of bacterial pathogens can act as opportunistic pathogens but we commonly recognise four bacterial species as causing respiratory disease in cattle. M.haemolytica is probably the most significant and most severe. It can act as a primary disease agent, particularly at times of stress (shipping fever), but frequently is the sequel of viral infections. This is also true of P.multocida and H.somnus. Mycoplasma is increasingly recognised as a cause of respiratory disease in all ages of stock, both primary and secondary.
As already discussed, these pathogens rarely act in isolation and diagnostic samples (eg post mortem) yielding these pathogens does not necessarily make them the instigating agent. Possibly the greatest significance of the bacterial species involvement is to explain why we use antimicrobials in the treatment of respiratory disease and why we see different response rates to different antimicrobials on different farms.

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504
Q

fog fever

A

respiritory disease
Trypthophan toxicity
Fog fever is seen rarely in cattle grazing lush pasture. It is due to an excess of tryptophan in the diet which the animal can’t process quickly enough resulting in toxic damage to the lungs

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505
Q

Farmers lung

A

respiritory disease
Allergic reaction to moulds

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506
Q

Two Main Causes of Coughing

A

CARDIAC DISEASE
Cardiomegaly causing left mainstem bronchus compression
Congestive heart failure (fulminant pulmonary oedema)

RESPIRATORY DISEASE
Upper airway dz(laryngeal paralysis, BUAS, tracheal collapse)
Lower airway dz(infectious/ inflammatory/ neoplastic)

CLINICAL EXAM IS SO IMPORTANT

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507
Q

HEART FAILURE (HF)

A

HF = a clinical syndrome where cardiac output and tissue perfusion are maintained at the expense of increased cardiac filling pressures.
-Forward and backward failure
-Right-and left-sided heart failure
-Systolic and diastolic failure
-Acute and chronic heart failure

will cause drop in blood pressure and therefor trigger THE RENIN-ANGIOTENSIN-ALDOSTERONE SYSTEM (RAAS)- causes vasoconstriction and odema

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508
Q

AETIOLOGIES of heart failur

A

-Chronic Myxomatous Mitral Valve Dz/CMVD -Dilated Cardiomyopathy/DCM-Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy/HCM-Pericardial Effusion/PE-Restrictive Cardiomyopathy/RCM
AETIOLOGIES•Patent DuctusArteriosus•Mitral Valve Dysplasia•Tricuspid Valve Dysplasia•Pulmonic Stenosis

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509
Q

aCUTE HF: TREATMENT

A

OXYGEN
IV FUROSEMIDE- im if too stressed
MINIMAL STRESS
PIMOBENDAN- vasodilator, increases contractillity

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510
Q

waht to look for in a radiograph to diagnose heart failure

A

1.Is there cardiomegaly? vhs greater than 8-10 in dogs
2.Is there left atrial enlargement?
3.Is there tracheal elevation?
4.Is there an abnormal lung pattern?
5.Are the pulmonary vessels normal?

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511
Q

Signs of heart failure

A

Cough (do not trust this as a sign of HF)
Dyspnoea (not always detected by the owner)
Increased sleeping respiratory rate (SRR)
Exercise intolerance

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512
Q

Non-cardiac causes of NT-proBNP

A

Systemic hypertension
Hyperthyroidism
Renal failure

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513
Q

Calculating the drip rate

A

The steps to calculate the drip rate are the following..

Calculate the hourly rate according to the total volume requirement (more on this later)
This is all you need to input if you are using an infusion pump
Calculate the minute rate: divide the hourly rate by 60 minutes
Calculate the drops per minute: multiple the minute rate by the giving set drip factor
Calculate the drops per second (drip rate): divide the drop per min by 60 seconds

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514
Q

Creating a fluid therapy plan

A

Step 1 – Resuscitation
If shock is present step 1 must be followed first. When the patient no longer shows signs of shock, or if no shock is present, move to step 2.

Step 2 – Rehydration
Is the patient is showing signs of dehydration?

Step 3 – Maintenance
Is the patient is not eating/drinking normally?

Step 4 – Ongoing losses
Does the patient have continuous fluid losses (e.g. vomiting)

To create a fluid therapy plan:

  1. Deal with Step 1 first if required. Stop when the patient no longer shows signs of shock.
  2. Work out if Steps 2, 3 and 4 apply to your patient. If they do, calculate the volume of fluids needed in each of the Steps 2, 3 and 4 and then add them together. This total must be administered in 24-48 hours.
    Monitor the patient to guide continuity of fluids, identify complications and resolution of clinical signs.
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515
Q

Fluid deficit in dehydration is determined by:

A

Fluid deficit (litres) = Body weight (kg) x % dehydration (as a decimal)

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516
Q

fluid defecit of a patient with No clinical signs, but patient has history of fluid loss

A

<5%

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517
Q

fluid defecit of a patient with Tacky mucous membranes, ? Thirst,

A

5-6%

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518
Q

fluid defecit of a patient with Skin tenting (moderate), dry mm’s, sunken eyes, slightly prolonged CRT

A

6-8%

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519
Q

fluid defecit of a patient with Skin tenting (moderate), dry mm’s, sunken eyes, slightly prolonged CRT plus Increased pulse rate, cold peripheries

A

8-10%

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520
Q

fluid defecit of a patient with Skin tenting (moderate), dry mm’s, sunken eyes, slightly prolonged CRT, Increased pulse rate, cold peripheries plus prolonged CRT, Tented skin stands in place, Pulses weak

A

10-12%

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521
Q

fluid defecit of a patient with Collapse, signs of hypovolaemic shock

A

12-15%

522
Q

Which route/s might you use to administer fluids to your patient if Dehydration is severe

A

Intravenous

523
Q

Which route/s might you use to administer fluids to your patient if it is a Mild case of dehydration

A

Oral.

Subcutaneous.

524
Q

The aim of the maintenance step in the fluid therapy plan is to

A

provide the daily requirements of water and electrolytes lost by sensible and insensible losses for patients that are not eating or drinking normally.

525
Q

Normal losses of fluid

A

Insensible e.g. Sweating, panting
Sensible e.g. Urine, faeces

526
Q

Abnormal fluid losses

A

Usually secondary to illness
E.g. vomiting, diarrhoea, blood loss, inappetence

527
Q

Maintenance volume can be calculated in two ways:

A

Estimate of sensible + insensible losses= 40-60ml/kg/day (2-2.5ml/kg/hour)

(tend to use the higher end for small dogs and lower end for large dogs – this method can under/over estimate requirements)

Accurate method (used in patients <2kg or >40kg)= Daily fluid requirement in ml = Body weight (kg) x 30 + 70

The volume is administered over a 24-48 hour period
The patient must be constantly re-evaluated to assess for signs of over hydration

528
Q

Ongoing losses can also be estimated as:

A

0.5ml-2ml/kg/hour

529
Q

Ongoing losses

A

This step is to try and replace any abnormal loss of fluids to continue in the next few hours-days. E.g. diarrhoea doesn’t generally stop as soon as they start treatment, it can take a while!

Ongoing losses can be estimated visually or measured directly (e.g. Urine production via urinary catheter or by patient weight loss after an additional fluid loss)

Ongoing losses can also be estimated as:

Patients must be reassessed in 4-6 hrs to check if volumes need to be adjusted

530
Q

Aims of fluid therapy

A

Maintenance of normal physiology – e.g. during anaesthesia. many patients will not drink at vets so will be fluid deficient
Improvement of organ function e.g. kidney, heart, liver
The correction of electrolyte disturbances
The correction of hypovolaemia- blood loss
The correction of acid base disturbances
(Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) - usually partial parenteral nutrition (PPN) used in animals)- not commonly done in adult animals

Is there a requirement for therapy? (ie assess patient, consider losses)
What type of fluid?
Which route?
What volume?
How fast?
When to stop? End points?

replace like with like- heatstoke= water loss so replace water

531
Q

parameters to asses Perfusion status and hydration status

A

Pulse quality
CRT
Heart rate
Demeanour- collapse ofter due to hypovolemia
Skin tent
Blood pressure
Mucous membranes
Eye position- eyes will sink and third eye often prolapses with dehydration

532
Q

What is the daily maintenance rate for an animal?

A

2.5ml/kg/hour
≈60ml/kg/day
{Or (30 x Kg) + 70 ???}

Factor it into your plan

533
Q

Types of fluid

A

Crystalloids (hypotonic, isotonic, hypertonic)- electrolites in water that mimic plasma without protien and cells

Colloids- protien in water. mimics plasma without electrolytes and cells

Blood products- HBOCS (hemoglobin-based oxygen carrying solutions) –££ & problems….

heartmans if first line fluid

534
Q

Isotonic Crystalloid fluids

A

Isotonic-Lactated Ringer’s solution (LRS) aka Hartmann’s

Na+ 130 mEq/l , Cl– 109mEq/l
Buffered, contains lactate as a bicarbonate precursor- treats and controls acidosis
Inadequate potassium for long term therapy- pk for hypokolemic patients as potassium lever lower than plasma so dilutes plasma levels
Good for shock, diuresis, during anesthesia & can use for maintenance (can add other things to it)
Only 25% remains in vascular space after 12 minutes- need to give more tan you think
If in doubt, choose Hartmann’s!

535
Q

Hypotonic crystalloid fluids

A

0.18% NaCl
0.18% NaCl + 5% glucose

Do you really want to use this ???

536
Q

Hypertonic saline- crystalloid fluids

A

!!! can easily be mistaken form heartmans and will cause issues!!!
Draws water from interstitial space
Transient effect (10-15 mins)
Rapid restoration of MAP, increased myocardial contractility, CO & oxygen delivery
2ml/kg over 10 min, can repeat once but must follow with isotonic fluids
More commonly used in large animals (e.g. prior to colic surgery) but can be used in dogs and cats (carefully)
Also used in severe life-threatening raised Intra Cranial Pressure

Used in GDVS and colic surgeries
Treatment of raised intercranial pressure

follow up with normal crystaline to restore fluid

537
Q

Fluid type - colloids

A

Support circulating blood volume better than crystaliods
e.g. severe hypovolaemia, haemorrhage, hypoproteinaemia

Exert a colloid osmotic pressure
More rapid initial re-expansion of volume
Only 1/4 of crystalloid administered remains in circulation in 40 mins
Support circulation longer than crystalloids

Types
artificial -gelatins, dextrans, starches, HBOCs
natural colloids e.g. albumin, plasma
However, no evidence of clinical superiority
over crystalloids

538
Q

colloids good for volume expansion

A

Oxypolygelatin
Dextran 40
Pentastarch
Hetastarch
Albumin
Whole blood
Plasma

539
Q

colloids good for half life

A

Hetastarch
Dextran 70
Pentastarch
Dextran 40
Oxypolygelatin

540
Q

Colloids – Gelatins (ntk)

A

Oxypolygelatins
Plasma half life 2-4 hours (manufacturer data)
Weight average 30,000 D -pulls an equivalent volume of water from interstitial space
No need for concurrent crystalloid but often do give both
Produces osmotic diuresis
No direct coagulation effects
15 ml/kg total

541
Q

Colloids – starches (ntk

A

Plasma half life 25 hours (hetastarch) - due to molar substitution
Initial elimination by tissue uptake
Excretion by metabolism - serum amylase rises
Volume expanded by volume given
Reversal of microvascular permeability
?anti inflammatory effect ?
Direct coagulation effects
Increased APT in dogs (factor VIII precipitation)
Anaphylaxis in 0.0005-0.085% human patients
Nausea and vomiting in cats - slow administration
Up to 40 ml/kg/day

542
Q

Fluid type – blood products

A

‘Natural’ colloids
Chosen according to clinical requirement-
Whole blood
pRBCs
Ffp
Cryoprecipitate

Match the fluid to the loss
Replace like for like-
Blood issue?- blood
Liver issue?- plasma
Breaking down red cells? – give packed red cells

543
Q

Oxyglobin Solution

A

purified bovine haemoglobin
given to patients without enough red cells to increase oxygen capacity of the blood
very expensive
supply scarse
cause patients to pee hemoglobin
very potent colloid

544
Q

Intravenous access for fluid therapy

A

Commonest route used
Relatively simple to master
Consider the different veins that can be used e.g. cephalic, saphenous, jugular, auricular, lateral thoracic
Select large bore cannula (flow α r 4)

more concentrated the solution the less it likes proliferal vein- dextrose

Complications can & do occur
Extravasation
Thrombosis
Thrombophlebitis
Infection
Emboli
Exsanguination

545
Q

routes for fluid therapy

A

Oral- best
Rectal
Subcutaneous- good for small furries but not great option
Intraosseous- puppies and kittens particularly. can be treated by vein. lots of LA
Intraperitoneal- experemental situations- rats ect
intravenous- most common

546
Q

Volume and rate of replacement of fluid

A

Calculate total deficit (% fluid deficit + losses – see earlier charts)
Add on maintenance fluids
Acute (replace ½ total deficit over first 1-2 hours) then consider rate thereafter (over 24 or 48 hours) – keep monitoring ins and outs
In cases of shock can give 60-90ml/kg/hr (<1hr though, and MUCH less in cats)
Chronic losses – replace over 3-4 days

OR BASE RESPONSE ON CLINICAL SIGNS!!

Monitor regularly and respond to changes

547
Q

Anaesthesia - Why Give Fluids?

A

Intravenous fluid therapy is generally recommended for any anaesthetised patient
The aim is to maintain circulating volume to ensure adequate perfusion and oxygen delivery to organs
Allows an ‘open vein’
Ancillary drugs/PIVA
Emergency situations

helps negate bad effects of anesthesia-

Fluid deficits caused by peri-operative fasting
Vasodilatory effects of anaesthetic drugs leading to a relative hypovolaemia
Acepromazine, isoflurane
Losses from the respiratory tract (worsened by endotracheal intubation)
Use HME’s, low flow anaesthesia if appropriate
IPPV (with PEEP/CPAP)-
Reduces urine output via alterations in renal vein pressure and altered ADH
However, alpha-2 agonists increase urine output
Extra(epi)durals with local anaesthesia- Hypovolaemia due to
vasodilation

Surgical site losses-
Evaporative
Third space
Haemorrhage

548
Q

Contra-Indications of fluids

A

Risk of volume overload in, for example, cardiac patients

Risk of anaphylactoid reactions and interference with clotting tests (colloids)

?Cost

549
Q

Common differential diagnoses for respiratory disease in exotics

A

Infectious-
Bacterial
Viral
Fungal

Non-infectious-
Environmental
Heat stress
Diaphragmatic hernia
Pregnancy toxaemia
Gastric dilatation
Cardiac disease
Pulmonary neoplasia

550
Q

clinical signs in exotic respiritory disease

A

Oculonasal discharge
Facial asymmetry
Oral exam
Auscultation
Over trachea
Whole thorax  crackles, wheezing, referred sounds & vocalisation
Heart rate & rhythm

551
Q

diagnosics for exotic upper respiritory infection

A

Culture and sensitivity from a deep nasal swab
Nasolacrimal duct flush- Cytology, Culture
Rhinoscopy
Skull radiography
Advanced imaging- CT

552
Q

diagnosics for exotic lower respiritory infection

A

Thoracic radiography – R & L lateral and DV views
Caudal lung lobes large and are well aerated
Assessment of cranial lung lobes difficult  small in some species = normal
Assess lung patterns

Bacterial pneumonia-
Alveolar pattern
Air bronchograms
Diffuse, localised, lobar
Changes may not be present in early stages

Solitary mass-
Neoplasia
Abscessation
Consolidation

553
Q

exotic respiritory diseases tested for by pcr

A

Chlamydia PCR – Chlamydia caviae (guinea pigs)
Conjunctival scrapings  intracytoplasmic, coccoid, basophilic organisms (elementary and reticulate bodies)

Myxomatosis PCR
Rabbit haemorrhagic disease PCR
Distemper virus
Bordetella bronchiseptica, Mycoplasma pulmonis, Pasteurella multocida

554
Q

exotic respiritory diseases tested for by post mortem

A

good for large groups of animals

Lung congestion
Fibrin adhesions
Fibrosis
Suppurative lesions
Pulmonary abscesses
Granulomas
Lung consolidation
Myocarditis
Tracheitis
Bronchitis
Otitis media/interna
Septicaemia

555
Q

ferret respiritory diseases

A

Pneumonia uncommon-
Clinical signs are similar to other species

Viral-
Canine distemper virus
Influenza virus

Bacterial – often secondary to another disease process
Streptococcus zooepidemicus
S. pneumoniae
Streptococci groups C and G
Other bacteria-
Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Bordetella bronchiseptica, Listeria monocytogenes, Pseudomonas aeruginosa

556
Q

respiritory disease in rats

A

Very common health problem

Major pathogens-
Mycoplasma pulmonis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Corynebacterium kutscheri

Minor pathogens-
Cilia-associated respiratory (CAR) bacillus
Haemophilus spp.
Sendai virus
Pneumonia virus of mice
Rat respiratory virus
Sialodacryoadenitis (SDA)

Interact synergistically-
Chronic respiratory disease
Bacterial pneumonia

557
Q

respiritory disease guinea pigs

A

Pneumonia is a significant disease

Subclinical infection - clinical signs when stressed

Opportunistic bacteria-
Bordetella bronchiseptica, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Streptobacillus moniliformis, Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli, Pasteurella pneumotropica, Pasteurella multocida, Streptococcus zooepidemicus, Streptococcus pyogenes, Citrobacter freundii, Yersinia pseudotuberculosis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Chlamydia caviae.

Viral aetiologies
Adenovirus, Parainfluenza virus

558
Q

respiritory disease in chinchillas

A

Pneumonia is relatively uncommon

Potential pathogens-
Streptococcus, Klebsiella, Pasteurella, Bordetella, Pseudomonas

Viral causes not reported

559
Q

respiritory disease in rabbits

A

Viral aetiologies-
Myxomatosis
Rabbit haemorrhagic disease

Other causes-
Neoplasia
Irritants
Nasal foreign bodies
Cardiac disease
Gastric dilatation

Bacterial aetiologies-
Pasteurella multocida, Bordetella bronchiseptica

Pasteurella multocida-
Chronic and acute infections
A commensal

Bordetella bronchiseptica-
Common flora within rabbit respiratory tract
Predisposes to the development of pasteurellosis

560
Q

clinical signs of respiritory disease in reptiles

A

open-mouth breathing, exaggerated respiratory effort, increased gulping motions in the throat, repeated yawning in snakes, tracheal discharges, respiratory noise, ocular and nasal discharges (care not to confuse with secretions from salt gland in some species (e.g., green iguana), facial swellings, altered buoyancy in aquatic species.

561
Q

reptile diagnostics for respiritory disease

A

History & clinical exam
Radiography
Advanced imaging (CT)
Endoscopy
Haematology & biochemistry
Nasal flush & tracheal wash
Cytology
Culture and sensitivity
PCR

562
Q

Snakes – differential diagnosis

A

Viral-
Arenavirus (inclusion body disease)
Ophidian paramyxovirus
Sunshine virus
Nidovirus

Bacterial disease- Often secondary

Chlamydia pneumoniae- Zoonotic potential

Mycobacterium- Zoonotic potential

563
Q

Birds – clinical signs in respiritory disease

A

Dyspnoea
Mouth breathing
Tail bobbing
Discharge from nares
Respiratory noise
Loss or change of voice

Exam (if safe to do so)-
Eyes/nares
Rhinoliths
Choanal slit
Auscultate heart, lungs and air sacs

564
Q

Birds – respiritory disease diagnostic techniques

A

Haematology and biochemistry
Diagnostic imaging

Sinus flush and aspirates-
Cytology
Culture and sensitivity

Endoscopy
PCR/serology

565
Q

Birds – respiritory disease Differentials

A

Bacterial -E.coli, Haemophilus spp., Pseudomonas spp., Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Mycobacterium spp., Chlamydia psittaci

Fungal - Aspergillus spp., Candidia spp.

Viral - pox
Parasites - trichomoniasis
Nutrition - hypovitaminosis A

Lower respiratory tract disease-
Bacterial air sacculitis
Fungal air sacculitis

Chlamydia psittaci
Transmitted through aerosols of respiratory secretions, faecal material or feather dust
Grey parrots susceptible
Clinical signs-
Respiratory secretions
Diarrhoea
Weight loss
Poor feathering
Conjunctivitis

566
Q

Component Therapy Versus Whole Blood

A

Component Therapy:
Benefits-
Maximising resource utilisation
Flexible dosing and administration
Reduced transfusion volume
Minimising immune sensitisation
Immediately available on site
Extended shelf life

Limitations-
Need knowledge of what activity each product has
Multiple storage areas are required due to different product temperature ranges

Whole Blood:
Benefits-
No processing requirement
Storage easier as single storage temperature

Limitations-
Shorter shelf life
Need a suitable in-house donor to be available
Inexperienced staff collecting the blood

567
Q

Fresh Versus Stored Whole Blood

A

Collected whole blood is called Fresh Whole Blood (FWB) and it is classed as FWB for 6 hours. During this time it should be kept at room temperature

After 6 hours it is reclassed as Stored Whole Blood (SWB) and must be refrigerated

In SWB the activity of Factor I (Fibrinogen), Factor VIII and von Willebrand’s Factor will likely have declined to below therapeutically useful levels and platelets have been shown to be less responsive and have a poor lifespan once transfused (24 hours max)

There is however new compelling evidence that chilled platelets in SWB retain their ability to contribute to clot formation

568
Q

Use of Red Cells

A

Fresh Whole Blood-
Source of all erythrocytes, haemostatic proteins, plasma proteins, immunoglobulins, antiproteases and platelets
Blood loss/ Haemostatic resuscitation
Haemostatic protein deficiency with blood loss
? Arrest active haemorrhage in patient with thrombocytopenia or thrombopathia

Packed Red Blood Cells-
Source of erythrocytes
Anaemia
Blood loss /haemostatic resuscitation +/- Fresh Frozen Plasma

569
Q

Use of Plasma

A

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)-
Source of all haemostatic proteins (labile and non labile), antiproteases, immunoglobulins and plasma proteins-
DIC
Adder Bites
Consumptive coagulopathy
Haemophilia A and B
von Willebrand’s Factor Deficiency
Bleeding due to Angiostrongylus
Acute haemorrhagic shock

1 year as Fresh Frozen Plasma + 4 year Fresh Plasma Shelf Life

Frozen Plasma (FP) and Cryosupernatant (Cryo-S):
Source of plasma proteins, immunoglobulins, antiproteases and non labile factors: II, V, VII, IX, X, XI and XII
HGE
Anticoagulant Rodenticide Toxicity
Hepatic coagulopathy
Haemophilia B
Hypoproteinaemia
Resuscitative IVFT
Immunoglobulin transfer
+ Cryo-S can be used to treat hypoalbuminaemia

FP 5 year Shelf Life
Cryo-S 1 year Shelf Life

Cryoprecipitate (Cryo-P):
Source of labile factors: I, VIII, XIII and vWF and fibronectin
Von Willebrand’s Disease- resuces chances of bleeding during surgery
Haemophilia A
Hypofibrinogenaemia
1 year Shelf Life

570
Q

Use of Platelets

A

Platelet Concentrate (PC):
Source of platelets-
Uncontrolled or life-threatening haemorrhage due to thrombocytopenia/thrombopathia
Prophylactic treatment in patients with hereditary thrombopathia prior to surgery
Contains some red blood cells – typing recommended
Shelf Life of 3 days

571
Q

Erythrocyte Antigens

A

Antigens are surface molecules capable of stimulating an immune response found on lots of things such as drugs, infectious organisms, pollens, plasma proteins and blood cells

Erythrocyte antigens are the antigens found on red blood cells and the presence of an erythrocyte antigen determines the blood type of the individual

Antigens are genetically determined characteristics and each erythrocyte antigen is inherited independently of other erythrocyte antigens meaning a single antigen can be present or multiple different antigens in any combination

Expression of an erythrocyte antigen = Positive for that blood type

No expression of an erythrocyte antigen = Negative for that blood type

10 canine erythrocyte antigens have been identified

Their antigenicity varies as will the degree of the immune response; some antigens will not provoke a response whilst for others the response will be strong- DAE-1, DEA-8

Antigenicity is influenced in part by the antigen’s:

Size

Complexity

Biological activity

The first exposure to a non-self antigen may include the production of antigen-specific alloantibodies which are retained for life

This individual is now sensitised to that antigen

A subsequent encounter will cause an antigen-antibody mediated immune response

572
Q

: What makes an antigen more clinically significant when performing a blood transfusion?

A

More antigenic antigens produce a more profound immune response and the greater the strength of an adverse reaction

The greater the likelihood antigen exposure will occur the more it is a concern

High prevalence of Positive dogs = less likely to encounter a Negative dog
Low prevalence of Positive = less likely to encounter a Positive dog
50:50 prevalence of Positive and Negative = high chance of a Positive and Negative encounter

573
Q

Blood Typing in Dogs

A

Most antigenic blood type is DEA 1.

Expression of this antigen on the red cell surface in Positive dogs is variable from strong through to weak.

Distribution of DEA 1 antigen in the canine population is around 50:50

Administering DEA 1 Positive red cells to a DEA 1 Negative recipient will result in DEA 1 sensitisation on first exposure

Subsequent exposure in a sensitised dog can cause an Acute Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction (AHTR) as a result of the extravascular +/- the intravascular destruction of the transfused cells

Preferably type and type match recipient and product/donor with regards to DEA 1 status in all dogs prior to red cell and platelet transfusion

574
Q

Blood Typing Methodologies

A

In house typing kits available to determine DEA 1 status in the UK

Immunochromatographic, card and gel technologies are used in in-house typing kits

Immunochromatographic kits (QuickTest from Alvedia) consists of porous paper strip along which the sample migrates. The strip is impregnated with a line of monoclonal DEA 1 antibody that attaches to DEA 1 antigen (if present) and a control line impregnated with anti-glycophorin antibody that attaches to red cells regardless of blood type.

575
Q

Cross Matching in Dogs

A

In dogs clinically significant alloantibodies will not be present in transfusion naïve individuals but all previously transfused dogs should be cross matched if they were given red cells 4 or more days ago to detect any clinically significant alloantibodies that have been generated that will react with a donor red cell antigen in the pending transfusion

Major cross match evaluates the recipient’s plasma for the presence of alloantibodies against donor erythrocytes to determine the likelihood of a haemolytic transfusion reaction

Minor cross match evaluates the donor’s plasma for the presence of alloantibodies against recipient erythrocytes to determine the likelihood of a haemolytic transfusion reaction

576
Q

The Major Cross Match

A

Two reactions indicate incompatibility and the presence of existing recipient alloantibodies when recipient plasma is mixed with donor red cells:

Haemagglutination - a reversible red cell phenomenon caused by antigen-antibody binding and the cross-linking of antibodies causing red cells to clump together

Haemolysis – activation of complement results in lysis of the red cells and release of haemoglobin causing pink or red tinged plasma

Gel based tests: porous gel matrix block in the tube allows single red cells to pass through but not agglutinated clusters of cells
A crude version of the cross match can also be performed in house without the use of a commercial kit

Positive control – the red cells have
agglutinated and are too large to
pass through the sieve-like gel
Negative control – the red cells
Have passed through the gel
Patient test tube
indicating compatibility

when to do this?

Any recipient that has had a previous transfusion reaction
Any recipient with an unknown transfusion history
Any recipient that has received red cell product 4 or more days ago
PBB provides a crossmatch service via IDEXX cross matching the recipient against 6 stored packed red blood cell units.

577
Q

Minor cross match may be considered if transfusing very large volumes of plasma to ….

A

detect any clinically significant alloantibodies in the donor plasma to recipient’s red cells

578
Q

Feline Blood Types

A

Blood types: A, B, AB and Mik negative or positive

Naturally occurring antibodies to non-self red cell antigens in type A and B and some Mik negative cats

Strength and titre of antibodies varies:
Type B cats have a high titre of anti-A antibodies
Type A cats have a lower titre of weaker anti-B antibodies
Type AB cats have no antibodies to either the A or B antigen

In house kits are available for determining A/B status.

Cats must be blood typed and the recipient and product/donor must be type matched

579
Q

Feline Cross Matching

A

Transfusion naïve cats can have clinically significant alloantibodies to other blood types so cross matching even the first transfusion is recommended

		Red Cell Transfusions = Major Cross Match

		Plasma Transfusions = Minor Cross Match (donor plasma for 					alloantibodies to recipient red cells)

		Whole Blood = Major and Minor Cross Match (Alvedia/EmMa Test)
580
Q

What tests can you use to evaluate the Urinary Tract?

A

Imaging (Radiography, Ultrasound, CT)
Clinical pathology (Haematology and Biochemistry tests) - path
Urinalysis
Surgical – biopsy, visualisation

581
Q

Stranguria

A

difficulty urinating

Generally disorders of:
The lower urinary tract (bladder or urethra)
The genital tract (prostate, vagina)
Both

Two processes have potential to cause stranguria:
Non-obstructive stranguria- Mucosal irritation/inflammation of lower urinary/genital tract in fection

Obstructive stranguria - Obstruction or narrowing of the urethra/bladder neck. spasms, stones

A thorough history - ask the right questions
Signalment
Dogs – bacterial cystitis/urethritis, urinary calculi
Cats – idiopathic cystitis, urolithiasis
Palpate the bladder size
Stranguria + large bladder may be obstructed = emergency!

Physical Exam:
Assessment of urethral patency
Bladder Palpation – be very carefull!!! bladders blocked for long period of time are painful and fragile. can also cause backflow of urin into kidneys and cause kidney faliur

Digital rectal palpation- In all stranguric dogs. Especially males!
External genitalia and perineum

582
Q

Haematuria

A

haem/blood in the urine

can be macoscopic or microscopic

Haematuria causes:
Iatrogenic haematuria- trauma caused by method used to obtain sample- e.g irritation by catheter
Pathological haematuria
Genital sources (if voided)- trauma to penis

Determine if systemic (coagulopathies) or localised to the urinary tract
Do they have clinical signs associated with LUTD?
Has bleeding been noticed from other sites?
Trauma?
Rodenticides?
Blood in faeces?
Pattern to urine pigmentation?

Clinical exam:
Look for haemorrhage at other sites- look for coagulopathy
Abdomen, thorax, mucosae (especially mouth, axillae, groin)
Palpate and assess kidneys for size, symmetry, discomfort- more reliable in smaller animals
Examine the external genitalia

can be found by
1.Gross “pigmenturia”
red, brown or black urine
2. Urinalysis: positive haem

possible causes:
Haematuria
Haemoglobinuria
Myoglobinuria

Gross haematuria:
>150 RBCs/hpf

Occult haematuria:
Positive Hb on dipstick
>5 RBCs/hpf but not visibly pink
Care re: interpretation if catheterised/cysto

Both can be accompanied by clinical signs (stranguria, dysuria, pollakiuria)

Is it consistent throughout urination?
Initial haematuria: At beginning of voiding - lower urogenital tract (bladder neck, urethra, vagina/vulva, penis, prepuce)
Terminal haematuria: At end of voiding -Upper urinary tract (bladder, ureters, kidneys or intermittent bleeding)
Total haematuria: throughout voiding - upper UT, diffuse bladder dz, prostatic or proximal urethra, coagulopathies

So how do I know if it’s Haematuria?
Clinical signs, gross inspection

Haematology/biochemistry-
Anaemia?
CK?

Positive dipstick
Centrifuge sample to examine for intact RBCs:
Supernatant clear with pellet of RBCs present = haematuria
Supernatant pigmented with absence of RBCs in pellet = haemoglobinuria or myoglobinuria

  1. Sediment evaluation for RBCs if haematuria
    • always take into account collection method
  2. not always able to tell
583
Q

Dysuria

A

pain or discomfort upon urination

584
Q

Pollakiuria

A

abnormal frequent passage of small amounts of urine

585
Q

Periuria

A

urination at inappropriate sites

586
Q

Anuria

A

failure of urine production by the kidneys

587
Q

Oliguria

A

reduction in urine production

588
Q

Polyuria

A

Increase urine production

589
Q

Haemoglobinuria

A

spill over of exess haeomoglobin form plasma
pink-red urine
Intravascular lysis of RBCs- haemolytic anemia
Lysis of RBCs within the urinary excretory- USG <1.008, pH>7

590
Q

Myoglobinuria

A

rare in dogs and cats (seen more in horses)
Extensive skeletal muscle damage/myopathies- might see in racing greyhounds and horse
Creatinine Kinase will show on biochem test

591
Q

Full Urinalysis

A

Macroscopic examination (colour, transparency/turbidity)
Microscopic examination
Chemical examination (dipstick tests and urine specific gravity)
Microbiological examination by culture

Part of the database for animals with signs of:
Renal disease
Lower urinary tract disease
Many medical problems (particularly those with multi-systemic signs)
Part of a geriatric or pre-anaesthetic screen

Hand-in-hand with biochemistry for any sick patient.

Tubular function
USG – Loop of Henle, Distal Tubules
Proximal Tubules
Dipstick - PT

Glomerular function-
Biochemistry
Dipstick

Haemorrhage, infection, inflammation…

592
Q

Urine Collection Methods

A

Micturition
Cystocentesis
Catheterisation

Note: always record in your notes which collection method was used, as results can be significantly affected.

593
Q

micturition as a urine collection method

A

“free catch”- can be got form-
Mid-flow- allows intitial flow to wash out contaminants
Naturally voided or Manual expression
Table-top- make sure to make this cea rin notes

Advantages:
Easy (generally) and may be left to owner (naturally voided - dog)
Non-traumatic, non-invasive
Use of modified litter can be used for initial screening of cats (KatKor)

Disdvantages:
Risk of non-compliance, resentment (dog)
Risk of haematuria and bladder rupture with manual expression
Variable volume
Likely to be contaminated - sample unsuitable for culture
Collection vessel may affect results- glucose from food containers, cleaning fluids can contaminate sample

594
Q

Cystocentesis

A

Advantages:
Quick with no need to wait for spontaneous urination
Easier than voided sample from cats
Aseptic collection with no urethral contamination (so ideal for culture)
Easy to perform when bladder moderately distended and patient (dog or cat) adequately restrained
Better tolerated (cf. catheterisation)
Lower risk of iatrogenic haematuria and iatrogenic infection (cf. catheterisation)

Disadvantages:
Requires some experience
Needs adequate volume of urine in bladder
Iatrogenic micro-/(macro-)scopic haemorrhage possible
Contraindicated if:
bladder severely diseased – risk of rupture, clotting problems

595
Q

Catheterisation as a method for urine collection

A

Advantages:
No need to wait for spontaneous micturition
Relatively, rather than absolutely, free of risk of bacterial contamination- use quantitative urine culture
Usually an ample sample volume

Advantages:
No need to wait for spontaneous micturition
Relatively, rather than absolutely, free of risk of bacterial contamination
use quantitative urine culture
Usually an ample sample volume

Catheterisation in the Queen
Blind insertion
Get body as straight as possible
Advance catheter along ventral vaginal wall along midline
Should enter urethra!

596
Q

waht makes a good urin sample

A

Aim is to obtain a urine sample with in vitro characteristics similar to the original urine (in vivo)
If sample is not processed immediately, consideration should be given to sample storage and preservation

Collect and analyse with 60 mins
Or refrigerate (upto 12 hours)- after this cells lyse and crystals form.
Artefacts= Calcium oxolate, Struvite
should be analysed at room temp- affects usg and crystals
Refrigeration artefacts:
In vitro crystal formation (especially calcium oxolate dihydrate)
Falsely decreased results due to inhibition of enzymatic reactions
SG falsely increased

Room temperature artefacts:
Bacterial overgrowth
Alter pH
Decrease chemicals metabolised by bacteria (e.g. glucose)
Alter urine culture results

Timing of Collection:

Early morning or after fasting-
Advantages:
Most concentrated sample (relative water deprivation overnight) – evaluates concentrating capacity
Gives the highest yield of cells, casts and bacteria

Disadvantages:
Glucosuria may be less obvious than in a post-prandial sample
Cytology – cells may be altered due to prolonged exposures to variations in pH and osmolality

597
Q

Gross Inspection of urin

A

Colour-
Light yellow or amber

Odour-
Should not be offensive

Transparency/turbidity-
Concentrated and end flow samples more likely to be turbid
Normal = clear/slightly cloudy

Volume-
5ml

598
Q

Routine Urine Chemistry

A

Specific gravity (SG)
refractometer
pH
Dipstick- Remember – do not dip the stick!

599
Q

Urine Specific Gravity

A

Assessment of concentrating ability

Measured with a Refractometer NOT dipstick
Best practice: Read urine supernatant

Ranges in hydrated patients:
Dogs - 1.015 to 1.045
Cats - 1.035 to 1.060

Interpret in light of animals hydration status, comorbidities, BUN/Creat/Glucose/Protein conc

First morning sample

Isosthenuria - 1.008-1.012 - Specific gravity (SG) of glomerular filtrate
Hyposthenuria – <1.008 = active dilution
Well concentrated - >1.030 (dog) or >1.035 (cat)

Interpret in light of animals hydration status, comorbidities, BUN/Creat/Glucose/Protein conc

600
Q

Dipstick

A

Leucocytes- not valid
Nitrite- not valid
Urobilinogen- not valid
Protein
pH
Blood/Haem
USG- not valid
Ketone
Bilirubin
Glucose

601
Q

pH measurement on a urine dipstick

A

Rough estimate of systemic acid-base status
pH values stable for 24 hrs (if fridged!)
Meters more precise and accurate than dipstick analysis
Important in management of urolithiasis and UTIs
Direct effect upon crystal type (struvite)
Direct effect on sediment findings: RBCs, WBCs, casts

Causes/examples:
High pH >7.5
UTI by urease-producing bacteria
Metabolic alkalosis
Herbivores

Low pH <7-
UTI caused by acid-producing bacteria
Normal in carnivores (5.5-7.5)
Metabolic acidosis

602
Q

Bilirubin on urine dipsticks

A

Normal metabolism of Hb from erythroctyes results in hepatic formation of conjugated bilirubin- Primary excretion via GIT, and to a lesser extent, in urine via kidneys

Urine testing – screen for:
Intravascular haemolytic dz
Cholestatic hepatobiliary dz
Cannot be used to rule-out dz.

Interpret in light of USG
Normal in concentrated urine of dogs (USG >1.030)-Male>Female, Also ferrets
Always abnormal in cats

603
Q

Haem on urine dipsticks

A

Screen for presence of haemoglobin

Free haemoglobin from lysis RBCs
Lysis of RBC’s when contact pad = + result
Intravascular (abnormal)
Dilute or extremely alkaline urine can also lyse RBCs – false +!
Free myoglobin from damaged myocytes (abnormal)

Sediment evaluation
<5 RBCs/hpf is normal finding (won’t cause a + on dipstick!)
Always take into account collection method

604
Q

Glucose on urine dipsticks

A

Small molecule, freely passes through glomerulus into filtrate- Normally removed from urine by renal tubules

Presence in urine (abnormal >trace):
Exceed renal threshold e.g. hyperglycaemia-
Diabetes mellitus, Stress-induced hyperglycaemia in cats

Proximal renal tubular dysfunction

Serum biochemistry +/- fructosamine

Remember: effect on USG

Renal thresholds:
Cats - 14-15mmol/L
Dogs – 10-12mmol/L

605
Q

Ketones on urine dipsticks

A

Ketones:
Acetone
Acetoacetic acid
Beta-hydroxybutyrate- ost abundant

Produced as alternative energy source to meet demands (negative energy balance)- E.g. aberrant carbohydrate metabolism (as in diabetes mellitus)

Ketonuria precedes ketonaemia
Urine screening for DM!
Diuretic effect
Predisposition to hypoNa and HypoK

606
Q

Ketones on urine dipsticks

A

Ketones:
Acetone
Acetoacetic acid
Beta-hydroxybutyrate- ost abundant

Produced as alternative energy source to meet demands (negative energy balance)- E.g. aberrant carbohydrate metabolism (as in diabetes mellitus)

Ketonuria precedes ketonaemia-
Urine screening for DM!
Diuretic effect
Predisposition to hypoNa and HypoK

607
Q

Protein on urine dipsticks

A

Screen for diseases that cause:
protein loss by the kidneys (e.g. renal proteinuria)- Tubular disease, Glomerular barrier alterations
Excess production of protein (less likely)- Overload proteinuria

Dipstick most sensitive to albumin-
Other proteins at high levels (e.g. Ig, Hb)
Urine electrophoresis

Always interpret in context of:
USG
pH

> 7.5 may cause false positive
Sediment

Normal Urine:
-/trace >1.025
<2+ > 1.030 (dogs)
<1.015 should be none.

Protein:Creatinine ratio (UP:UC)-
Quantitative
Creatinine not reabsorbed/secreted so conc is static
Standardises protein concentration

Evidence for glomerular or tubular proteinuria
UPC should be <0.5 for Dogs and <0.4 for cats (IRIS guidelines)

Interpretation confounded by other causes of protein in urine
E.g. pre-renal overload or post-renal proteinuria e.g. bacteriuria, pyuria, haematuria

608
Q

Microscopic Examination of urine

A

Sediment Examination-
Crystalluria
Renal tubular casts
Epithelial cells
Blood cells
Bacteria

609
Q

Renal Tubular Casts

A

Proteinaceous plugs of dense, mesh-like mucoprotein +/- cells accumulate in distal portion of nephron
Low number (<2/HPF) can be normal
Increased number relates to tubular disease
Try to identify associated cells, e.g. epithelial, WBC, RBC

610
Q

Epithelial Cells in microsopic urinary analysis

A

Routinely see a small number (<= 2-5/HPF)
Type of cell may be difficult to identify, but may help to identify location of disease if increased number:
Renal tubular cells
Transitional cells- renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, proximal 2/3 urethra
Squamous cells- Distal 1/3 urethra

611
Q

Blood Cells in microsopic urinary analysis

A

Erythrocytes
Haematuria – prev discussed

Leucocytes:
Cystocentesis sample - <3/HPF. - <8/HPF catheter/voided
High counts = pyuria

+/- bacteria

612
Q

Bacteria
in microsopic urinary analysis

A

May be present for reasons other than UTI, e.g. contamination overgrowth in stored sample

Pyuria + bacteriuria = active UTI- Urine Culture & Sensitivity

Silent Urinary tract infections can also occur!

613
Q

urine samle for Culture & Sensitivity

A

Obtain urine by cystocentesis
Usually boric acid container- bacteriostatic
Submit to external laboratory
Is patient receiving parenteral antibiotics?

614
Q

Crystalluria

A

Precipitate out when urine saturated with dissolved minerals
Do not indicate presence of, or predisposition to form urinary calculi
May get in vivo without disease
Cold temperature/prolonged storage increases formation in vitro – so use fresh, non-refrigerated sample within 1 hour

Useful for:
provisional identification of existing calculi before analysis
When pathological types are identified

615
Q

Magnesium ammonium phosphate

A

urinary crystal
struvite
Most commonly seen in dogs and cats
Neutral-alkaline urine-
UTI’s
Diet

616
Q

Cystine

A

urinary crystal
Hexagonal
Acidic Urine
Abnormal finding
Inherited defect in proximal renal tubular transport of AA’s
Concentrated, acidic urine
Radiolucent

617
Q

Calcium oxalate dihydrate

A

urinary crystal
radiopeic
calcium crystal

can be an artifact of stirage in fridge
Cross-striations, “envelope”
Acidic urine
Can be seen in clinically normal animals or storage artefact
Or urolithiasis, hypercalcuria, hyperoxaluria..

618
Q

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

A

urinary crystal
radiopeic
calcium crystal

Picket fence
Abnormal in cats/dogs
Ethylene glycol (anti freeze) ingestion- Not 100% sensitive
Can be seen in normal horse

619
Q

Calcium Carbonate

A

urinary crystal
Alkaline Urine
Yellow-brown or colourless
Common in equine
Not seen in dogs and cats

620
Q

Bilirubin in urine

A

can be see
Orange-reddish brown
Low number routinely observed in dogs

621
Q

Ammonium biurate Crystals

A

urinary crystal
Acidic urine
Abnormal finding in most breeds
Routine finding in Dalmations

622
Q

Amorphous Crystals

A

urinary crystal
Aggregates/no defining shape
Urates - acidic
Phosphates – alkaline
Xanthene

623
Q

Urolithiasis

A

A calculus (stone) in the urinary tract-
Single or multiple
Cystolith, ureterolith, nephrolith…

Remember – Crystals do NOT = Urolith

Recognised in all species
Common urolith types vary with species
Calcium carbonate – horses, rabbits
Magnesium ammonium sulphate, calcium oxolate – dogs, cats

One mineral normally predominates
Increased precipitation of excretory metabolites

Multi-factoral!
Genetic/breed factors
e.g. cystine stones in SBT
Metabolic disease
e.g. urate stones with PSS

Inappropriate diet
e.g. ram lambs fed concentrate
UTI e.g. struvite stones in dogs

Clinical Signs-
Nephroliths
Asymptomatic
Incidental finding on x-rays
Associated with pyelonephritis
Pain, pyuria, pyrexia

Ureteroliths
As above
Renomegaly – uni/bilateral +/- pain
Renal failure if bilateral
“big kidney-little kidney” cats

Cystoliths
True LUT signs
Dysuria, pollakiuria, haematuria
Occasionally palpable on physical exam
Depending on size/number

Urethroliths
True LUT signs
Abdominal discomfort
Licking at penis/vulva, trying to urinate but can’t
Urethral obstruction - post-renal azotaemia - AKI - renal azotaemia

Does the clinical history/physical exam suggest stones?

Plain radiographs:
Radiopaque stones:
Struvite
Calcium oxolate
Calcium phosphate

Radiolucent stones:
Ammonium urate
Cystine

Abdominal Ultrasound
Easy to miss

Rectal examination to palpate urethra

624
Q

treating an acute urinary sytem obstruction

A

Nephroliths, Ureteroliths, Cystoliths and non obstructive urethroliths.. Later.

Urethral Obstruction
Treat as an emergency unless partial obstruction
Stabilise the patient but do not delay
Manage hyperK, IVFT
Decompress the bladder?
Retrograde urohydropulsion using catheter
Urethrostomy- More appropriate for recurrent problems, not emergency treatment

625
Q

What are the receptors called that detect plasma osmolality and where are they ?

A

What are the receptors called that detect plasma osmolality and where are they

626
Q

Where is ADH released from?

A

ADH is a substance produced naturally in an area of the brain called the hypothalamus. It is then released by the pituitary gland at the base of the brain

627
Q

Where does ADH act in the kidney?

A

The main action of ADH in the kidney is to regulate the volume and osmolarity of the urine. Specifically, it acts in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting ducts (CD

628
Q

Name two stimuli that may cause ADH release

A

elevated plasma osmolality and decreased effective circulating volume. Increased plasma osmolality causes shrinkage of a specialized group of cells in the hypothalamus called osmoreceptors

629
Q

How does ADH cause urine to be concentrated in the kidney?

A

ADH increases the permeability to water of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, which are normally impermeable to water

630
Q

What clinical condition arises in patients which fail to produce ADH?

A

Diabetes insipidus

631
Q

What are the clinical consequences of a lack of ADH?

A

dehydration, hyperosmolality, hypovolemia, and eventual death in severe cases

632
Q

What conditions might lead to high ECF Sodium

A

Dehydration
A disorder of the adrenal glands.
A kidney disease.
Diabetes insipidus

633
Q

Is Sodium maintained within a relatively narrow range?

A

yes

634
Q

Which hormone is released as a consequence of a rise in plasma K+?

A

When K+ plasma levels increase enough, hyperkalemia induces aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone, in turn, promotes renal K+ secretion

635
Q

What clinical condition arises in patients which fail to produce aldosterone

A

Addison’s disease

636
Q

What is the fate of glucose that enters the glomerulus?

A

Glucose that enters the nephron along with the filtrate after passing through the glomerulus, passes from the tubule of nephron where it is selectively reabsorbed and sent back into the blood.

637
Q

Why is there glucose in the urine of animals with Diabetes mellitus?

A

Once blood glucose reaches a certain level, the excess is removed by the kidneys and enters the urine. This is why dogs and people with diabetes mellitus have sugar in their urine (glucosuria) when their insulin levels are low.

638
Q

What is the consequence of Diabetes Mellitus on the urine volume?

A

In diabetes, the level of sugar in the blood is abnormally high. Not all of the sugar can be reabsorbed and some of this excess glucose from the blood ends up in the urine where it draws more water. This results in unusually large volumes of urine

639
Q

How will the presence of glucose in urine affect USG

A

the addition of glucose caused the USG to increase

640
Q

How will the presence of glucose in urine affect Osmolality

A

glucose can also add significantly to the osmolality when it is abundant in urine

641
Q

Why is there usually no protein detected in the urine?

A

most protein molecules are too large for the filters (glomeruli)

642
Q

In what circumstances might you find haemoglobin in the urine?

A

If the level of hemoglobin in the blood rises too high

643
Q

In what circumstances might you find myoglobin in the urine?

A

extensive damage to your skeletal muscles, resulting in the rapid breakdown of muscle

644
Q

What are the potential outcomes of losing lots of albumin in urine?

A

kidney disease

645
Q

Thirst and urination determined by interplay of:

A

Plasma osmolality - Determines blood pressure – baroreceptors (pressure) and osmoreceptors (water)
Osmolality integrated into thirst centre in the brain

Hypothalamic – Posterior pituitary gland – ADH axis
Regulates water reabsorption in collecting duct

Renal function- Needed to produce concentrated urine

646
Q

Urine Concentration

A

Adequate secretion of ADH and kidneys must be able to respond normally
Enough functioning nephrons
A concentration gradient in renal medulla

when 2/3 of kidney lost this process is impares

647
Q

Mechanisms of PUPD

A

polyurea
polydypsia

2 basic reasons:
Primary polyuria (insesant urination) with secondary compensatory polydipsia- Most common, Several mechanisms

Primary polydipsia (insesant need to drink) with consequent PU

648
Q

Primary Polydipsia

A

Uncommon in small animals- In dogs behaviour resulting in increased drinking referred to as psychogenic polydipsia

Horses>others

Cerebrocortical dysfunction- Central lesion affecting hypothalamus/thirst centre and ADH

Endocrine disorders

649
Q

Pathophysiology of Primary PU

A
  1. Lack of ADH produced by hypothalamus
    Cannot concentrate urine
    Compensatory PD
    Primary central diabetes insipidus- ongenital/idiopathic, rare. (Acquired neoplastic/trama also v.rare)
  2. Inability of DT/CD cells to respond to ADH
    ADH has no action in DCT
    Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
    Primary - ↓receptors/inability to bind due to mutation
    VERY rare

Secondary-
Reduced sensitivity to ADH-
E.coli toxins in pyelonephritis and pyometra/prostatic abscess or any pyogenic infection in the body
Hyperadrenocorticism - cortisol interacts with ADH at the receptor level

Interference with action of ADH at tubule:
Hypercalcaemia
Hypokalemia

ADH receptor downregulation:
Obstuction of ureters/ bladder - post-renal azotaemia conditions
Hypokalemia

  1. Osmotic Diuresis
    A minimum volume of water must be excreted with waste solutes by the kidney.
    Concentration of solutes within the glomerular filtrate > proximal tubular capacity for reabsorption
    = increased water excreted
    = primary polyuria
  2. Reduced medullary concentration gradient
    Unable to concentrate urine in Loop of Henle
    Controlled by Na+ and urea in medulla
650
Q

Chronic Kidney Disease

A

Nephrons are lost and replaced with inflammatory and fibrous tissue:
-Reduced water reabsorption within distal tubules and collecting ducts
-Inability to maintain counter-current mechanism

Signalment:
Older animals (any age!)

Clinical Signs
Weight loss, ↓BCS
Inappetence
PUPD
Oral ulcers

Diagnostics:
Biochem/haematology signs- Renal azotaemia, Non-regenerative anaemia (kidneys produce erythropoietin) , Hypokalaemia +/- hyperphosphatemia
Inappropriate USG
Proteinuria (UP:UC, dipstick)

651
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

Inflammation of the renal pelvis-
Acute or chronic
+/- Bacterial infection
Dogs>cats

Clinical signs:
PUPD:
Endotoxins interfere with ADH
Inflammation interferes with medullary osmotic gradient
Chronic ->loss of nephrons - >CKD

LUTD signs- haematuria, pollakiuria, dysuria, stranguria
Renal/lumbar spinal pain
Unilateral/bilateral renomegaly
Acute – pyrexia, lethargy

Diagnostics:
US
Haematology – left shift inflammatory leucogram
Urine culture & sensitivity (cystocentesis, pyelocentesis)

652
Q

pyometra

A

Infection in the progesterone-primed uterus
Usually E.coli

Signalment:
Older, entire bitches

Clinical Signs:
Open  mucoid to purulent discharge at vulva
Closed  lethargy, pyrexia, inappetance, V+D, PUPD

Diagnostics:
Left shift leucogram
Azotaemia
Imaging -> US +/- radiography

653
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

Signalment:
Cats >7yo

Clinical signs:
Polyphagia with weight loss
Intermittent V+D
Hyperactivity and behavioural changes
PUPD

Clinical exam:
↓ BCS
Tachycardia, heart murmur, gallop rhythm
+/- thyroid goitre

Diagnostics:
Biochem -> ↑ ALT, ↑tT4-
+/- free T4, TSH
CKD

654
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism

A

Signalment:
Middle aged-older Dog >6-9yo

Clinical signs:
PUPD
Polyphagia
Pot-bellied
Skin thinning, haircoat changes

Diagnostics:
Biochem -> ↑ALP
USG -> <1.020
ACTH stimulation test
Low dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDS)
Urine Cortisol:Creatinine ratio

655
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism

A

Loss of adrenocortical cells = glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency

Signalment:
Younger dogs – 2-5yo

Clinical signs:
Vague
“waxing and waning” GI signs
Collapse, shock

Diagnostics:
Biochem -> Na:K ratio<23
ACTH stimulation test

the great pretender- sometimes ccan cuase PUPD due to electrolyte imabalence bu this is not a common presentation

656
Q

Diabetes Mellitus

A

Persistent Hyperglycaemia and glucosuria

Signalment:
Dogs & cats, any age

Clinical signs:
Weight loss
Polyphagia
Lethargy
PUPD

Diagnostics:
Biochem -> hyperglycemia
Urine -> Glucose +
Fructosamine

657
Q

Hypercalcaemia

A

Hypercalcemia due to number of conditions:

Signalment:
Dogs>Cats

Clinical signs:
PUPD
Variable, depending on cause

Diagnostics:
Biochem ->↑ total Ca (influenced by albumin)- Ionised Ca
Work up depending on cause

Causes: HOGSINYARD
• Hyperparathyroidism
• Osteolysis
• Granulomatous disease
• Spurious (false or fake) sample
• Idiopathic (cats)
• Neoplasia
• Young animals
• Addisons (Hypoadrenocorticism)
• Renal disease
• D Hypervitaminosis D

658
Q

Hepatic Disease

A

Variable causes of hepatic disease

Signalment:
Dogs, any age
Cats

Clinical signs:
PUPD
Non specific, depending on cause

Diagnostics:
Biochem -> ↑ liver enzymes (ALT, ALP, GGT)
Function: ↓ urea, cholesterol, albumin, glucose- Bile Acid Stimulation Test
Imaging

659
Q

Central Diabetes insipidus:

A

rare

Lack of ADH by the hypothalamus/posterior pituitary

Causes:
Idiopathic
Neoplastic
Head trauma

Clinical signs:
Extreme PUPD

Diagnostics:
Only performed after exclusion of other causes of PUPD
USG <1.008
Water Deprivation Test – DANGEROUS, can caus ekidney faluire
Desmopressin trial

660
Q

Congenital Nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus:

A

rare
Lack of response to ADH by the kidney

Clinical signs:
Extreme PUPD

Diagnostics:
Only performed after exclusion of other causes of PUPD
USG <1.008
Water Deprivation Test – DANGEROUS
Desmopressin trial

661
Q

Primary Psychogenic Polydipsia

A

Rare
Behavioural, young dogs

Clinical signs:
Extreme PUPD

Diagnostics:
Only performed after exclusion of other causes of PUPD
Water Deprivation Test – Dangerous

662
Q

water deprivation test

A

depriving an animal of water then testing the urine specific gravity
if normal then test respones to synthetic ADH

if positive : Central Diabetes insipidus

if negative: Congenital Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

if USG is high: Primary Psychogenic Polydipsia

663
Q

In PUPD cases, what is more comon? primary polyurea or primary polydypsia

A

Primary Polyuria

664
Q

clinical examlple of PUPD-
History
10yo FE Staffordshire Bull Terrier
Drinking more for last 2 weeks
Off colour and vomiting, normal faeces
Possible weight loss?
Not sure whether spayed
No medications
No diet/environmental change

Clinical examination
Mucus membranes slightly tacky
Thoracic auscultation normal
Abdomen tense, difficult to palpate
No visible vaginal discharge
Temperature 39.2C

A

can rule out that its not drug related

Primary Problems
Polydipsia
Vomiting
Mild pyrexia

Probable secondary problems
Weight loss- due to vomiting
Inappetance - due to naeusea
5% dehydration- due to polydipsia and vominting

Differential diagnoses - PUPD
• Renal
• Hepatic
• Endocrine – diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus, hyperadrenocorticism, hypoadrenocorticism
• Infectious – pyelonephritis, pyometra
• Electrolytes – hypokalemia, hypercalcaemia
• Iatrogenic – diuretics, steroids etc

Differential diagnoses - Vomiting
Primary GI tract problem
Inflammatory, infectious, obstructive, motility disorder, toxic
Intra-abdominal, extra GI problem
Pancreatitis, diabetes mellitus, hepatitis, renal disease, pyometra, splenitis, hypoadrenocorticism, obstruction from large mass
Extra-abdominal
Fear, pain, vestibular disease, toxic

diagnostics-
Urinalysis- USG determine whther animal is truly PUPD, can show no protien, whether there is infection

bloods- CBC, can show dehydration (concentrated pcv), neutrophils can show infection, liver enzymes normal (rules out liver disease), electrolystes ok (rules out hyperthyroidism), calcium is fine (rules out hypoclacemia)

665
Q

azotaemia

A

azotemia is a biochemical abnormality, defined as elevation, or buildup of, nitrogenous products (BUN-usually ranging 7 to 21 mg/dL), creatinine in the blood, and other secondary waste products within the body

can be normal varitaion

an be pre renal, renal or post real

will not be detected in blood until about 70% of renal function is lost

666
Q

pre-renal azotaemia

A

any process that reduces RBF-
Dehydration/hypovolaemia
hypotension/shock

clinical signs- other indicators of hypovolaemia or shock
blood indictaiors of dehydration: PCV/ total protien/ lactate

667
Q

renal azotaemia

A

primary rena disease that results in reduced GFR
glomerular disease
tubular disease
interstitial disease

clinical signs- other indicators of hypovolaemia or shock
blood indictaiors of dehydration: PCV/ total protien/ lactate

668
Q

post renal azotaemia

A

defective excretion distal to the nephron
obstruction (increased intratubular pressure
rupture of urinary tract

generally distinctive in presentation- dysuria
reversable but may have renal component if nephron becomes damaged

669
Q

hyposthenuric

A

the secretion of urine of low specific gravity due to inability of the kidney to concentrate the urine normally.
can activly dilute urine so some function of idney

670
Q

hypersthenuric

A

A condition where the osmolality of the urine is elevated
activly concentrating urine, good nephorn function

671
Q

isosthenuric

A

Isosthenuria refers to the excretion of urine whose specific gravity (concentration) is neither greater (more concentrated) nor less (more diluted) than that of protein-free plasma, typically 1.008-1.012. Isosthenuria reflects damage to the kidney’s tubules or the renal medulla.

potential loss of nephron function

672
Q

RENAL FAILURE

A

Reduced renal function
Loss of renal reserve

Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)?
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)?
Acute-on-chronic?

What is causing the damage?
How much damage has been done?
Is it reversible?
What is the prognosis?

clinical signs-
URAEMIA

Polyuria/Polydypsia
Dehydration
Anorexia/inappetance
Weight loss
Vomiting
Halitosis
Oral ulceration
Gastrointestinal bleeding
Weakness / lethargy
Palor of mucous membranes
Neurological signs

673
Q

AKI

A

Acute kidney disease
Sudden onset of signs
Polyuria may progress to oliguria/anuria as renal function lost
Advanced signs of uraemia may not have had time to develop

674
Q

CKD

A

chronic kidney disease

Most common sign is weight loss

Advanced CKD is most common cause of uraemia

Usually have a long term history of PU & PD

URAEMIA
Polyuria/Polydypsia
Dehydration
Anorexia/inappetance
Weight loss
Vomiting
Halitosis
Oral ulceration
Gastrointestinal bleeding
Weakness / lethargy
Palor of mucous membranes
Neurological signs

675
Q

URAEMIA

A

a buildup of toxins in your blood. It occurs when the kidneys stop filtering toxins out through your urine.

Polyuria/Polydypsia
Dehydration
Anorexia/inappetance
Weight loss
Vomiting
Halitosis
Oral ulceration
Gastrointestinal bleeding
Weakness / lethargy
Palor of mucous membranes
Neurological signs

676
Q

Excretory failure

A

Due to diminished GFR
Retention of non-protein nitrogenous waste
BUN, Creatinine

677
Q

(renal) Metabolism Failure

A

Failure to catabolise some polypeptide hormones
Insulin, Glucagon, GH

678
Q

(renal) Failure to Synthesise

A

Failure to make calcitriol (vit D3)
- 2o hyperparathyroidism
Failure to synthesis erythropoietin
-anaemia

679
Q

effects of acccumulation of ‘uraemic toxins/substances

A

UREA- Weakness, anorexia, vomiting, glucose intolerance, haemostatic disorders

Creatinine
(Creatine, Guanidine etc)- Weight loss, platelet dysfunction

Peptides and polypeptide hormones:
Parathyoid hormone- Osteodsyrtophy
Insulin- Hyperinsulinamia
Growth Hormone- Insulin resistance

Aromatic amino acid derivatives:
Tryptophan, Tyrosine etc-Anorexia

Alphatic amines- Uraemic breath, encephalopathy

Ribonuclease- Impaired erythropoiesis

cAMP-Abnormal platelet function

680
Q

renal dysfunction

A

Inability to produce urine
Inability to concentrate or dilute urine in response to bodies requirements

681
Q

renal Electrolyte abnormalities

A

Hyponatraemia
- Renal sodium wastage
Hypo- or hyper- calcaemia
Hypo- or hyper- kalaemia
- alteration to secretory function
Hyperphosphataemia
- Renal retention of phosphate

682
Q

renal Acid-base homeostasis

A

Kidneys is vital for normal acid-base homeostasis, and to do so normally it must:
Reabsorb all the bicarbonate from the renal filtrate-
70-80% done in the proximal tubule
20-30% done in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

Excrete the daily metabolic acid load (H+ ions) generated - Active excretion takes place at DCT

Tubular dysfunction will result in;
Loss of bicarbonate in urine
Reduce acid secretion from DCT -> METABOLIC ACIDOSIS- RENAL TUBULAR ACIDOSIS

683
Q

renal dysfunctions role in systemic hypertension

A

Alteration in function or control of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system (RAAS) can have a profound effect on systemic blood pressure
Common complication of chronic renal failure in cats

684
Q

Clinical Features of Renal Failure

A

URAEMIA
Polyuria/Polydypsia
Dehydration
Anorexia/inappetance
Weight loss
Vomiting
Halitosis
Oral ulceration
Gastrointestinal bleeding
Weakness / lethargy
Palor of mucous membranes
Neurological signs

POSSIBLE DIAGNOSTIC FINDINGS
Azotaemia
Hyperphosphataemia
Metabolic acidosis
Systemic hypertension
Hyperkalaemia or hypokalaemia
Hypercalcaemia or hypocalcaemia
Anaemia (normocytic, normochromic)
Haemostatic disorder
Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Osteodystrophy
Hormone imbalances

685
Q

clinical sign of renal faliure

A

Acute:
Animal presents with sudden onset dullness, weak, off-food PU/PD or anuric/oliguric
OR, with signs of urinary obstruction/abdominal trauma
OR, with history of access / ingestion of known toxin, or nephrotoxic drug administration
WITH or WITHOUT signs of uraemia

Chronic:
Animal presents with long term weight loss only
Or, with weight loss and recent history of PU/PD for a few weeks
With possible history of vomiting (more likely in dogs)
Progressive weakness and evidence of pale mucous membranes

686
Q

diagnostic methods of renal faliur

A

Blood Biochemistry & Haematology

Identify Azotaemia
Investigate presence of;
Electrolyte abnormalities
Acid-base imbalance
Anaemia
Platelet disorders

OBTAIN A URINE SAMPLE
Establish the USG
Dogs = isosthenuric. Cats may have higher SG in CKD
Full urinalysis - look for signs of intrinsic renal failure

687
Q

Rabbit unique calcium metabolism

A

Blood calcium levels reflect dietary intake
Readily absorbed from intestines
Does not depend on activated vitamin D
Ionised and total calcium serum concentrations are higher than those in other species
Rabbit absolutely dependent on the kidney for calcium osmoregulation
Renal fractional excretion of calcium = 45-60% compared with <2% in mammals that regulate calcium uptake from the GI tract and eliminate excess in faeces.

688
Q

acute renal failure signs in exotics

A

Non specific (anorexia, lethargy)
Pain (bruxism – pain scoring recommended)
Other signs, e.g., GI ileus/stasis

689
Q

chronic renal failure signs in exotics

A

Weight loss
PUPD
Poor body condition
Occasionally haematuria
Reduced appetite
GI stasis

690
Q

Cystitis/urolithiasis signs in exotics

A

Urine scald
Vocalisation when passing urine
Haematuria
Urinary incontinence
Urine dribbling
Dysuria = Pain or burning sensation while passing urine.
Stranguria = Slow, painful discharge of small volumes of urine expelled only by straining despite a feeling of urgency
Pollakiuria = frequent, abnormal urination during the day.

691
Q

Common differential diagnoses for urinary disease in exotics

A

Infectious-
Bacterial
Viral
Parasitic- e.caniculli

Non-infectious-
Environmental
Urine sludge
Calculi – obstruction
Neoplasia
Toxic
Other diseases not related to urinary system
Prostatic cysts (endocrine)
Normal – porphyrin, food pigments

692
Q

causes of urinary disease in exotics

A

Diet
water Bottle vs bowl
Design of enclosure
Exercise – sedentary rabbits more prone to sludge
Conspecifics
Recent changes to husbandry or routine- extreme changes in temp
Vaccination status (rabbits & ferrets)- canine distemper , rhd
Neutering status (e.g., neutered male ferret may develop prostatic cysts or prostate enlargement )
Observation
Evaluate demeanour and stance

693
Q

diagnostics for uriary porblems in exotics

A

Blood work
Rabbits – Lateral saphenous vein, cephalic vein or marginal ear vein
Ferrets – Jugular vein or cranial vena cava (under GA)

Assess: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine (low normall levels in ferrets comparitivly), inorganic phosphate, total calcium, ionised calcium, potassium, PCV

Limitations-
Circadian rhythms
Diet can affect values
Muscle loss

Symmetrical dimethylarginine (SDMA) recommended
Serology for some disease processes: E. cuniculi serology

Radiography-
Abdominal radiography: Plain and contrast

Ultrasonography-
Bladder wall, neck or urethral abnormalities
Identification of cystoliths or urethroliths

Advanced imaging-
CT

Endoscopy
For species where challenging to distinguish between haematuria and vaginal/uterine bleeding  e.g., rabbits – urethra opens into the ventral aspect of the vaginal body

694
Q

Rabbit urinalysis

A

Rabbits excrete alkaline urine
Average volume produced = 130ml/kg/day (range 20-350ml/kg/day)
Urine pigments gives rabbit urine a yellow, brown or red colour.
Some pigments are a result of the breakdown of endogenous compounds  bile pigments, porphyrins, flavins
Food ingested can lead to urine colouration

Distinguish between haematuria and porphyrin pigments-
Positive reaction for blood on dipstick
Identifying >5 RBCs per high-power field on urine sediment examination.
Porphyrins may fluoresce under a Wood’s lamp

Excreted calcium precipitates in the alkaline urine to form calcium complex crystals  gives the urine a creamy and thick appearance.
Urine sediment can be seen normally in samples

695
Q

exotics urine sampling methods

A

Sampling techniques
Free catch from litter trained rabbits using non-absorbable products designed for cats as a replacement litter
Sedation and cystocentesis - recommended for obtaining a sample for culture
GA urethral catheterisation -diagnostic and therapeutic

Challenges – urinary catheterisation ferrets

Penis
J-shaped penis, making catheterisation tricky.

Os-penis
Palpated easily, caudal to preputial opening
Groove on the bone, supports urethra

696
Q

urinalysis in exotics

A

Urinalysis, sediment and bacterial C+S
C+S Only useful BEFORE antibiotic treatment started

Normal values (rabbit – Reusch et al, 2009; Varga Smith, 2022)
pH 7.6-8.3
Specific gravity 1.003-1.036
Leucocytes and erythrocytes occasionally seen <5RBCs hpf
Protein trace
Glucose trace
Ketones and occult blood absent
Casts, epithelial cells and bacteria absent
Crystals = large amounts of calcium carbonate monohydrate, anhydrous calcium carbonate and calcium oxalate and ammonium magnesium phosphate (struvite) may be seen
Urinary protein and creatinine ratio (UPC) 0.11-0.40

Species specific considerations - small rodents-
Urinary obstruction possible in male mice  infection of preputial and bulbourethral glands
Urine volume
0.5ml-2.5ml/day (mouse)
13-23ml/day (rat)
5.1-8.4ml/day (hamster)
2-4 drops/day (gerbil)

Most differences seen related to animal’s native environment and water conservation.
Gerbils- Loop of Henle is comparatively longer ->concentrate urine more effectively.

Urinary calculi common
Cystitis
Often older sows
Ascending infection
E. coli
Streptococcus spp.

697
Q

blood pressure in exotics

A

Systemic hypertension is a common feature of renal failure due to the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

Rabbits
Mean arterial blood pressure = 80-91mmHg
Systolic BP = 92.7-135mmHg
Diastolic BP = 64-75mmHg

Ferrets
Systolic BP = 80-120mmHg

698
Q

common causes of renal disease in rabbits

A

Common causes of renal disease
Encephalitozoon cuniculi
Chronic renal failure in older rabbits
Renoliths
Other urinary conditions -
Hypercalciuria/urine sludge
Bacterial nephritis
Hydronephrosis
Papillary necrosis with renal mineralisation.

699
Q

what is Most common causes of renal disease in pet rabbits

A

E.cuniculi

Infection with Encephalitozoon cuniculi – a microsporidian parasite
Diagnostics-
IgG & IgM E cuniculi serology
C-reactive protein
PCR

700
Q

Osmoregulation in birds

A

Kidneys
Large intestine
Salt glands (some species)

Renal system-
Kidneys
Ureters
Urodeum (structure in the cloaca)
Birds are uricotelic

701
Q

Avian kidney

A

Fixed, ventral depressions, synsacrum
Extend from the lungs to the caudal synsacrum
Renal fossa: symmetrical and retroperitoneal
Three distinct renal divisions
Do not have lobes but have lobules
Cortical (reptilian) nephrons – approx 70%
Mammalian (medullary) nephrons – approx. 30%
this means dosing is different
consider portla system
Relevance of the anatomy
Swelling of kidney -> neuropraxia: birds will present as lame

702
Q

Renal portal system

A

present in birds and reptiles

Makes a venous ring
Portal blood receives blood though:
External iliac veins
Internal iliac veins
The ischiatic veins
Caudal mesenteric vein
Renal portal valve shunts blood to kidney OR back to heart depending on adrenergic or cholinergic innervation
RELEVANCE = DRUGS AND INFECTION

703
Q

clinical signs of renal disease in birds

A

Observations-
Droppings in cage:
White urates = normal
Green = biliverdinuria (severe hepatic disease)
Golden yellow or brownish yellow = hepatic disease or vitamin administration
Red/brown = toxicity (lead), nephritis, haemolysis, polyomavirus, warfarin-type poisons

Clinical signs
Polyuria, anuria or oliguria
Polydipsia
Non-specific signs
Lameness

704
Q

diagnostics for renal disease in birds

A

Blood work-
Persistently high uric acid
Filtration decreased by 70-80% before plasma uric acid is elevated
UA may rise with severe dehydration
Will rise postprandially in carnivorous birds

Urinalysis-
Problems with sampling -need ureteral urine
Urinary GGT (some labs) - over 20 U/L suspicious of some renal insult.
NAG (N-acetyl-β-D-glucosaminidase  renal tubular enzyme (not available in many labs)  studied in chickens

Diagnostic imaging-
Radiography:
Kidney lies in a fossae on ventral surface of the synsacrum
Contrast may be beneficial

Ultrasound:
May be challenging due to air sacs but useful if kidney surrounded by fluid or tissue

CT:
IV in basilic (wing vein)- remember portal system, can cause nephrotoxicity

Endoscopy-
Renal biopsy to achieve a definitive diagnosis
Histopathology
Culture and sensitivity
PCR
Cytology – e.g., look for uric acid crystals

705
Q

differentials for renal disease in birds

A

Bacterial -> acquired from haematogenous route
Fungal -> Aspergillus spp.
Viral -> herpesvirus, adenovirus, paramyxovirus and avipoxvirus can affect the kidney as part of a generalised infectious process.
Parasites -> protozoal infections. Microsporidia have been found in association with nephritis
Nutrition ->Fatty liver/kidney syndrome
Neoplasia
Gout
Toxicities -> heavy metals, poisonous plants, potential nephrotoxic drugs
Obstructions ->cloacoliths, tumours, pressure from egg binding

706
Q

differentials for renal disease in reptiles

A

Environmental
Bacterial
Viral
Fungal
Parasitic (Hexamita or Entamoeba)
Calculi in species with a bladder
Gout
Neoplasia
Post hibernation complications

707
Q

risk factors and clinical designs of renal disease in reptiles

A

Risk factors-
Provision of purine rich high-protein diets
Low humidity
Lack or unsuitable water source
Nephrotoxic medications

Clinical signs-
Depression
Weakness
Dehydration
Pharyngeal oedema
Palpation of enlarged kidney (iguanas – via digital cloacal palpation)

708
Q

assesing dehydration in reptiles

A

PCV
BLOOD PROTEINS
URINE SG
SKIN TENTING
TACKY MMS
ALL UNRELIABLE

hibernating tortouses will recycle bladdder contents- can be cause of renal disease if the animal doesnt drink after waking

709
Q

roentgen signs

A

The radiologic (roentgen) signs are abnormal:

Number.
Position.
Size.
Shape.
Opacity.
Margination.
Decreased.
Congenital absence (rare)
710
Q

Left Atrial to Aortic root ratio

A

In veterinary clinical practice, the left atrial-to-aortic root ratio (LA/Ao) in right parasternal short axis view is the most commonly used method to evaluate left atrial (LA) size in dogs [6, 8, 12, 13, 26]. This ratio provides an index of LA size that is independent of body size.

dogs; <1.6
cats ; < 1.5 is normal. Typically cats with heart failure have significantly increased LA:Ao of >1.8.

711
Q

what are the steps to check the breathing system is safe and ready for use:

A
  1. Connect breathing system to anaesthetic machine and scavenging system

2.Cover patient end of breathing system with your thumb and close APL valve

  1. Fill breathing system with oxygen using flush button or turning oxygen flow meter on
  2. Squeeze inflated reservoir bag, check whether it keeps its shape/size and listen for sounds of leaking gas in any part of the system
  3. Open the APL valve with your thumb still in place
  4. Squeeze reservoir bag and check exit through scavenging tubing is patent
712
Q

radiography abdominal VD positioning

A

Positioning:
Use radiolucent cradle to ensure no axial rotation
Centring:
At level of caudal edge of last rib (slightly more caudal in cats)
In midline
Collimation
To greater trochanter caudally
To lateral body wall
Aim to include whole of abdomen in survey films

713
Q

radiograph anbdominal lateral positioning

A

Positioning:
Pad sternum +/- between hindlimbs to prevent axial rotation
Pull hindlimbs caudally (and forelimbs cranially)
Centring:
At level of caudal edge of last rib (slightly more caudally in cats)
Half to third way up from ventral body wall
Collimation
To greater trochanter caudally
To ventral body wall and collimate off some dorsal tissues if possible
Aim to include whole of abdomen in survey films

714
Q

advantages and disadvantages of using radiography to view the kidneys

A

Advantages:
Number, location, size, shape, symmetry
Presence of mineralised opacities
Addition of contrast agents useful

Disadvantages:
Beware of superimposition
Limited if fluid or lack of fat
No information on internal architecture

715
Q

Contrast Agents

A

Used when plain radiography gives insufficient organ detail

Positive Contrast Agents
High atomic number, e.g. compounds containing barium or iodine
Appear more radiopaque than surrounding body tissues

Negative Contrast Agents
Gases, e.g. room air or carbon dioxide
Appear radiolucent

716
Q

Intravenous Urography (IVU)

A

Positive contrast media

Anatomical and functional information-
IVU provides only very crude assessment of renal function (excretion)

Sequential radiographs taken
Information obtained at each stage of the IVU:
Immediate VD (kidneys)
5 mins – VD (whole abdomen)
10 mins – lateral (whole abdomen)
15 mins – lateral (bladder neck)
Others as needed

717
Q

advantages and disadvantages of using ultrasound to view the kidneys

A

can see images on different planes- saggital, transverse, dorsal

dorsal plane gives best view of pelvis
better view of internal archatechture

Advantages:
Safe, cheap, avoids ionising radiation
Assessment of internal architecture
Focus and diffuse lesions

Disadvantages:
Requires operator experience

718
Q

kidney ultrasound anatomy

A

Renal Cortex-
Evenly granular
Hypoechoic (occasionally isoechoic) to the liver in dogs
Often more echogenic in cats

Medulla-
Hypoechoic to cortex
Look for a good ‘cortico-medullary’ definition

Pelvis-
Recognised in the normal kidney by echogenic peripelvic fat

719
Q

advantages and disadvantages of using radiograph to view the blader

A

Plain Radiographs:
Advantages:
Detection of radiopaque cystoliths
Size and location
Addition of contrast agents can provide more information

Disdvantages:
Limited value for evaluating for disease without contrast

720
Q

Retrograde Contrast Cystography

A

Fast, simple, inexpensive
Sedated/GA required
Negative, positive or double contrast
Uses:
Bladder wall assessment
Location or integrity
Radiolucent cystouroliths

Which contrast media?
Air (pneumocystogram)
Cheap, readily available
Useful to identify bladder and show position and wall thickness
Poor mucosal detail and may miss small tears.
can very rarley casue air embolysm so some peopple use co2

Positive contrast cystogram
Expensive
Main indication is suspected bladder rupture

Double contrast cystogram-
similarly to a conventional cystogram, but gas is also introduced through the Foley catheter
Excellent mucosal detail and contrast puddle provides useful contrast (e.g. radiolucent calculi)

721
Q

advantages and disadvantages of using ultrasound to view the blader

A

Advantages:
Detect radiolucent cystourolith
Cystocentesis
Surrounding structure assessment

Disadvantages-
Degree of distension affects shape, size and wall thickness

Ultrasonographic appearance
3-layers
Inner mucosal interface (hyperechoic)
Muscle layer (hypoechoic)
Outer serosal layer (hyperechoic)

polyps will have no shadowing
cystolyths will have shadowing

722
Q

advantages and disadvantages of using radiography to view the uethra

A

Plain radiographs yield minimal diagnostic information
Always include entire pelvis and male urethra
2 lateral views: hindlimbs caudally and cranially

723
Q

Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease

A

A collection of conditions that can affect the bladder and/or urethra in cats:

Urolithiasis
Bacterial infections- RELlTIVLY UNCOMMON IN CATS, SEEN MORE IN OLDER CATS
Urethral plugs
Anatomical defects
Neoplasia
Feline Idiopathic cystitis- common, espessialy in younger cats

724
Q

Clinical Signs of FLUTD

A

Lower Urinary Tract signs:
Dysuria (77%)- +/- vocalisation &/or pain
Pollakiuria (78%)
Haematuria (71%)
Stranguria (70%)
Periuria (70%)
Signs of urethral obstruction?

Behavioural changes: - associated with PAIN
Loss of litter training
Aggression
Excessive grooming- Not just around rear but around caudoventral abdomen
“Constipation”
Stilted gait as are uncomfortable
Abdominal pain

725
Q

iFLUTD

A

The typical Feline Idiopathic cystitis cat:
young or middle aged (<10years)
neutered
overweight
inactive
mainly indoor
dry diet
multi cat house

New Theories:
Interstitial cystitis in people-
neurogenic inflammation
mucosal defects- Increased bladder wall permeability, Altered GAG layer

Neuroendocrine imbalance

triggered by stress

neurogenic inflamation- Characterised by submucosal histopathological changes in the urothelium
Damaged urothelium
vasodilation
haemorrhage
Lymphocytic infiltrate
Muscularis fibrosis
increased mast cells (20% of patients)

diagnosis-
Signalment
Are there any clues to the possible underlying cause?
Age of cat - infection or idiopathic cystitis?

Clinical history
Is this the first episode or a recurrent episode?
Are they a multi cat household? Stressful events recently?
Pattern of behaviour
Are there features that increase the likelihood of:
UTI
Neoplasia
Urolith

rule these out

managment-
iFLUTD…
pain relief – 5-7 days
how do we treat a disease if we don’t understand the cause?

Control the discomfort
Buprenorphine
Glucocorticoids have no benefit in clinical trials and may cause pupd

NSAIDs
placebo controlled trial with meloxicam showed no benefit (Dorsch 2009 ECVIM)
Flush the bladder with
saline –> urohydrodistension
Lidocaine
Self-limiting!

Increase water intake
Produce a dilute urine and increasing flushing out of bladder
wet diet
free access to water
water fountains
tuna water

reduce stress- consider social factors, resources

726
Q

physical examination of obstructed cat

A

Bladder palpation-
distended?
firm
painful

Penis discoloured +/or swollen
Dehydrated
Often systemically ill if obstructed
Bradycardia

Non obstructed cat-
Bladder palpation-
small
thickened?
painful?

Systemic signs are uncommon but could indicate concurrent disease

727
Q

flud diagnostics

A

Urinalysis

Haematology and Biochemistry-
Unremarkable unless systemic disease
Essential in obstructed cats

Radiography
+/- contrast

Ultrasound- Not for urethra!
Cystoscopy

Exclusion of other causes - iFLUTD

728
Q

Urethral Obstruction Causes

A

Uroliths-
Struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate)
Calcium oxalate

Urethral plugs-
Protein-colloid matrix
Mucoproteins, albumin, globulin
Cells – RBCs, WBCs, epithelial cells
+/- crystalline material

‘Idiopathic’ obstruction-
Functional not physical obstruction
urethral spasm
mucosal oedema

Complicating issue in male cats… a design fault!

729
Q

Unblocking the blocked cat

A

Stabilise the patient-
haematology, biochemistry, electrolytes- Correct the electrolyte disturbances; HyperK+-
Calcium gluconate if bradycardic, Dextrose

Fluid therapy in all cases-
Hartmann’s or 0.9% sodium chloride

Cystocentesis? – Care.-
Advance the needle through the bladder wall at a 45-degree angle directed toward the trigone

General anaesthesia

Aseptic technique and a gentle hand are fundamental to urethral catheter placement.-
Extrude the penis and retract it caudally to straighten the urethra.
Advance a urinary catheter into the urethra to the site of obstruction – never force past obstruction!
Saline flushing as catheter advanced
Rectal palpation by assistant

Once the urethra is patent, advance catheter
flush and drain the bladder multiple times with sterile saline to remove debris and help prevent rapid recurrent UO.

730
Q

Halsted’s Principles

A

Strict Asepsis
Gentle Tissue Handling
Haemostasis
Preservation of the blood supply
No tension on tissues
Good approximation of tissues
Obliteration of dead space

731
Q

maintaining haemostasis during surgery

A

applying Digital pressure- 60 seconds for minor, 5 mins for majour
Haemostats- crushes tissues
Packing with surgical swabs- good for deeper or more delecate tiussues, can disloge blood clots when removed
Lavage with saline- allows visulisation
Ligatures- good for thigs that likly wont clot
Topical haemostatic agents
Tourniquets- limb amputations
Diathermy- electrocautory

732
Q

Sutures

A

Placement of sutures in tissue
Sutures are used to:
Close tissue planes
Re-appose vital structures
close dead space
Retract tissues with minimal handling
Stabilize and exteriorize tissue and organs.

733
Q

Monofilament

A

Advantages:
Smooth surface
Low friction
less drag
less tissue trauma
No bacterial harbouring as nowhere to stick
No capillarity

Disadvantages
Poor handling
Poor knotting
‘Memory’
Stretch

734
Q

Multifilament

A

Advantages:
Strength
Soft & pliable
Good handling

Disadvantages
Harbour bacteria
Capillary action
‘wicking’ in the suture material gaps
Tissue trauma
Drag/chatter/cutting

735
Q

Absorbable sutures

A

Absorbable, or soluble, sutures undergo degradation and a rapid loss of tensile strength within 60 days
Intended primary for short term use
Good in feral cats/vicious animal

Absorption routes:
Proteolysis e.g. catgut
Hydrolysis e.g. vicryl

Advantages
Broken down by body
No foreign material left

Disadvantages
Shorter wound support

Examples:
Multifilament:
Catgut- bad for inflamation
Polyglactin 910 (vicryl)- well tolerated, long absorbtion

Monofilament
Polydioxanone (PDS)
Poliglecaprone 25 (monocryl)

736
Q

Catgut

A

multifilament

Removed (rapidly) by proteolysis & phagocytosis
Plain catgut approx. 7-10 days tensile strength
Chromic catgut 10-14 days
Any situation that needs short term support
Derived from ruminant intestine
Doesn’t have a predictable absorption rate so don’t know how long its going to last
known to produce intense tissue reactions.

737
Q

Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)

A

multifilament
Braided synthetic absorbable
Good handling
Good knotting
Coating ensures smooth passage through tissue

Also Vicryl Rapide

738
Q

Lactomer 9-1 (Polysorb)

A

Strong braided absorbable multifilament
Similar to vicryl
Finer, more compliant
superior handling, less memory
Tensile strength >21 days

739
Q

Polydioxanone (e.g. PDS, PDS II)

A

Synthetic absorbable monofilament
High initial strength
Predictable absorption
Long term wound support
e.g. linea alba or other tissues that take a while to heal
Smooth passage through tissue as is monofilament
Poor handling and poor knotting
Minimal tissue reaction

740
Q

Poliglecaprone 25 (e.g. Monocryl)

A

Monofilament synthetic absorbable
Excellent strength
Good handling
7 days 50% tensile strength remains

741
Q

Non-Absorbable sutures

A

Retained permanently or retain tensile strength >60 days
These elicit a tissue reaction that results in encapsulation of the material by fibrous tissue

Advantages
Permanent wound support (e.g. hernia)
Disadvantages
Suture sinus
Material becomes encapsulated and eventually becomes an abscess
Foreign body
Suture extrusion

742
Q

Silk

A

Twisted/Braided biological suture material
Made from silk worm cocoon
Non-absorbable- doeas technically but takes long time
Excellent handling
Suture standard
Good knot security
Nice and soft e.g. good to use for entropian

Disadvantages
Tissue reactions common
Rapid loss of strength
Ultimately fragments - eventually breaks off
Long term foreign body reactions
Never to be used in presence of infection

743
Q

Polyamide (Nylon e.g. monosof, ethilon)

A

non-absorbable
Monofilament or multifilament
Usually used for skin closure
High memory
Hydrolysed slowly

744
Q

principles of chosing suture material

A

tensile steanght should match streanghth of tissue
rate of loss of streangth should match wound gain of streangth
will sutre alter healing- reaction ect
mechanical prprties should match wound tissue

Suture characteristics
Suture/tissue interaction
Tissue characteristics
Wound characteristics
Patient factors
Surgeon factors

745
Q

Why spay?

A

Elective -prevention of breeding potential

Treatment of disease-Neoplasia, pyometra

Stabilise systemic disease e.g. diabetes
Population control
Increased lifespan

Commonly reported advantages for performing sterilisation are:
reduced risk of mammary neoplasia
reduced sexual behavioural problems
Reduced stress of pseudopregnancy

746
Q

When to spay?

A

Age:
Younger
Reduced risk mammary tumours https://bestbetsforvets.org/bet/579
Incidence of other neoplasia?

bitches >3 months post-season

747
Q

Ligaments of he uterus

A

Broad ligaments:
Mesometrium- uterus, cervix, vagina
Mesovarium- ovary
Mesosalpinx- surrounds oviduct
bursa formed by the mesovarium and mesosalphinx

Proper ligament of the ovary (O to H)
Suspensory ligament of the ovary (O to wall)- break to expose ovary
Round ligament of the uterus

748
Q

Open OVH/OVE method

A

Landmarks:
Caudal to umbilicus

Steps:
Stab incision for linea alba- insision extended via sissors
hook ovary
Stretch/break suspensory ligament
make window in mesometrium
Clamp & ligate pedicle
Transect the pedicle distal to ligatures
Check for haemorrhage
Repeat on other side

for ovh- ligate and cut at tip of uterine horn

749
Q

Laparoscopic OVE

A

Advantages:
Quicker return to activity

Less post operative pain
Weak evidence

Disadvantages:
Operator training and experience
Kit
Cost
Complications -> convert to open anyway

750
Q

Ovarian Remnant Syndrome

A

Oestral activity (2w-9years later)
More common after routine procedures
Hormonal investigations
? R > L ovary
may be easier to find residual tissue in oestrus.
may see enlarged ovarian vessels on functional side.
Submit tissue for histopath
Always open ovarian bursa after surgery to check whole ovary removed.

751
Q

Urinary Sphincter Mechanism Incompetence (USMI)

A

Most common non-neurogenic cause of canine incontinence
Typical case = older, spayed bitch

Several factors may be involved:
Ageing or lack of oestrogen cause changes in urethral support structures (collagen)
Abnormal position of bladder or urethra (“intra-pelvic bladder”)
Reduced amount of smooth muscle in the urethra
Obesity - increases intra-abdominal pressure and makes things worse
Breed predispositions (genetic factors?)

Recent systematic review stated evidence not strong enough to determine link between neutering or age of neutering and urinary incontinence in bitches

752
Q

OVH in the queen

A

Left flank:
Landmarks: iliac crest, greater trochanter and the caudal ribs

Advantages:
Reduced infection
Easier to monitor – ferals

Disadvantages:
Difficulty exposing repro tract?

Midline:
Umbilicus -> pubic brim
<12 weeks; go 2/3 of way back from umbilicus to pubic brim
halfway for > 12 weeks

Advantages:
Better exposure/visualisation
Larger wound e.g. pregnancy

Disadvantages:
Difficult to monitor e.g. feral
Increased contamination risk

753
Q

Why castrate?

A

Advantages
Prevention of some neoplasia
Prevention of testosterone-stimulated disease
Reduced male behaviour

Disadvantages
Increase risk of some neoplasia
Reduced male behaviour (important for guarding / performance dogs)
Delayed growth plate closure (if pre-pubertal neuter)
Can increase risk of fractures
Low testosterone (concern if castrated late)

754
Q

when to castrate

A

Early vs. conventional neutering

Fixed age?
Prepubertal?
Cats <4-6 months
Dogs – more variable

Early:
Delayed physeal closure (not shown to be associated with growth plate fracture)
? Increased risk of osteosarcoma in Rottweilers/ joint disease and neoplasia in Golden Retrievers

755
Q

relevent anatomy of testes

A

located in an evagination of the peritoneum (vaginal tunic)
covered by
Tunica albuginea
Visceral layer of vaginal tunic

Eight layers:
Skin (scrotum)
Dartos
External spermatic fascia
Cremaster muscle (only in one part)
Internal spermatic fascia
Parietal vaginal tunic
(Vaginal cavity)
Visceral vaginal tunic
Tunica abuginea
(Testis)
q

756
Q

surgical method of neutering the dog

A

Pre-operative evaluation:
Physical examination
Palpation of scrotum and inguinal canal
Check there are two descended testicles!
Pre-operative analgesia
General anaesthetic
Dorsal recumbency
Aseptic skin prep
Note: do not clip the scrotal hair!!
Single mid-line incision
Commonly performed as:
Modified (open then subsequently closed)
Closed
Open

Which approach?

Pre-scrotal:
Between scrotum and prepuce- most popular in dogs

Scrotal

757
Q

Open Castration

A

Internal spermatic fascia is incised
Provides direct visualisation of the spermatic cord and BV’s

758
Q

Closed Castration

A

Parietal vaginal tunic not incised

759
Q

What is the definition of a fertile ram?

A

“…capable of getting 85% of 60 normal healthy naturally cycling ewes in lamb in the first cycle in a commercial situation”

“…a mature ram lamb is expected to achieve pregnancies from 85% of 40 normal, healthy, naturally cycling ewes in the first cycle”

760
Q

stages of fertilaization involving the sperm

A

Sperm Capacitation- Freshly ejaculated sperm are unable or poorly able to fertilize. Rather, they must first undergo a series of changes known collectively as capacitation.

Sperm-Zona Pellucida Binding-
Binding of sperm to the zona pellucida is a receptor-ligand interaction with a high degree of species specificity. The carbohydrate groups on the zona pellucida glycoproteins function as sperm receptors.

The Acrosome Reaction- acrosome - a huge modified lysosome that is packed with zona-digesting enzymes and located around the anterior part of the sperm’s head.The acrosome reaction provides the sperm with an enzymatic drill to get throught the zona pellucida

Penetration of the Zona Pellucida- The constant propulsive force from the sperm’s flagellating tail, in combination with acrosomal enzymes, allow the sperm to create a tract through the zona pellucida. These two factors - motility and zona-digesting enzymes- allow the sperm to traverse the zona pellucida.

Sperm-Oocyte Binding- Once a sperm penetrates the zona pellucida, it binds to and fuses with the plasma membrane of the oocyte. Binding occurs at the posterior (post-acrosomal) region of the sperm head.

761
Q

Testosterone

A

Produced by the Leydig cells of the testes
Initiates Pubertal development of the testis then optimises spermatogenesis in adulthood
Targets the Sertoli cells

762
Q

Follicle Stimulating Hormone

A

Targets the Sertoli cells
Produced by the anterior pituitary gland
Initiates pubertal development and maintains spermatogenesis during adulthood

763
Q

Luteinizing Hormone

A

Produced by the anterior pituitary gland
Targets the Leydig cells

764
Q

Ram Fertility exam

A

3 stage process

1 – Full clinical exam and reproductive tract examination (RAM MOT)

2 - Pre-breeding exam (PBE)

3 – PBE certification

765
Q

How long does spermatogenesis take in the ram?

A

47–48days

766
Q

By what age do 90% of rams have a mature sized scrotal circumference?

A

> 14 months

767
Q

Methods of Semen Collection in ram

A

Artificial Vagina (AV Collection)-
Defined as ‘Gold Standard’
Attempt first if appropriate
Rams require training
Ewe Teaser – Be aware of Welfare Implications
Not practically Feasible in many commercial situations

Vaginal Aspiration (VA)-
Teaser Ewe required
Welfare
Disease Risk
Contamination – blood, pus, inflammatory exudate white cells
Difficult to Interpret
Ensure rams remain separated from ewes, ideally >14 days prior to examination

Electro Ejaculation (EEJ)-
Commonly Used in field conditions
A small population of Rams fail to ejaculate – caution with failing rams
Often highly successful following teasing

768
Q

asssesing Gross Motility
of sperm

A

A function of both motility and concentration

Low Power x 40

Scored on a Scale 1-5:
1 – No Swirl, generalised oscillation of individual cells only
2 – Very Slow distinct swirl
3 – Slow Distinct Swirl
4 – Moderately Fast Distinct Swirl
5 – Fast distinct swirl with continuous dark waves

769
Q

assesing Progressive Motility
of sperm

A

Perform at 100x and 400x Magnifications
Critical to perform
Previously 30% minimum acceptable
Now 60 % minimum acceptable
No circling, zig-zagging or floating

“… ability of individual cells to achieve progressive, unidirectional, linear motility at a rate of at least 1x times cell length per second”

770
Q

Morphological examination of semen sample

A

Relationship to ‘fertility’
Reflects Physiological and/or pathological status of the testes
Reflects maturation and transport processes occurring within the epididymides.
Useful diagnostic tool when dysfunction has been identified.

A MUST DO for PBE

Nigrosin Eosin Stained Smear
High Power magnification X1000 (X100 Lens)
Oil Immersion
Perform Morphology Count
Assess minimum 100 cells
≥70% to achieve Pass
Handling Issues Identified!

771
Q

Common Sperm abnormalities

A

Defects of the sperm head-
Pyriform Heads
Micro/Macrocephalic Sperm
Nuclear Vacuoles
Knobbed Acrosome Defect
Detached Heads

Defects of the sperm tail-
Proximal Cytoplasmic Droplets
Distal Cytoplasmic Droplets
Distal Midpiece Reflex
Severely coiled tails/Dag Defect
Coiled Principal Piece
Bent Tails - Hypotonic Shock
Abaxial Tails
Accessory Tails

772
Q

List 5 common disease of sheep which may affect ram fertility

A

Epididymitis (Brucella Ovis)-
Epididymitis is a venereal disease of rams caused by the bacteria Brucella ovis. Epididymitis means inflammation of the epididymitis, the tubular portion of the testicle that collects the sperm produced by the testes and stores it until it is ready to transport. Severely affected rams will often have at least one enlarged epididymis and may show pain when the testicle is manipulated.
can also be caused by Corynebac-
terium ovis (the “cheesy gland” germ

Brucellosis-
also known as ‘bruce-o’ is a bacterial disease that permanently infects the testes and epididymis of rams, rendering them infertile. It also temporarily infects the reproductive tracts of ewes, meaning that ewes can potentially spread the infection to uninfected rams. Rams also pick up infection from each other in the ram paddock.

Sheep brucellosis is practically incurable, so control of the disease relies on sound biosecurity and testing to eliminate infected animals.

large worm burdens

“pizzle-rot” or enzootic posthitis. Pizzle-rot is an infection of the sheath of the penis and is caused by the bacteria Corynebacterium renale. Pizzle-rot can also be caused by high protein diets that include a crude protein value higher than 16%.

773
Q

stages of labour in cattle

A

Stage one labour (start of contractions) : 8-12 hours
Stage two labour (from amniotic sac rupture to calf out): >2 hours
Stage three labour (passing of fetal membranes): 4-6 hours

Suggested intervention points during stage 2 (Oklahoma state research):
30 mins no progress cow
60 mins no progress heifer

774
Q

what is assessed in the initial examilation of a calving cow

A

Local conditions
(Mal)presentation
FM disproportion
Obstruction
Twins
Malformation
(Metabolic – hypocalcaemia- calcium drives muscle contraction)

775
Q

Feto-maternal disproportion

A

calf too big/ dam too small

Dam factors-
Age, weight, parity, BCS, nutrition

Calf factors-
Gestation length, breed, sire, exess nutriom

Bones or soft tissue?- bcs

Herd level significance?- cow selection? bull selection?

often causes crossed legs presentation due to stuck shoulders

776
Q

Obstruction in calving

A

Normal’- Undilated cervix

Abnormal- Undilated cervix- abnormal presentation causes abnoral factors and cervix doestn dilate
Uterine torsion- often have milk fever when corrected
Pelvic abnormalities

777
Q

Obstruction in calving

A

Normal’- Undilated cervix

Abnormal- Undilated cervix- abnormal presentation causes abnoral factors and cervix doestn dilate
Uterine torsion- often have milk fever when corrected
Pelvic abnormalities

778
Q

Immediate post-calving management

A

‘Tears and Spares’ check
Rehydration
Nutrition
Management of stress
Client management
Lessons to be learned
Herd-level implications

Retained fetal membranes
Nerve damage
Tears or bleeding
Uterine prolapse
Hypocalcaemia
Trauma
(Other concurrent disease)

779
Q

Management of the neonate

A

Start breathing
Shock, rubbing, positioning
Assisted ventilation
Correct acidosis

Iodine navel
Colostrum
ID

780
Q

Management of the neonate

A

Start breathing
Shock, rubbing, positioning
Assisted ventilation
Correct acidosis

Iodine navel
Colostrum
ID

781
Q

if the dominant bull is infertile…

A

he will stop fertile bulls servicing cows while not servicing cows himself

782
Q

Fully fertile mature bull running with 50 cycling healthy cows should deliver:

A

60% in calf in 3 weeks

<10% empty after 9 weeks- this can be skewed by issues with the cows

TAKE CARE!-
Herd circumstances- weather, grass quality , diet, heat stressect
Changing status

783
Q

name a few causes of infertility in bulls

A

Poor libido
Injury
Overwork
Nutrition
Corpus cavernosum rupture
Persistent frenulum
Corkscrew deviation
IPBP
Penile trauma

Fibropapilloma
Testicular hypoplasia
Orchitis
Epidydimitis
Seminal vesiculitis
Testicular degeneration
Systemic illness
BVD
Genetic malformation
Iatrogenic

these can be catagorised as:
Failure to mount

Failure to achieve intromission/ejaculate

Failure to achieve fertilization
Reaching the ovum
Producing a viable zygote

784
Q

Bull Breeding Soundness Evaluation

A

Physical exam- bull must Sustain himself
Locate females in oestrus
Mount those females
BCS- too thin= underlyign health issue. to fat= testicles retain too much heat

Heart &lungs

Eyes

Jaw
Locomotion- Lameness
Conformation- strain when working, genetics
Abnormalities
External genitalia
Palpation of testes

External genitalia
Scrotal circumference

External genitalia
Penis

Internal genitalia
Accessory sex glands

Semen analysis- bull bust Inseminate
Fertilize

Libido/service assessment- bull must NOT KILL ANYONE IN THE PROCESS

Infectious disease?- bull from small closed heard would be niave to infectous disease

785
Q

semen collection in bull

A

Mated female- Internal AV inseted into cow in heat

Artificial vagina

Ampullae massage

Electroejaculation (EEJ)

786
Q

Fresh cow check

A

Health check
Temp, smell (infection), rumen fill, hydration
Appetite
+/- Ketones
+/- Vaginal exam

787
Q

Metritis

A

Uterine infection post calving (~3 – 21dim, mainly 4-7d)-
Voluminous purulent discharge
Smelly, red-brown usually

Involves the myometrium and the endometrium
Usually results in systemic illness
Fever
Inappetence
Depression

Treatment:
Systemic antibiotics
NSAID
Fluid therapy
Energy – prop glycol

Herd situation?

prevelance- 3%- 25% of cows

~$500/case (J. Perez-Baez 2021)

788
Q

Post Natal Check

A

Often around 30 days in milk

Two assessments:
Resumption of normal cyclicity
Uterus involuted and free of infection- Endometritis, Abscesses

Herd level assessment useful-
Proportion of cows cycling
Proportion of cows ‘dirty’

789
Q

Endometritis

A

Uterine infection limited to the endometrium
>21days in milk
Often called ‘whites’ – white, purulent discharge
No systemic effects on cow health
~£160/case (AHDB)
Diagnosis – vaginal exam, metricheck, US
Treatment – if CL; PGF2a, or ‘washout’. cow to be taken out of progeserone heavy staye and put into estrus as its protective against infection

discharge can be graed 0-3- metri checker

790
Q

Post calving uterine infections

A

thickened wall
see puss on ultrasound

dystocia risk factor- malpresentation, twins
age
metabolic stasis
poor imune function
stress
concurrent disease
hygean
retained fetal membranes

791
Q

Not Seen Bulling cow check

A

After voluntary wait period (~50dim)
Assess whether cow not been or not seen in oestrus
Various hormonal interventions available
Interventions escalate in severity as DIM increases
(Heat delay/service delay)
Beware of pregnancy!

Actions depend on DIM, ovarian status, co-morbidities;
PGF2alpha
GnRH
P4
(Oestrogens – not in UK/EU)

Synchronisation protocols
~100% submission rate
Double prost
Ovsynch 56
CIDR/PRID synch
Cosynch…

Pregnant!
Cystic ovaries-
Follicular cyst – thin walled, fluid filled structure >30mm diameter persisting on the ovary for >10 days in the absence of a CL
Luteal cyst/part luteinised cyst – wall
thickness greater than 3mm

True anoestrus

Uterine disease-
Chronic endometritis, pyometra, mucometra

Difficult to truly diagnose ovarian dysfunction at one visit!

792
Q

cow Pregnancy Diagnosis

A

Transrectal ultrasonography: >28 days
Manual palpation: >~35 days
Later gestation – fremitus, cotyledon bouncing
PAG testing ( pregnancy assosiated glycoprotien)– milk recording
Progesterone monitoring – eg De Laval VMS systems
Knocking
Non-return (animal does not appear to come back into heat)

Benefits of transrectal ultrasonography vs manual:
More accurate assessment of uterus (and ovarian structures)
Can detect twins
Can detect fetal heartbeat and assess viability
Less likely to cause iatrogenic abortion
Can sex embryos (55-60d)

Benefits of manual palpation
Cheap, no kit required
Possibly easier in later gestation than US?

793
Q

Aging Pregnancies

A

Farm records!
Practice
Ultrasonography
Manual palpation

794
Q

diagnosisng twins in cows

A

multiple corpora lutea- most commonly double ovulation rather than split embryo
twin line
two fetus visible

often one fetus may dies

795
Q

Submission Rate

A

Proportion of eligible animals served within a given time period (usually 21 days)

AYR target: >60%

All about heat detection
Provided cows are cycling

factors effecting it:
enviromental factors- confidence in floor, light, fpace
managment factors- fertility interventions, what other cows they are housed with
cow factors- health, genetics

796
Q

Conception Rate

A

Proportion of served animals Pregnant at PD
Not a true measure of fertilisation rate-
effected by when you PD
(Early Eembrionic Death /Late ED)
AYR target >40%

factors:
enviroment- cow comfort, flooring, temp, food and water
managment factors- bull choice, breed choice, teqnique

cow factors- health, uterine enviroment

797
Q

Pregnancy Rate

A

Proportion of eligible animals pregnant in a given time period (usually 21 days)

PR = Submission Rate x Conception Rate

For example: (SR 60%) x (CR 40%) = PR 24%

AYR target: >20%

798
Q

Block Calving Systems

A

Spring vs Autumn
Resource planning and requirements
Cow choice
Seasonal management strategy
Seasonal output

spring block- smaller cow, lower grazing. peak yeailds= peak grass growth
autumn block= larger cow

799
Q

Block calving fertility management

A

Fertility visit structure:
Clean checks
PSM -21d
PSM -7d
PSM +7d
PSM +21d
PDs
Different strategies

12 block calving- 12 block breeding- fertility managment for year over

800
Q

Block Calving KPIs

A

Submission Rate: >90%
Conception Rate: >60%
3 week I/C rate: >50%
6 week I/C rate: >75%
12 week empty rate: <8%

Often AI and bulls

801
Q

KPIs

A

key performance indicators for cow fertility

802
Q

Heifer management

A

Aim to calve in well-grown heifers by 24 months
Which means they need to be In Calf at 15 months-
Heat detection
Synchronisation

start inseminating at 12 months
Age at first calving KPIs…
Av vs %?

Better measures?
% 2nd lact?

803
Q

follicular stasis

A

reproductive condition ofchelonians
Pre-ovulatory egg binding
Often seen in the older, female tortoise kept alone
If follicles are not resorbed  inflammation of the follicles  coelomitis
CS  anorexia, HL paresis, generalised weakness

Due to an inability to produce progesterone  failure of regression of follicles.
Recent exposure to a male after a period of prior isolation?
Inappropriate diet?
Inappropriate husbandry?
Stress?
Lack of hibernation, light and temperature change?
Still in need of further research

disgnosis-
Blood work – raised calcium, raised proteins
Ultrasonography
Advanced imaging

treatment-
Fluids
Nutritional support
Correct husbandry
Often surgical  hormonal implants ineffective for these cases

804
Q

COELIOTOMY

A

entering the coelomic cavity
Ligation – haemoclips or absorbable monofilament suture material
Closure - absorbable monofilament suture material
Skin closure
Everting suture pattern
Suture choice often non-absorbable and strong.
Skin suture removal not to be removed for at least 6-10 weeks

805
Q

PLASTRONOTOMY

A

Heart > in the midline intersection of the pectoral and abdominal scutes.
Plastron hinge -: often between the abdominal and femoral scutes.
Abdominal veins - parallel, running in a craniocaudal direction below the plastron

806
Q

Ovariectomy in chelonians

A

The prefemoral approach-
Preferred method if possible – less traumatic and faster recovery time
Useful in species with a larger prefemoral fossa
Craniocaudal incision is made in the skin
Blunt dissect underlying abdominal muscles
Dissect coelomic membrane
Closure – simple interrupted or continuous pattern for coelomic membrane, muscle and fat.
Closure – everting pattern for the skin

807
Q

Dystocia – egg retention

A

Non-obstructive factors
Lack of suitable nesting site
Stress
Hypocalcaemia
Infection of oviduct
Poor muscle tone
Obstructive factors
Oversized eggs
Malformed eggs
Oviductal stricture
Space occupying lesions

Clinical signs-
No presenting signs are pathognomonic for dystocia
No signs
Abnormal posture
Hind limb paresis
Anorexia
Malodorous cloacal discharge
Faecal or urinary retention
Cloacal organ prolapse

treatment- chelonians
Fluids
Nutritional Support
Provision of nesting site
Calcium gluconate
Oxytocin-
Induces parturition/egg laying when uterine inertia is present (as long as there is no evidence of obstruction)

trteatment- lizards and snakes

More commonly seen in oviparous (egg-laying snakes) >pythons, rat snakes, king snakes milk snake
Less commonly seen in ovoviviparous (live-bearing) snakes > boas, garter snakes

808
Q

cloacla prolapse

A

Prolapse – advice to client moist substrate (no woodchip or sand), lubricate tissue
Cover with cling film/glove
Identify tissue

Gastrointestinal impactions
Dystocia
Parasitism
Hypocalcaemia
Space occupying lesion

Faecal/foreign body impaction

Dystocia

Ultrasonography – follicles
Blood work – hypocal
Faecal analysis - parasites

treatment-
Address underlying causes
Analgesia
General anaesthetic to replace prolapse-
Manually
Surgically
Care – must check for intussusception
Amputation >necrotic phallus

809
Q

dystocia of birds

A

Dystocia-
Caudal uterus
Vagina
Uterovaginal sphincter

EMERGENCY if compresses blood vessels and/or nerves
Radiography (conscious)

treatment-
Stabilisation
Warmth
Fluid therapy
Calcium
PGE2 gel
GA  manual delivery

810
Q

Chronic egg laying in birds

A

Small psittacines >cockatiels
Produce repeated clutches or a larger than normal clutch
Depletion of calcium and protein stores
Poor bone density
Weight loss
Pathological fractures
Dystocia

prevetion-
Environmental modification-
Reduce photoperiod
Remove nesting material

Behavioural modification-
Training
Leaving in eggs

Nutritional modification-
Encourage foraging

Hormonal manipulation-
Deslorelin (Suprelorin)-
Desensitises GnRH receptors, thereby decreasing release of LH & FSH
Cabergoline (Galastop)-
Potent selective inhibition of prolactin
May have beneficial effect in birds with chronic egg laying.
In birds it also conjectured that its action could be mediated via its effect as a dopamine agonist.
Leuprolide acetate (Lupron)-
Leuprolide acetate is a synthetic nonapeptide that is a potent gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptor (GnRHR) agonist

811
Q

What is mastitis and how do cows get it?

A

Pathogen gets into the udder cistern → inflammation of the mammary gland

All mastitis risk factors fit into at least one of 3 categories:
The udders natural defences are compromised
Bacteria numbers are increased at the teat end
The udders natural defences are by-passed

Mastitis is a game of risk and numbers!
Teat skin should be smooth, thick firmly adhered, no glands.

Defenses:
The Teat (Streak) Canal:
Keratinocytes
Lipid secretions
Sphincter muscle

Phagocytes (somatic cells)
Frequent milking
Antibodies
Lactoferrin

Classifications:
Peracute/ acute / chronic
Clinical / sub-clinical
Environmental / contagious

From a therapeutic perspective may be graded as
Mild - abnormal milk
Moderate - abnormal milk and abnormal gland
Severe - abnormal milk, abnormal gland, and sick cow

812
Q

clinical signs of mastitis in the individual cow

A

Abnormal milk and/or udder-
Secretion
Size
Texture

Agalactia-n absence or faulty secretion of milk
Blind or non-functional glands
Hungry neonate- esspecially in beef hers, a hungry calf might be a problem with the cow
Pain – altered gait
Enlargement of the supramammary lymph nodes
Teat and skin lesions

Visual examination (Gland and teats)- hard? hot?
Palpation of the gland
Palpation of the supra mammary lymph nodes- inflamed?
Inspect mammary gland secretions (stripping)- thick clots?
Perform a California Mastitis Test (Rapid Mastitis Test)
Check the skin adjacent to the udder
Inspect and palpate the mammary veins

813
Q

California milk test (CMT)

A

The test uses a reagent that is added to a sample of milk. If the test is positive and a quarter is infected, the CMT mixture will appear thickened and gel-like.

good for subclinical disease

814
Q

Septic mastitis

A

Most commonly caused by coliforms
Systemic signs of endotoxemia in severe cases-
weakness, depression, inappetence
fever, scleral injection
tachycardia, tachypnea
rumen stasis, diarrhea

Endotoxaemia induces hypocalcaemia
Bacteraemia
Mortality common with endotoxic shock,
MODS

815
Q

Summer mastitis

A

“Dry cow” or “Summer” mastitis, caused by Trueperella pyogenes
Most infections occur during the dry period
The incidence of infection is increased by filthy, wet, or muddy environments for dry cows
Purulent infection often leads to abscessation of the gland
The organism may be spread by flies

816
Q

Pathogen diagnosis-mastitic cow

A

(+/- clinical signs, SCC, response to treatment)
Individual milk culture or PCR
some may be on far- to detect gram neg strainsdue to that being able tobe treated without antibiotics

817
Q

signs of mastitis in the herd

A

Bulk Milk Cell Count is too high (over 200) – I’m not being paid the quality bonus

There are too many clinical cases – I’m spending too much time treating cows after milking

Bulk Milk Cell Count is too high (over 400) – the milk company is going to penalise me

I have too many chronic high SCC cows that won’t cure – I am culling too many cows

I’ve lost another cow to E.coli, that’s the 3 one this month- too many cows are dying and they are expesive to replace

common causes from most common to least:

818
Q

signs of mastitis in the herd

A

Bulk Milk Cell Count is too high (over 200) – I’m not being paid the quality bonus

There are too many clinical cases – I’m spending too much time treating cows after milking

Bulk Milk Cell Count is too high (over 400) – the milk company is going to penalise me

I have too many chronic high SCC cows that won’t cure – I am culling too many cows

I’ve lost another cow to E.coli, that’s the 3 one this month- too many cows are dying and they are expesive to replace

common causes from most common to least:
Incorrect teat spray volume or application
Teat end damage
Excessive vacuum
Over milking
Under milking
Unsuitable teat cup liners
Cup slip
poor cluster removal

819
Q

what shoud be investigated whnn investigating a herd wide problem with mastitis

A

Staff and Farm profile
Bulk and Individual cow SCC
Clinical case data
Milk cultures & PCR
Milking machine static test
Milking machine dynamic test
Milking routine
Cow:parlour interaction
teat cup slips
Teat condition
Cow behaviour
milking time per cow
Completeness of milking
cluster alignment
Teat disinfection
The environment
Drying off
Calving

820
Q

clinical signs of mastitits within a herd

A

Genetics report- to inform rate of mastitis resistance improvement?

Age demographic and replacement rate of the herd
Purchases from other herds? Were any herd checks done beforehand?
Any culls for clinical mastitis?

High BMSCC
High Bactoscan
High number of clinical cases
High number of repeat cases
High number of chronic SCC numbers
High number of deaths from mastitis

821
Q

Milk quality & herd mastitis surveillance

A

Herd mastitis surveillance:
Tests performed by the milk factory on Bulk Tank Milk include:
Bulk Milk Cell Count (BMCC)
Protein, Fat, Urea
Total plate count or Bactoscan
Coliform count
Thermoduric count
Freeze Point (extraneous water)

On farm data
Clinical case rates
Culling/death rate for mastitis
Antibiotic IMM tube use
Herd recording (Individual Cow Somatic Cell Counts – ICSCC)/ (Conductivity-robots)

Lab tests:
Individual cow milk cultures (or PCR)
Bulk Milk PCR (for Strep agalactiae or Mycoplasma)

Milking machine test report
(eg Vardia/ Advanced Milking Solutions

822
Q

WHY PERFORM A REPRODUCTIVE EXAM n a mare

A

Pre-breeding
•Breeding management (detection of follicular growth/optimum time to breed/post breeding problems)
•Infertility workup
•Pre-purchase examination
•Pregnancy diagnosis
•Import/Export- some regulations require it

823
Q

Poor conformation of the vulva in the mare can lead to

A

Pneumo-Urovagina
■Vaginitis, cervicitis, endometritis
■Infertility

can be negated with caslick

824
Q

Windsucker Test

A

Part the vulvar lips and listen for an in-rush of air•Tests the integrity of the vaginal vestibular sphincter

825
Q

tr a n s r e c t a l U l t r a s o u n d in the mare

A

Uterus:Cycle staging-
•Estrus:endometrial folds•Diestrus: homogenus echotexture

Endometrial cysts•Intrauterine fluid•Pregnancy (twins, sexing, viability)•Abnormalities

826
Q

vaginal exam of the mare

A

Visual exam:
■Speculum exam
■Vaginoscopy-
Allows to evaluate:

A. Changes in cervix during estrus cycle-
ESTRUS:
■Secretions ↑ (moist)
■Vascularity ↑ (pink)
■Relaxation ↑ (open)

DIESTRUS:
■Secretions↓ (dry
Vascularity↓ (pale)
■Relaxation↓ (closed)

B. Abnormalities■Anatomical■Accumulation material (urine, pus, blood)■Inflammation (vaginitis, cervicitis)■Varicosities■Tears/Lacerations (cervix, vagina)■Adhesions

  1. Manual Exam (digital evaluation):
    ■Cervix integrity:■Patency■Tone■Adhesions■Other abnormalities (Better evaluated in diestrus)
    ■Vagina integrity
827
Q

how is daily sperm output of the stallion is linearly related to testis mass:

A

■Mass can be estimated by measuring testis volume:
■TV=0.52heightwidthlength
■DSO=(0.024
TV)-0.76 (billions)

828
Q

semen collection methods from the stallion

A

First consider:
■Restraint
■Tr a i n e d p e r s o n n e l
■Proper facilities
■Estrous female, phantom

Methods:
■Artificial vagina
■Electroejaculation
■Manual collection

829
Q

Semen Evaluation in the stallion

A

Odour
■Volume
■Color
■Sperm concentration (100-400 million/ml)
■To t a l n u m b e r of sperm
■Sperm motility
■Semen pH (optional)
■Sperm morphology
■Cytology - other cell types
■Bacteriology / virology
■Flow cytometry/fluorescence(advanced)

830
Q

Hemospermia

A

still fertile
indicates problems within stallion
hard to preserve

831
Q

Oligospermia/azoospermia

A

no/ reduced sprem production

Obstructive disease-
■Alkaline phosphatase

■Testicular degeneration (Idiopatic or after insult)
■Te s t i c u l a r h y p o p l a s i a
■Overuse

832
Q

bitch oestrus cycle

A

Pro-oestrous (10 days)- peak in oestrogen
Oestrous (10 days)- behavioural definition, bitch is receptive
Luteal phase- metoestrus/ dioestrus (2 month)- progesterone and lh spike
Pregnant or non-pregnant
Anoestrous (4.5 months)

P4 from CL only
LH and prolactin luteotrophic- help maintain cl and therefore progesterone

833
Q

bitch gestation

A

Average gestation in the bitch is 63-64 days (range 56-72 days)
calculated either from
preovulatory surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) (65 ± 1 days)
day of ovulation (63 ± 1 days)
time of fertilization (60 ± 1 days)

834
Q

General principles of small animal pregnancy diagnosis

A

Detection of protein / endocrinological changes associated with pregnancy

  1. Detection of the fetus or fetal membranes either directly or indirectly:
    Abdominal palpation
    Ultrasound examination
    Radiographic examination
  2. Detection of physical changes in the dam which are associated with her accommodating a fetus (increased size of the uterus)
  3. Detection of maternal changes that are secondary to endocrinological changes

History
When was she mated?
Have you noticed any changes in size of abdomen/teats?
Have you noticed any changes in behaviour?
Have you noticed any vulval discharge?
When was her last season?- if shes in luteal phase it could be pyo

835
Q

clinical signs of small animal pregnacy

A

Secondary Changes-
Teat and mammary gland-more obvious in first timer-
Reddening
Enlargement
Secretions- small amount o vaginal secretion at beginning
Increase HR

Physical Changes-
Increased appetite
Weight gain
Abdominal enlargement in later pregnancy
Relaxation of the perineal tissue/vulva

836
Q

Plasma Progesterone Concentration for pregnancy diagnosis in bithc

A

No rapid return to oestrus
Not sufficiently different between pregnant and non-pregnant bitches
this is why psuedo pregancy occurs
can use plasma relaxin conc instead

837
Q

Plasma Relaxin Concentration for pregnacy diagnosis in the bitch

A

Values elevated in pregnancy from day 25 onwards and are diagnostic whilst a viable placenta is present
better than progesterone

838
Q

when can abdominal palpation diagnose pregnancy in the bitch

A

From 21 days
Before this, the pregnant and non-pregnant uterus is not reliably palpated

Day 21 – 32
Aprox 1.5-3.5cm, round, firm and well separated
“Chain of walnuts”

After day 32
Gestational sacs become more confluent and lose their distinction - “sausages”

After day 50 the puppies may be balloted directly

839
Q

radiography for pregancy diagnossi in the bitch

A

Limited use in early pregnancy as Fetal calcification after day 41-44 (av – 42d)- uterus may be seen to be enlarged but this may also be pyo
So radiographic diagnosis from day 45
Can determine number, position and relative size of fetuses from d50
Valuable in dystocia cases
gold standard for determining number

840
Q

ultrasonography for pregnancy diagnosis

A

Fetal structures from day 17
Fetal heartbeats detected from approx. 24-28 days of pregnancy
Cannot assess number of fetuses
Has limitations, particularly in early gestation
Cannot be accurately used to count foetuses
Fetal heart movements 28-30 days after ovulation IF known
False negatives
False positives

841
Q

using ultrasonography for gestational age

A

Appearance of certain organs
E.g. kidneys last 20 days of gestation (see table for reference)

Measurement of foetal dimensions – less useful in later gestation-
Gestational sac (or chorionic cavity) diameter in early pregnancy
Crown-rump length
Head diameter
Trunk diameter

Nb. These measurements are breed-specific

842
Q

Pseudopregnancy

A

All entire non-pregnant bitches go through pseudopregnancy
Long luteal phase (~66d)
Clinical signs  Prolactin
Covert/physiological
Overt/Clinical

Queen-
Sterile matings
Behaviours less commonly seen
Hyperaemia of nipples as in pregnancy - red teats

What do you do?-

Nothing

Prolactin inhibitors-
Cabergoline (galastop, finilac)
Bromocriptine

Do not spay

843
Q

Pyometra

A

Occurs during the luteal phase
Due to bacterial colonisation at oestrus
Can be open or closed
Most common in middle aged and elderly bitches
Pyometra may also be induced by:
therapeutic administration of oestrogens for treatment of unwanted pregnancy
therapeutic administration of progestogens for prevention of oestrus

844
Q

Pregnancy Diagnosis (Queen)

A

Polyoestrous
Return to oestrous confirms non-pregnancy
BUT lack of return is not specific for pregnancy

Behavioural changes not useful
Physical changes.. Can be subtle
Reddening of mammary glands d21
Enlargement of mammary glands d50

Manual palpation – d21-25 optimal
Relaxin – d25
Ultrasonography – 3 weeks post mating
Radiography – mineralisation of fetal skeleton at d40.

845
Q

Accidental Pregnancies

A

Indications:
Unwanted mating (misalliance)
Size mismatch
Age
High risk of dystocia
Medical indications
Get a good history
+/- vaginal cytology

Options:

Surgical Approach- overyhystorectamy in late pregnacy
ovaryectomy in early pregnacy- ONLY IN EARLY PREGNANCY

  1. Pharmacological Approach

Drugs that act on the uterus:

Oestrogens e.g. oestradiol benzoate
Alters transit time of zygote
Within first 5 days of mating
not common due to side effects

Anti-progestogens
Synthetic steroids that compete with progesterone
Aglepristone (Alizin)
Day 1 - 45

Drugs that act on the ovaries:

Prostaglandins – luteolytic
Bitch and Queen corpora lutea are ‘autonomous’ for first 15 days of luteal phase
PG’s of little use before day 20
Repeated treatments are necessary
dogs very sensitive to it so not first line

Drugs that act on the pituitary gland:
Dopamine agonists (prolactin inhibitors) e.g. bromocriptine and cabergoline
No activity before 30d, moderate activity 30-40d

Suspected/Early pregnancy – Aglepristone
Mid-pregnancy 22-40 days – Aglepristone
Confirm by USS before and after (10d), repeat if necessary
Signs of parturition
Late pregnancy >40d after mating
PGF2a
Dopamine agonists
Combination

846
Q

Predicting parturition

A

Bitch
A number of clinical indicators of impending parturition may be used, including:
Measurement of progesterone and LH during oestrous
Behavioural changes close to parturition- Restless
Seek seclusion/excessively attentive
Inappetant
Nesting behaviour
Shivering

Clinical signs close to parturition-
Relaxation of pelvic, perineal and abdominal musculature
Increased HR

Decline in body temperature
Measurement of progesterone in late pregnancy- rappid drop indicates partuition Around ovulation assists in prediction of whelping dates:
the date on which progesterone first exceeds 1.8 ng/mL (~2 ng/mL) predicted the day of parturition within:
±1 day – 67% precision
±2 days – 90%
±3 days - 100%

Around due date:
<2.8ng/ml = 99% chance of whelping within 48 hours
<1.0ng/ml = 100%
>5ng/ml = <2% chance of spontaneous parturition within 12 hrs

Diagnostic imaging

Queen
Induced ovulator – ovulation follows mating by 24-36 hours
Gestation = 52 to 74 days when recorded from the last mating or first mating to parturition, mean pregnancy length is 65– 66 days.
No significant reduction in temperature

847
Q

stages of partuition- bitch

A

Stages:
Stage of preparation
Production of relaxin (placenta)
Causes relaxation of the pubic symphysis, vulval and perineal tissues

First stage parturition
Onset of contractions
Restlessness, nesting, temperature drop

Second stage parturition
Expulsion of the foetus

Third stage parturition
Expulsion of the placenta and foetal membranes

Puerperium

848
Q

Dystocia

A

Normal birth = expulsive forces are sufficient to propel a fetus of normal size and disposition through a birth canal of adequate size

Dystocia occurs if any of these are abnormal or insufficient.

Inadequate expulsive forces
Inadequacy of birth canal

Presentation or disproportion (relative to the dam) of the fetus

Defects of expulsive forces:
Intrinsic defects of uterine contractility
Nervous voluntary inhibition of labour
Failure of contraction due to mineral/hormonal imbalances (primary inertia)
Exhaustion of uterine muscle or depletion of pituitary oxytocin stores (secondary inertia)

Defects in adequacy of birth canal:
Functional disturbances of genitalia e.g. incomplete cervical dilation
Obstructions e.g. neoplasia
Pelvic malconformations e.g. brachycephalics or past #’

Management of primary inertia (49% of bitches, 37% queens):
Exercise to stimulate contractions
Digital stimulation (feathering) to stimulate endogenous oxytocin
Calcium borogluconate IV
No response to Ca oxytocin
Perform a vaginal exam
If not successful C-section

Management of secondary inertia (23% of both):
Correction of the cause of dystocia
Nothing
OR
Ca2+, oxytocin C-sec as before.

Is the birth premature or overdue?
Has the dam given birth before – if so where there complications and what where these?
What is known about the sire (and his size)?
What has recently been observed in this bitch?
Has there been recent vulval discharge?
Have uterine / abdominal contractions been noted and if so when?
Have any fetal membranes / fluid been expulsed?
Have any fetuses been delivered?

849
Q

when to get involved in partuition of the bitch

A

Second stage parturition
Expulsion of the foetus

Weak, irregular straining for more than 2– 4 hours
Strong, regular straining for more than 20– 30 minutes
Fetal fluid was passed more than 2– 3 hours previously, but nothing more has happened
Greenish discharge is seen but no puppy is born within 2– 4 hours
(red-brown in the queen)
More than 2– 4 hours have passed since the birth of the last puppy and more remain
The bitch has been in the second stage of parturition for more than 12 hours.

850
Q

Foetal distress

A

Normal fetal HR = 180-240 bpm
<180bmp = Foetal distress
Foetal HR <150bpm at full term = immediate intervention required

851
Q

Emergency Cesarean Section indications:

A

Primary or secondary uterine inertia nonresponsive to medical therapy
Uterine rupture or torsion
Fetal malposition without success of correction by manipulation vaginally.
Fetal death with remaining viable but distressed fetuses.
Fetal distress with decreased heart rate.
150-180 bpm consider CS
<150 bpm – immediate CS

852
Q

Reproduction management of the exotic female.

A

Approaches
Traditional ventral abdominal midline (rabbits)
Flank (guinea pigs and rats)
Bilateral
Unilateral
Combination of the two
Laparoscopic approach (zoo animals)

852
Q

Reproduction management of the exotic female.

A

Approaches
Traditional ventral abdominal midline (rabbits)
Flank (guinea pigs and rats)
Bilateral
Unilateral
Combination of the two
Laparoscopic approach (zoo animals)

853
Q

Reproduction management of the exotic femaleexotic male

A

Terminology
‘Castrate’ – removal of the testicles
Scrotal
Open
Closed
Prescrotal
Open
Closed
Abdominal approach
Vasectomy
Vas deferens ligated and incised

Medical management
Implants
Hormonal injections
Options vary depending on the species
Separation of the two sexes
Isolation of social species  welfare implications
Housing animals of same sex may lead to fighting

implant-In response to testosterone ferrets produce sebaceous secretions and a musky odour
Can place deslorelin implant, SC between scapulae every 18-24 months
GnRH implan> Plasma FSH and testosterone concentrations, testis size and spermatogenesis were all suppressed after Deslorelin implant
Owners to monitor >once testes increase in size again > time to place another implant

854
Q

Ferrets – Teaser/vasectomised males

A

Natural mating (vasectomised male/’teaser’ male)
Good option for owners/working ferreters with many jills.
Mating appears violent  biting and dragging the jill by neck
Pseudopregnancy lasts approximately 42 days
Increased aggression towards owners and cage mates
Abdominal enlargement
Mammary gland development
Risk of disease transmission if vasectomised hobs shared.
Will not change smell or hormonal behaviour
Leaves options for future breeding of the female

855
Q

Vasectomy- ferrets

A

Vasectomised males are used to take jills out of oestrus without the risk of pregnancy
Vasectomised ferrets will retain their musky odour, as this is dependent on testosterone levels.
The spermatic cord is palpated cranial to the testis, and a 10 mm skin incision made directly over it, approximately 20 mm cranial to one scrotal sac
The vaginal process is identified.
The parietal tunica of the vaginal process is incised and spermatic cord is exposed
The white vas deferens is identified and a short portion is separated from the spermatic cord.
Double ligate at a distance of approximately 0.5cm and excise between the ligatures.
Submission of excised tissue for histological examination is recommended, to confirm proper excision.
Mild scrotal swelling may be observed postoperatively >usually resolves over 2–3 days
The vasectomised hob should not be used for 7 weeks after surgery

856
Q

Ferrets – management of oestrus

A

Proligestone (Delvosteron, MSD Animal Health)
Suppresses/postpones the breeding season – maintains jill in anoestrus
Give 50mg per ferret in the Spring = 0.5ml per jill, administered via SC route
Signs of season often reduced within 10 -11 days
One injection often covers whole breeding season – but not always!
Pyometra risk
May be discontinued in 2023

Hormonal implant (Deslorelin acetate)
GnRH agonist
Licensed in males (9.4mg), off license in females
4.7mg used in both sexes but off license
Reversible control of ovarian activity
Ovarian suppression for approximately 18-24 months
Easy to place as an outpatient
Brief GA
Placed SC between scapulae

Surgical neutering
Ovariectomy or ovariohysterectomy depending on concurrent disease
Castration
Permanent method
Likelihood of developing adrenal disease.

857
Q

Spaying rabbits

A

prevents
Unwanted pregnancies
Uterine disease
Cystic endometrial hyperplasia
Pseudopregnancy
Aneurysm
Neoplasia
Rabbits are sexually mature at 4-6 months
Neoplasia – adenocarcinoma  50-80% in certain breeds >4 years old
Free living European hares (feral) in Australia  21% of does had reproductive disease
Post mortem examination in pet rabbits
Mean year for neoplasia = 6 years
Youngest with neoplasia confirmed = 12 months.
Can we just perform ovariectomy?
Does depend on how early uterine disease can occur.
Anecdotally, reported in a 6 month old rabbit!

Unique anatomy
Two uterine horns
Two cervices
No uterine body
Long and flaccid vagina
Often large amount of uterine fat in mature rabbits
Vagina fills with urine during micturition

Techniques
Ventral midline abdominal approach
Ovariovaginectomy often described
2 cervices, empty directly into the large vagina
Ligate ovarian pedicles and ligate at cranial vagina
Ligature placed around vaginal side of cervices
Risk of urine leakage through the vaginal stump
Must use a transfixing ligature
Oversew
Risk of including ureters and blood vessels supplying the bladder if ligature placed too low.

Other points to consider
Prone to fat necrosis
Adhesions ‘internal scar tissue’ form around devitalised or traumatised tissue.

To minimise the risk of adhesions
Minimise tissue handling, always use instruments
Gentle surgical technique
Care with haemostasis
Never use dry swabs
Irrigate tissues with warmed sterile saline
Choose suture material wisely!
Use the finest suture material that is practical
Do not use biological sutures (cat gut)

858
Q

reproductive managment of rodents

A

Reproductive management of rodents often requires surgery
Approach for the female
Traditional ventral midline
Flank

859
Q

flank approch to spaying in rodents

A

Find your landmarks. Identify
The spine
The last rib
The pelvis

Gentle simultaneous pressure on these three points will produce a bulge of soft tissue in the centre > incision site.
Incise through skin (can be thick)
Blunt dissect through muscles
The external oblique
Internal laminar muscles

Once you have incised the muscle there will be internal fat
Fat will be associated with
The reproductive tract
The kidneys
The spleen
The GI tract

Retract the fat until you can see the distal uterine horn and ovary
Ligate the ovarian pedicle
In the guinea pig can perform whole procedure from the one incision
In the rat often a bilateral flank approach is required.

Ventral midline approach
Large incision needed
Challenging – deep body cavity, ovaries located cranially and dorsally
Longer surgery time
Longer recovery time
If large ovarian cysts can still perform flank approach
Remove fluid from cysts with a sterile needle and syringe.

860
Q

advantages and disadvantages of radiography

A

Advantages:
Gives a global overview/screening
Assessment of adjacent thorax and skeleton
Good for detecting gas or mineralisation
Very useful for acute conditions (particularly vomiting)
Cheap and widely available

Disadvantages:
Superimposition of structures
Lack of inherent radiographic contrast (cf. thorax)
Soft tissue and fluid appear the same (water radiopacity)
Magnification
Less useful for chronic conditions (particularly diarrhoea)

861
Q

Minimising scattered radiation

A

Low kV, collimation, use of a grid

862
Q

Minimising scattered radiation

A

Low kV, collimation, use of a grid

863
Q

Avoiding movement blur in a radiograph

A

Appropriate physical +/- chemical restraint

864
Q

how would you deal with Low inherent contrast (soft tissue/fluid and fat) in a radiograph

A

Low kV (film)

865
Q

patient preparation for a radiograph

A

Fasted, empty bladder and bowels, clean coat

866
Q

important landmarks in an abdominal radiograph

A

Liver
Stomach
Spleen
Kidneys
Small intestines
Colon
Urinary bladder

867
Q

border obliteration

A

Mesenteric fat highlights the serosal surface of the abdominal organs
Structures of the same opacity in contact with each other = border obliteration (border effacement/silhouette sign)
e.g in acites- fluid has same contrast

868
Q

Abdominal Contrast Studies

A

Contrast media:
Either more radiopaque or radiolucent than surrounding tissue
Document function by taking sequential still images (e.g. barium series) or using real time radiography (e.g. fluoroscopy)

869
Q

describe a normal liver on a lateral radiograph

A

Roughly triangular in shape with smooth distinct margins- when enlarged edges will be rounded instead.
Soft tissue opacity
Demarcated by the diaphragm cranially and the stomach caudally-
Gastric axis should between parallel to the ribs and perpendicular to the spine (lateral) and perpendicular to the spine (VD)

entral lobe-
Fairly sharp angle
Extends to slightly beyond the level of the costal arch

May see gall bladder ventrally in cat

when it is small (hypoplasic)-
Cranial displacement of stomach
Absence of caudoventral angle
Significance dependent on clinical signs, etc.
seen inDeep-chested dogs

870
Q

hepatomegaly on a radiograph

A

Projection of caudoventral margin well beyond the costal arch
Rounding of caudoventral angle
Caudal displacement of stomach axis

871
Q

describe the normal spleen on a radiograph

A

Location and size variable- Smaller in the cat (usually not visible on lateral views)
Flattened triangle on lateral view (tail of spleen)

Triangular mass next to left abdominal wall on VD (head of spleen)

872
Q

Splenomegaly on a radiograph

A

Generalised splenomegaly is common
Subjective assessment
Wide normal range
Overlap maximum physiological/ minimum pathological size
Spleen enlarges following ACP / barbiturates

Localised splenomegaly-
Look for changes in shape as well as size

873
Q

describe the stomach on radiograph

A

Rugal folds are often seen as parallel linear soft tissue opacities
If the stomach is completely collapsed and empty it may not be seen at all

Recap:
Fundus and body lie to left of midline
Pylorus to the right and ventrally

radiographs of the stomach can show- Changes in location, size, shape and margination

874
Q

describe the small intestine on radiograph

A

Pylorus and duodenum are identifiable by location
Rest of small intestine fills “the space where there is nothing else!”
Cats tend to have less intestinal gas than dogs
Roughly even diameter throughout
Diameter in(dogs):
<1.4 x L5 unlikely obstructed
>2.4 x L5 likely obstructed
Look at the shape and distribution of the intestinal loops
Symmetrical peristaltic constrictions
Beware of “pseudo-thickening”
SI (or stomach) wall may appear thickened in plain images with partial filling with gas

875
Q

viral causes of bovine Diarrhoea

A

-Rotavirus
-Coronavirus
-Bovine Viral Diarrhoea- young stock

876
Q

bacterial causes of bovine Diarrhoea

A

•E.coli
•Salmonella species- agressive mortality rate
•Clostridia species
•Mycobacterium paratuberculosis (Johne’s)- slow incubation- vertical infection as calves, presents at 3-5 ears

877
Q

Parasitic causes of bovine Diarrhoea

A

Protozoal:
•Cryptosporidium- disease of hygene
•Cocci

Worms:
•Strongyles
•Fluke

878
Q

Nutritional causes of bovine Diarrhoea

A

•Milk scours
•Peri-weaning Scours
•SARA
•Grain overload
•Dietary changes

879
Q

Environmental & Husbandry causes of bovine Diarrhoea

A

Exposure to pathogens usually as a result of failed husbandry
-Failure passive transfer of antibodies
-Poor hygiene of equipment
-Poor hygiene of housing
-Mixing of age groups
-Stress

880
Q

Scour Check Kits

A

•Used to detect common pathogens in young calves
•Rotavirus, Coronavirus, Cryptosporidum& E. coli
•Can be used on farm, results in 10 minutes from small faecal sample
•Easy to interpret -two lines positive, one line negative

881
Q

Faecal Worm Egg Counts for scours

A

•Preparation of faeces in a salt solution to look for worm eggs or cocci oosysts
•Quick test to indirectly assess parasite burden
•Test performed off farm either in-house or sent off to external lab
•Used to look for gut worms and cocci oocysts in youngstock & adults
•Can also be used in series to test wormer efficacy

882
Q

Faecal Culture for scours

A

•Microbiology for bacterial causes of GI disease.
•Can be used for Salmonella, Johnes, Clostridial toxin detection and Rota/Coronavirus
•Can be done in-house or sent to external lab
•Can be slow to yield results

883
Q

Serology for scours

A

•Blood sampling for specific diseases
•Can be used if clinical suspicion of Johnes or BVD at an individual animal level
•Tested in an external lab

884
Q

bulk Milk Surveillance for scours

A

•Used to monitor disease in adult cows
•Can be used to monitor Fluke, BVD, IBR, Johnes, Salmonella
•Useful comparing results year on year
•Take into account vaccination status for some diseases when interpreting results

885
Q

disease of the caecum in the horse

A

One of the most common diseases of the caecum in horses is impaction:
Type 1 = accumulation of dry ingesta
Poor dentition?
Sand

Type 2 = abnormal caecal motility resulting in a more fluid consistency
Much more likely to rupture than the colon

much more prone to rupture than any other part of horse gastro tract

Caecocolic intussusception- colon intercepts into caecum, possibly assosiated with tape worms
Unclear pathogenesis
Motility issue

Ileocaecal intussusception more common

Inflammation of the caecum is referred to as typhlitis

Cyathostomins- mass emergances, may not cause clinical signs

Anoplocephala perfoliata

Small strongyles also known as cyathostomins, are extremely prevalent amongst the equine population worldwide.
Horses can carry large worm burdens without displaying clinically significant symptoms and with a negative faecal worm egg count
The clinical syndrome of larva. cyathostominosis (cyathostomiasis), occurs as a result of mass emergence of hypobiotic intestinal stages.
High fatality rates due to diffuse severe and acute damage to the caecal mucosa.

886
Q

Caecal infections in birds

A

Protozoa predominate as the cause of infectious typhlitis in poultry;
Eimeria tenella-
Variably severe clinical signs
Major disease of production
Exudative to erosive
DIFFERENT STRAINS INFECT DIFFERENT PORTIONS OF THE TRACT

Histomonas meleagridis-
Spread by a worm
Turkeys and peafowl
Caecal cores
Necrotizing typhlitis
Hepatitis

Caecal cores can also be seen in Salmonella enterica Pullorum
Other systemic signs- SEPTICEMIA

887
Q

Right dorsal colitis

A

NSAID use in horses, as well as being associated with gastric ulcers and renal papillary necrosis, can result in right dorsal colitis
Due to decreased production of prostaglandin via NSAID inhibition of (COX-2) resulting in vasoconstriction.

888
Q

Infectious colitis

A

Oedema disease of pigs
Enterotoxaemic colibacillosis
E. coli F18

Pathogenesis:
Associated with dietary changes at weaning
Bacterial overgrowth in small intestine
Produce verotoxin (Shiga-like)
Necrosis of enterocytes and endothelial cells
Leakage from vessels results in oedema, which in the brain results in swelling and neurological signs

Classical gross post mortem presentation is marked oedema of the spiral colone

E.coli

Swine dysentery-
Necrohaemorrhagic enterocolitis
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

Salmonellosis

Histiocytic ulcerative colitis
Boxer dogs and their kin
E. coli
Histiocytes - granulomatous

889
Q

E. Coli

A

Escherichia coli is one of the first bacteria to colonize the GIT of infants and establishes as a life-long resident of the normal intestinal microbiota in humans (Eggesbø et al., 2011).
Non-pathogenic E. coli strains provide benefit to the host in many ways, including aiding absorption of vitamin K and B12 (Blount, 2015)

Some E. coli strains can cause disease:
Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)- covers villi, produces enterotoxins IT and ST resulting in endocytosis

Enteropathogenic (EPEC)- structural injury to enterocites resulting in loss of microvilli and osmotic dirhoea and secretory dihroa

Enterohaemorrhagic (EHEC)- easirer to see post mortem- lysis, damage to cells, haemoragic

E.coli can be typed according to their various pathogenicity factors and surface markers
Adhesins (fimbriae or pillia)- Fimbriae commonly found in pigs: F4 (K88), F5 (K99), F6 (987P), F18, F41
Toxins
Serotype (O, H, K)

890
Q

Salmonellosis

A

All salmonella species are enteroinvasive
Zoonotic and reportable

enterica species serovar Typhimurium - Second most important cause of food poisoning in humans
Pathogenicity factors include ability to neutralise NO in phagocyte-Are phagocytosed but able to survive within phagolysosome

Pathophysiology:

Septicaemia-
Fibrinoid necrosis of vessels and DIC
Hepatitis and pneumonia
S. choleraesuis

Acute enteric -
Necrotising ileotyphlocolitis
S. typhimurium

Chronic enteric-
Button ulcers – ddx classical swine fever
S. typhimurium

Rectal strictures

891
Q

Trichuris

A

Trichuris spp.
Whipworm
Carnivores, ruminants, pigs people
Direct life cycle
Clinical signs- Transient, recurring large bowel diarrhoea with or without blood
Rarely, severe infestations result in pseudo-Addison’s

892
Q

Histiocytic ulcerative colitis

A

Boxer dogs and their kin
genetic issue with response to E. coli
Histiocytes - granulomatous

893
Q

Rectal prolapse

A

Often secondary to inflammation
But can be due to other reasons
Dystocia
Urinary disease
Perineal hernia

894
Q

Anal furunculosis

A

breed issue- GSDs
Immune-mediated
Peri-anal fistulation- A fistula is an opening between areas of the body that are not usually connected.
In this case between the anus and skin

Furunculosis is generally a term used to imply a deep infection of the dermis, typically with ruptured hair follicles and free hair shafts which themselves add to the immune reaction

895
Q

Epithelial tumours of the canine intestine

A

tend to be upper GIT
In the cat, more commonly lower GIT

Papilloma and
polyp- dachhound

Adenoma

Carcinoma

896
Q

causes of colic

A

Smooth muscle spasm

Inflammation-
Colitis / Ulceration
Distension

Impaction-
Gas accumulation
Obstruction

Impaction-
Tension on the mesentery
Displacement

Tissue congestion/infarction/necrosis-
Torsion/volvulus
Strangulation
(both could cause endotoxaemia- gut wall is compromised and horse absobs endotoxins from gut bacteria, causing systematic reaction)

897
Q

Clinical Signs of Colic

A

Inappetence
Reduced faecal output
Vocalising/grunting
Agitation
Pawing at the ground
Lip curling
Flank Watching
Lying down- For long periods, Repeatedly
Stretching to urinate
Rolling / Thrashing
Sweating excessively
Straining

Mild signs – Restless, Pawing, Flank watching
Gas build up / inflammation of GIT / Smooth muscle spasms
Moderate signs - Lying down flat out, groaning
Impaction or other simple obstruction
Very fractious, violent rolling
Acute, severe strangulation
Dull, unresponsive
End-stage – Severe illness due to colic

898
Q

“False” colic

A

Any non-gastrointestinal source of abdominal pain
Liver disease / hepatomegaly
Urinary disease-
Renal pain
Bladder Dz (urolithiasis)

Peritonitis
Intra-abdominal abscess
Intra-abdominal neoplasia
Reproductive disorders- displacments post foaling

Other
Non-abdominal, pain mistaken for colic
Oesophageal obstruction
Rhabdomyolosis (tying-up)
Laminitis
Pleuroneumonia

899
Q

clinical exam for colicing horse

A

Aim of clinical examination is to;
Assess the severity of the horse’s condition
Establish appropriate ‘level’ of treatment
Conservative ‘in-field’ treatment
Referral for more intensive medical therapy
Referral for surgical intervention

Examination should be targeted, quick but thorough – be systematic

doese not need to be full clinical examination- aim is to establish prognosis

Observe from a distance
Current status of colic- Pain or signs of depression
Respiratory rate & depth
Abdominal distension
Presence of faeces
Evidence of duration / severity-
Traumatic injuries
Disrupted bedding
Shavings/soil on back

Rapid assessment of cardiovascular status-
Heart Rate
Pulse quality
Jugular refill
MM Colour
CRT

this can show the difference between normal and endotoxaemia

Moisture content of oral MM is an assessment of hydration status; if bad horse should be reffered for fluid therapy

Assessment of hydration status & hypovolaemia-
dehydration
mm moistrure
heart rate- heart rate of 80= tahcycardia and horse is cardiovascularyly compromised
CRT
PCV
lactate- indicates anarobic respiration- necrosis ect

Assessment of Gastrointestinal Tract
Auscultation - GIT borborygmi of the ascending colon (caecum & LC)
Auscultation of GIT has some degree of specificity but low degree of sensitivity.
Hypermotility- Increased smooth muscle activity - ‘spasm’ colic
Local hypomotility- Localised stasis of GIT
General absence- GIT ileus – common finding in most colics

Very useful for monitoring cases – e.g. progressive loss of motility

  • =Absent
    + =Hypomotile
    ++ =Normomotile
    +++ = Hypermotile

Other assessment:
Rectal Temperature-
Most uncomplicated colics will have normal rectal temperature-
Low core temp – usually associated with severe/end stage shock-
Pyrexia – Can indicate alternate diagnosis, e.g. peritonitis

Digital pulses
– not appropriate to assess circulation
– only useful to assess for presence of laminitis

Respiration:
Tachypnoea – usually due to pain, but could be associated with endotoxaemia (metabolic acidosis)
Detailed auscultation of lungs rarely necessary

Pain and colic assessment-
Pain will only cause a mild-moderate increase in HR (40-60bpm)
Marked-severe tachycardia (>60bpm) is a sign of hypovolaemia
Pain will cause tachypnoea

Pain can make it very difficult to examine the horse
Administer quick-acting, potent analgesic
alpha 2-agonist
Xylazine (Rompun, Virbaxyl),
Detomidine (Domosedan),
Romifidine (Sedivet)
+/- opioid- Butorphanol (Torbugesic )
Try to assess CV status before giving alpha 2-agonist

900
Q

diagnostics for colic

A

Nasogastric Intubation:

Nasogastric reflux
Fluid/ingesta reflux from the stomach
>2 Litres of fluid is abnormal
Usually indicative of small intestinal obstruction (physical or functional)
Can occur due to LC displacement (pressure on duodenum)

Presence of gastric reflux has significant diagnostic value
Majority of cases with reflux need referring to hospital
Relieving reflux is also very therapeutic
>8L will stretch stomach and be a significant source of pain

Trans-Rectal Examination (TRE):
Abnormalities:
- Impaction
- Distension (Gas accumulation)
- Displacement
- Masses

Abdominocentesis-
Assess for presence of changes in peritoneal fluid- good prognostic indicator

Serosanguineous colour change and or Increased protein concentration- Serosal compromise – leakage of blood components

Increased Lactate concentration- Anaerobic tissue metabolism
Presence of ingesta- Rupture of GIT tract
High WBC count- Peritonitis

Abdominal Ultrasonography:
Adjunctive to all other examinations
Can assess structures not palpable on rectal

Excellent for assessing;
Thickness of intestinal wall
Distension of small intestine
Motility of intestine
Presence of displacements
Peritoneal fluid
Foals – can visualise entire abdomen

901
Q

treatment for colic

A

Analgesia
Imperative to provide some form of analgesia to a colic case

NSAID-
The most common form of analgesics used to treat colic
Slow onset and long duration of activity
Flunixin meglumine (Finadyne Solution)-
1.1 mg/kg iv
Potent visceral analgesic
Can masks deterioration in CVS status

Ketaprofen (Ketofen)
1.1 - 2.2mg/kg iv

Phenylbutazone (Equipalazone Injection)
4.4mg/kg iv

Alpha-2 agonists
Potent analgesics with rapid onset and short duration of action
Allow rapid re-assessment of case progression

Xylazine (Rompun, Virbaxyl)
Dose rate: 0.2-1.1mg/ml
Analgesia for 15-20min

Detomidine (Domosedan)
Dose rate: 0.01-0.02mg/kg
Analgesia for 1-2 hours

Romifidine (Sedivet)
Dose rate: 0.04-0.08mg/kg
Analgesia for 1-3 hours

Opiods
Not first line analgesic
Usually reserved for higher degree of pain

Butorphanol (Torbugesic)
0.05-0.075mg/kg iv
Potent analgesic; 1 hour duration

Spasmolytics (Anticholinergics)-

N-Butylscopolamine (Buscopan Injectable )
Smooth muscle relaxant
Rapid onset and short duration of activity
Good for;
Treating hypermotile/spasm type colic
‘Gas’ colic
Relaxing rectum prior to rectal examination

General Rules
For first-line treatment, or where diagnosis is uncertain, use short acting analgesic agents
Assessing progression, rapid recurrence of pain or deteriorating CV status is vital in the decision to refer

Beware the potent anti-inflammatory effects of flunixin, which can significantly ‘mask’ the early signs of endotoxaemia.
Only administer NSAIDs after the diagnosis or CV status have been established

Fluid Therapy:
Enteric fluids
Indicated in the vast majority of colic cases- Most cases will have a degree of dehydration
Contraindicated if NG reflux is present, or suspect small intestinal lesion

Excellent way to rehydrate the colonic content (impactions)
Bolus(es) of isotonic fluids (tap water + NaCl + KCl)
5-8L can be given q2hrs

Purgatives
Liquid Paraffin; Magnesium Sulphate (Epsom Salts)

Decision to refer-
Essentially, any indicators that the case won’t resolve with simple conservative therapy (analgesics & enteric fluids)

Non-response to analgesia
Significant CV compromise
Rapid deterioration despite therapy
Complex abnormalities on rectal exam
Presence of NG reflux
Recurrent/chronic cases with unclear Dx

82.9% survival rate for 1st opinion cases

902
Q

Approach to Weight loss in the Horse

A

Reduced Intake?- Not wanting to eat
Disease or chronic pain

Not able to eat
Dental disease or Dysphagia

Not being allowed to eat
Social hierarchy

Not being fed enough
Poor or Inadequate diet

Poor Absorption?-
Inadequate presentation of nutrients
Dental Disease

Gastrointestinal Disease
Parasitism
Diarrhoea
Ulcerative GI disease
Inflammatory disease
- Small Intestine, Colon, both
Neoplasia
- Lymphoma

Decreased Utilisation?- Disorder of nutrient metabolism
Liver Disease

Excessive Loss?- Protein losing enteropathy

Increased Requirement ?- Increased demand/Consumption
Bacterial infections
Chronic Viral infection
Neoplasia

903
Q

HYPOALBUMINAEMIA

A

Loss of albumin
Protein losing enteropathy
Protein-losing nephropathy
Chronic blood loss

Reduced production
Hepatopathy
Malnutrition

Chronic inflammation
Negative acute phase protein

Anaemia
Low grade, normocytic normochromic (non-regenerative) anaemia is also common finding in weight loss

“Anaemia of chronic disease”
Decreased RBC production
Reduced RBC lifespan

904
Q

gasteroscopy for weight loss in the horse

A

Weight loss generally only present in more advanced cases of gastric ulceration
Altered or reduced appetite
Delayed gastric emptying

Other forms of GIT ulceration could cause weight loss through causing malabsorption
Right dorsal colitis associated with NSAID toxicity

Gastroscopic examination used to obtain trans-endoscopic duodenal mucosal biopsies
Indicated where there is evidence of small intestinal malabsorption

905
Q

Abdominal Ultrasonography for weight loss in the horse

A

In context of weight loss, can give information on;

Thickness of Small intestine and Colon
Assess characteristic of thickening
Are mural layers visible?

Peritoneal fluid volume

Presence of intra-abdominal masses

Liver evaluation (or u/s guided biopsy)

906
Q

Abdominocentesis
for weight loss in the horse

A

Assess for presence of changes in peritoneal fluid

Low sensitivity, but good specificity for:

Peritoneal inflammation / Bacterial involvement
WBC > 5 x109/l
Protein concentration > 20g/l
Increased Lactate concentration
Serosanguineous colour change
Neoplasia
Rare to diagnose intra-abdominal neoplasia on PF alone
<50% solid tumours exfoliate cells
Usually presents as low grade peritoneal inflammation

907
Q

Oral Glucose Absorption Test (OGAT)

A

Simple and inexpensive test to assess absorptive capacity of small intestine

Normal
Approximate doubling of baseline serum glucose 2 hours after dosing (70-100% increase)
Partial Malabsorption
15-65% increase in serum glucose at 2 hours, or slower to peak
Total Malabsorption
Serum glucose not increasing above 15% of baseline

908
Q

Faecal Blood Test

A

Evidence of frank blood in faeces indicates colonic/rectal bleeding
(Upper GIT bleeding is digested in the colon so not represented in faeces)

Faecal Occult blood test
Detects albumin and haemoglobin separately
Proposed to differentiate between different sources of pathology
Varying evidence for diagnostic value

909
Q

Osmotic Diarrhoea

A

results from the presence of osmotically active, poorly absorbed solutes in the bowel lumen that inhibit normal water and electrolyte absorption. Certain laxatives such as lactulose and citrate of magnesia or maldigestion of certain food substances such as milk are common causes of osmotic diarrhea.

910
Q

Secretory Diarrhoea

A

occurs when your body secretes electrolytes into your intestine. This causes water to build up. It can be caused a number of factors, including: bacterial infection such as salmonella and E. coli.

911
Q

diarrhoea caused by Increased gut mucosal permeability

A

ncreased intestinal permeability or hyperpermeability. That means their guts let more than water and nutrients through — they “leak”.

912
Q

diarrhoea cause by Abnormal gut motility

A

hypermotility can casue this

913
Q

SI Diarrhoea

A

normal to large volume
watery
Melaena- Black colored stools that occur as a result of gastrointestinal bleeding. This bleeding usually comes from the upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which includes the mouth, esophagus, stomach, and the first part of the small intestine.
borborygmi- the sound that the stomach and intestines make as food, fluids, and gas move through them.
weight loss +/- vomiting
inappetance
*SI can still be urgent

914
Q

LI Diarrhoea

A

Urgency/increased frequency
straining/tenesmus
haematochezia- Rectal bleeding (or haematochezia) is the passage of fresh blood per rectum
small volume passed more often
mucus
fresh blood
“incontinence”

915
Q

Adsorbants

A

May reduce diarrhoea
Efficacy not proven
Kaolin
Pectin
Chalk
Bismuth subsalicylate
Magnesium aluminium silicate
Activated charcoal
Alter intestinal flora/bind flora
Coat or protect mucosa
Absorb toxins
Bind water and possibly antiscretory

916
Q

Faecal analysis

A

Is it infectious?  History

Systemically unwell
D+ is acute & haemorrhagic
D+ is very severe
Multiple animals in crowded environment
Owner or pet is immunocompromised

Faecal – parasites – SNAP Giardia/ELISA
Faecal – virology– SNAP Parvo
Faecal for microbiology?
Bacteria – Salmonella, Campylobacter, Clostridia
(Viruses)
Faecal for parasites – OR JUST TREAT?
Nematodes
Cestodes
Giardia – multiple pooled samples?

917
Q

Trypsin-like immunoreactivity

A

Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency

Clinical signs:
Steatorrhea - fatty loose faeces
Dramatic polyphagia
Weight loss

918
Q

Stages of vomiting

A

Prodromal phase:
Nausea-
Hypersalivation
Loss of appetite
Lip licking

Excessive swallowing

Retching
Retrograde duodenal contractions
Rhythmic inspiratory movements against a closed glottis
Dilation of the cardia and low oesophageal sphincter

Expulsion
Reduced oesophageal and pharyngeal tone
Contraction of abdominal muscles to actively expulse gastric/duodenal contents

Programmed, overlapping and coordinated events help minimise risk of adverse events such as aspiration

919
Q

The vomiting reflex

A

Two separate centres
CRTZ
Humoral pathway
chemical stimuli
BBB is permeable in the area of the CRTZ

Vomiting centre in brainstem
Several brain stem nuclei
Receives nerve impulses via 2 (neural) pathways:
Central
Peripheral

coordinates and integrates vomiting
Also Vestibular apparatus
input for motion sickness

Substance P
neurotransmitter
binds to NK-1 receptors
NK-1 receptors
location: cell membrane
vomiting centre
CRTZ

920
Q

Dysphagia

A

can be mistaken for vomiting
Gagging
Dropping food
Retching
Difficulty eating
Exaggerated swallowing
Ptyalism
Fear of eating

swallowing difficulties

921
Q

Maropitant

A

Anti-emetic
selective NK1 receptor antagonist
effective against
peripheral pathways
central pathways
Visceral analgesia in cats

922
Q

Metoclopramide

A

Anti-emetic

dopamine, 5-HT3 & H1 receptor antagonist
central>peripheral pathway effects
variable prokinetic effect
cats & dogs

923
Q

indications to investigate vomiting

A

History:
several days duration or fast deterioration
persistent vomiting
“not keeping anything down”

haematemesis
blood?
coffee grounds?

SI diarrhoea
weight loss
Concurrent signs (anorexia, fever etc)

Physical examination:
weak, collapsed
mm: dry/tacky, pale or congested
tachycardia, bradycardia, arrhythmia
weak & thready or hyperdynamic pulses
hypothermia or pyrexia
abdominal pain or distension
melaena, haemorrhagic diarrhoea

924
Q

vomiting resulting from Primary GI problem

A

Primary disease should be suspected if:
An abnormality is palpable in the gut e.g. foreign body
The vomiting is associated with significant and concurrent diarrhoea
The patient is clinically and historically normal in all other respects
The onset of vomiting significantly preceded any development of signs of malaise – depression and/or anorexia.
The vomiting is consistently related in time to eating (although this can also occur with pancreatitis)

925
Q

vomiting results from a Metabolic problem secondarily causing GI signs (secondary GI disease)

A

Often have evidence from the history and/or clinical exam of abnormalities affecting other organ systems e.g. jaundice/PUPD
Vomiting is usually intermittent, unrelated to eating and may often occur subsequent to the onset of other signs of malaise.
Generally not usually bright, alert and happy.
Usually ill (depressed/inappetant) before vomiting was observed.

Exception to the rules: Pancreatitis.
Secondary GI disease diagnostics:
Biochemistry, haematology
Urinalysis
+/- imaging

926
Q

Patients that are unable to digest carbohydrates effectively may require

A

an increase in protein provisions in place of carbohydrates.

However, high protein diets may be contraindicated in patients with co morbidities such as hepatic disease, pancreatitis and renal disease

927
Q

calorie dense diets

A

Fat is calorie dense so is indicated to critically ill patients where nutritional volume is difficult to consume. Therefore, calorie dense diets allow for a reduced portion of food to be given.

High fat content diets ,however, are contraindicated in cases of pancreatitis.

928
Q

Resting energy requirement (RER)

A

the energy (number of calories) required for normal function in fasted patients under thermo-neutral conditions.

RER = 70 x (bodyweight BW in kg)0.75

OR

For animals weighing 3kg-25kg
RER = (30 x BW in kg) +70

The calculated RER should always be viewed as a starting point and feeding volumes can be adjusted as required, depending on the status and progression of the patient.
Water volumes should also be taken into consideration, especially when using a diet which requires blending as fluid overload may occur.
Diluting food with water will dilute the calories and reduce calorific density.
Tube flush volumes should be recorded and included in the total volume per feed guidelines.

Enteral feeding of anorexic patients should commence with one third of the patient’s total RER for the first 12 to 24 hours.
If well tolerated, this amount can be increased every 12 hours until full RER is reached.If the patient vomits, feeding should be discontinued until vomiting has resolved. Thereafter reduce the volume when feeding is resumed and increase the volume more slowly.
Excessive nutrition during times of illness may increase the risk for hyperglycemia and other metabolic complications so should be avoided.
Feeding frequency is determined by hospital hours, staff availability, and patient tolerance of volume fed. Ideally, feeding frequency can be every 4 to 6 hours initially and later decreased to every 6 to 8 hours after it is clear that the patient can tolerate the feedings.

929
Q

calculating energy requirements

A

Weigh the patient (regularly)
Calculate the RER. This will give you the number of calories required per day (kcal/day)
Select the appropriate diet for the patient and the type of feeding tube
Divide the energy requirement of the patient (kcal/day) by the energy content of the diet (kcal/ml or gram) to provide the daily amount of food required
Divide the total amount of food per day by the number of feeds per day
Do not exceed 5-10ml/kg per feed when reintroducing food
Write up the feeding plan and keep a detailed record.

930
Q

Entereal vs Parenteral nutrition

A

Enteral = giving nutrients into the GI system i.e. assisted feeding
Parenteral = giving nutrients IV, sometimes via central line

IF THE GUT WORKS… USE IT! – Enteral feeding best option if possible

Parenteral is more complicated and expensive than enteral feeding. There is also a risk of villous atrophy and risk of bacterial growth at the line site if not kept clean.

931
Q

Feeding Tubes

A

There are 4 main types of feeding tubes which can be placed for assisted feeding in dogs and cats:
1. Naso-oesophogeal (NO) or nasogastric (NG) tube- most commonly used as they are easiest to place and manage
2. Oesophagostomy (O) tube
3. Gastrostomy (PEG) tube
4. Enterostomy or jejunostomy tube- usually placed during abdominal surgery and are reserved for patients with gastric or pancreatic disease. They require a near constant infusion of commercially prepared diet.

Tubes are named for where they enter the GI tract.
Tube selection will depend on multiple factors…

Patient condition
Illness/injury
Food required
Availability of resources including staff
Financial factors
Duration of assisted feeding required

932
Q

Naso-oesophageal Tube

A

Small bore tube passed through the nostril of the patient
Indicated in any patient with malnutrition that will not undergo oral, pharyngeal, esophageal, gastric, or biliary tract surgery
Can be placed conscious so no need to GA potentially high-risk patient
In place for 3-5 days (up to 10 days)
Small bore tube so requires commercially prepared liquid diet
Advantages – easy to place – no GA required, cheap,can be used immediately and removed at any time, patient can eat and drink around the tube
Disadvantages – short term use only, sometimes patient removes them as irritate the face, placed at the head end – can be difficult to manage in patients that bite, can only give liquid oral medications, not crushed tablets, can increase risk of reflux

933
Q

Oesophagostomy tube

A

Surgically placed into the oesophagus (GA required)
Oesophagostomy tube feeding is indicated in anorexic patients with disorders of the oral cavity or pharynx, or anorexic patients with a functional gastrointestinal tract distal to the oesophagus. E.g jaw fracture
Contraindicated in patients with a primary or secondary oesophageal disorder (e.g., oesophageal stricture, after oesophageal foreign body removal or oesophageal surgery, esophagitis, megaesophagus).
Wider bore tube than NG
Can prepare own diets ( blended in ‘gruel’ form) or use commercially prepared
Can be left in place for weeks/months
Advantages – easy to place and manage, can feed own blended diet, the patient can eat and drink around the tube, can be removed at any time, can give crushed oral medications
Disadvantages – requires short GA to place, at the head end so can be difficult in patients who bite, requires some wound management and risk of local infection at placement site, rarely stricture can form where tube enters oesophagus

934
Q

Gastrostomy tube

A

Placed directly into stomach through body wall, bypasses oral cavity and oesophagus
Gastrostomy tube placement is contraindicated in patients with primary gastric disease (e.g., gastritis, gastric ulceration, gastric neoplasia) or disorders causing persistent vomiting.
Must stay in place for 10-14 days (minimum 7 days) after placement to allow ‘seal’ to form between stomach and abdominal wall, preventing leaks into abdominal cavity which may lead topancreatitis
Can be left in place for months-years (tube may need to be replaced but this can be performed through the same stoma)
Advantages – long term use, further from head so can be easier to manage in patients who bite, large bore tube so can feed variety of diets in larger volumes, can give crushed medications
Disadvantages – unable to use immediately after placement (24 hours), requires GA to place, risk of local infection at placement site, risk of pancreatitis/peritonitis if incorrectly placed and ‘leaks’

935
Q

Jejunostomy Feeding Tube or “J-tube”

A

Invasive, challenging to place
Mid-long term support
Bypasses upper GIT
Patient if able to eat via the oral route still whilst tube is in place if required
Jejunum does not have storage capacity
Required trickle feeding NOT bolus feeding
Tend to be referral cases

936
Q

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)

A

The practice of feeding the patient via the intravenous route (usually by a central venous catheter)
Used on short term basis (3-5 days)
Reserved only for use when:
The patient is unable to be fed enterally e.g. failure of the GIT
The patient is at an increased risk of aspiration
Other methods of assisted feeding have failed to ensure adequate intake of nutrition
TPN aims to meet all of the patients energy and protein requirements
Partial parental nutrition (PPN) aims to meet some of the requirements, alongside other methods of nutritional support e.g. tube feeding
Intensive nursing required

937
Q

Postural Feeding

A

Typically used for patients presenting with Megaoesophagus
Daily food intake should be split into 3 – 4 smaller meals a day
Food should be soft wet food – never hard kibble
Ideal the patient should be in a sitting position
During each meal, the wet food should be rolled into small balls and fed from a height

938
Q

HYPERNATRAEMIA

A

s a deficit of water relative to sodium and can result from a number of causes, including free water losses, inadequate free water intake, and, more rarely, sodium overload

939
Q

MALOCCLUSION

A

the teeth are not aligned properly

940
Q

•VOLVULUS SYNDROME

A

occurs when a loop of intestine twists around itself and the mesentery that supports it, causing bowel obstruction

941
Q

Scald/Ovine Interdigital Dermatitis

A

Seen in sheep continuously exposed to wet pasture – often lambs but can be seen in housed ewes when straw becomes wet and warm
Fusebacterium Necrophorum – can be zoonotic – human wounds have been swabbed and F. Necrophorum found – wear gloves when examining lame sheep!
Mild and transient lameness, rapidly resolves with treatment
Dermatitis involving some or all of the skin between the claws of the feet – skin between claws appears red and inflamed with white discharge
V common, less important than footrot/CODD, but associated with pathogenesis of foot abscesses and foot rot

942
Q

Footrot

A

Footrot – 90% of lameness in the national flock
Dichelobacter Nodusus (Bacteroides) BUT needs F. necorphorum to facilitate epidermal invasion
D.nodosus – obligate parasite, can’t survive in the environment for more than 1 week
Also requires devitalised skin – chronic exposure to wet conditions and faecal contamination
Fly strike can occur in affected feetVery effective vaccine against footrot.
Acts as treatment and prevention.
Timing is important
A second injection can be needed 4-6 weeks
One injection will last 6 months.
Diagnosis is essential

genetic element to susceptibility to scald and footrot.

943
Q

CODD

A

Contagious Ovine Digital Dermatitis
Relatively ‘new’ disease – ongoing research
Bacteria – treponeme species. Some association with cattle with Bovine Digital Dermatitis
Link between CODD and footrot
Usually SEVERE lameness with one claw of one foot affected
Initially ulcers develop on the coronary band which then under-run the hoof, can lead to whole hoof avulsion
Graded 1-5
Can lead to permanent hoof growth problems
Often needs systemic treatment with antibiotic and NSAIDs

944
Q

White line separation

A

Often individual rather than ‘whole flock’ issue
Unknown aetiology – walking on stony ground, nutritional imbalance?
‘Shelley Hoof’
Separation of the hoof wall from the underlying tissues
Lameness caused by dirt packing into space created
Can lead to abscess formation

945
Q

Toe Granuloma

A

Painful red swellings caused by:
Over-trimming
Chronic untreated lesions
Chemical irritation

946
Q

Joint Ill

A

Most common – Septic arthritis ‘Joint-ill;
Strep. Dysgalactiae, (e.coli, erisypelas sometimes isolated in older lambs)
Transmission still unknown – cord/tagging/tailing/castrating/oral/vaginal canal? Vaginal canal transmission thought to be most significant
Septic arthritis = swollen joints, ill thrift, death
1-2% of flocks, can be up to 50% of lambs in severe outbreaks

Lamb outdoors if possible! Reduces bacterial load for newborn lambs
Research evidence suggests that wearing long disposable gloves for lambing will be the most effective method to reduce the prevalence within a flock

947
Q

Hyaline Cartilage

A

The principal component of hyaline cartilage is type II collagen.

Collagen:

The most abundant protein in mammals (up to 35% of the proteome).
At least 28 different types of collagen.
Made of amino acids, wound to form a triple-helix, which are aligned in elongated fibrils (there are also non-fibrillar collagens).

Hyaline cartilage components…

Collagens
Aggrecan
Hyaluronan
Link protein
COMP
Decorin
Fibromodulin
Fibronectin
Chondroadherin

948
Q

Equine Osteoarthritis (OA)

A

Age-related degenerative musculoskeletal disease.

Loss of articular cartilage, abnormal bone proliferation, synovial membrane dysfunction and subchondral sclerosis.

Commonly affects hock, pastern, coffin, fetlock, carpal (knee) and stifle joints.

Estimated that up to 60% of equine lameness is related to OA.

Leading welfare issue in horses - resulting in substantial morbidity and mortality.

Abnormal loading (physiological strain) of normal cartilage

or

Normal loading (physiological strain) of abnormal cartilage

or

Both: Abnormal loading (physiological strain) of abnormal cartilage

Initially, OA was been considered to be a disease of articular cartilage. However, recent research has indicated that the condition involves the entire joint.

Loss of articular cartilage - thought to be the primary change, but a combination of cellular changes and biomechanical stresses causes several secondary changes.

Secondary Changes:

Subchondral bone remodelling
Osteophytes
Bone marrow lesions
Changes in the synovium
Changes in the joint capsule
Changes in the ligaments
Changes in the peri-articular muscles
Meniscal tears and extrusion

Evidence supports the hypothesis that OA is a bone disease instead of, or in addition to, a cartilage disease.

Spontaneous OA animal models show a change in the density and metabolism of subchondral bone prior to any signs of cartilage damage

949
Q

Cartilage Homeostasis

A

In normal cartilage there is homeostasis between cartilage synthesis and cartilage degradation

Synthesis

Growth factors
Hyaluronic acid / GAGs
Tissue inhibitors of MMPs (TIMPs)

Degradation

Cytokines (TNFα, Il-1β)
ADAMTSs (aggrecanases)
MMPs (collagenases)

950
Q

OA Pathogenesis

A

During the early stages of OA, the cartilage surface is still intact.
The molecular composition and organisation of the Extra cellular matrix (ECM) is altered first.
Articular chondrocytes, which possess little regenerative capacity and have a low metabolic activity in normal joints, exhibit a transient proliferative response and increased matrix synthesis (Col2, aggrecan etc.) attempting to initiate repair causing by pathological stimulation.
This response is characterized by chondrocyte cloning to form clusters and hypertrophic differentiation, including expression of hypertrophic markers such as Runx2, ColX, and Mmp13.

Changes in the composition and structure of the articular cartilage further stimulate chondrocytes to produce more catabolic factors involved in cartilage degradation.
As proteoglycans and then the collagen network breakdown, cartilage integrity is disrupted.
Articular chondrocytes then undergo apoptosis and the articular cartilage will eventually be completely lost.
The reduced joint space, resulting from total loss of cartilage, causes friction between bones, leading to pain and limited joint mobility.
Other signs of OA, including subchondral sclerosis, bone eburnation, osteophyte formation, as well as loosening and weakness of muscles and tendons will also appear.

951
Q

Osteo Arthritis - Altered Metabolism

A

Metabolism has a key role in the physiological turnover of synovial joint tissues, including articular cartilage.

In OA, chondrocytes and cells in joint tissues other than cartilage undergo metabolic alterations and shift from a resting regulatory state to a highly metabolically active state.

Inflammatory mediators, metabolic intermediates and immune cells influence cellular responses in the pathophysiology of OA.

Key metabolic pathways and mediators might be targets of future therapies for OA.

952
Q

grading criteria for equine osteoarthritis

A

wear lines- graded 0-3

erosions- graded 0-3

palmar athrosis (osteochondral lesions distal palmar aspect of metacarpus)- graded- 0-3

953
Q

Histopathology
of equine osteoarthritis

A

Chondrocyte Necrosis
Chondrone Formation
Fissuring
Focal Cell Loss
less Stain Uptake (Safranin O)

954
Q

Gelsolin

A

Multifunctional protein involved cell shape determination, secretion and chemotaxis.

Gelsolin knockout mouse model - arthritis exacerbation (Aidinis et al., 2005).

Exogenous gelsolin administration - chondroprotective properties, protecting murine cartilage

decreases in horses with OA

955
Q

Alanine

A

Alanine is one of the main amino acid residues which constitutes collagen.

It may be that the reduction in alanine abundance identified with OA cartilage is resultant of degradation of the cartilage collagen framework, which are subsequently released into the SF resulting in the elevated synovial abundance

956
Q

Creatine

A

Nonessential amino acid involved in cellular energy metabolism, maintaining cellular adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels (muscle and brain)

Previous human and equine studies also identified elevated SF creatine in OA SF

Approximately 95% of stored creatine is located within skeletal muscle (Snow and Murphy, 2001). Thus, given the association of muscle atrophy with OA, this elevation in synovial creatine may be reflective of an associated muscle mass loss

957
Q

Stranguria

A

painful, frequent urination of small volumes that are expelled slowly only by straining

Generally disorders of:
The lower urinary tract (bladder or urethra)
The genital tract (prostate, vagina)
Both

Two processes have potential to cause stranguria:
Non-obstructive stranguria
Mucosal irritation/inflammation of lower urinary/genital tract
Obstructive stranguria
Obstruction or narrowing of the urethra/bladder neck

Palpate the bladder size
Stranguria + large bladder may be obstructed = emergency!

958
Q

Haematuria

A

blood in the urine

Haematuria causes:
Iatrogenic haematuria
Pathological haematuria
Genital sources (if voided)

Do they have clinical signs associated with LUTD?
Has bleeding been noticed from other sites?
Trauma?
Rodenticides?
Blood in faeces?
Pattern to urine pigmentation?

Look for haemorrhage at other sites
Abdomen, thorax, mucosae (especially mouth, axillae, groin)
Palpate and assess kidneys for size, symmetry, discomfort
Examine the external genitalia

Gross “pigmenturia”
red, brown or black urine

  1. Urinalysis: positive haem

3 possible causes:
Haematuria
Haemoglobinuria
Myoglobinuria

Gross haematuria:
>150 RBCs/hpf

Occult haematuria:
Positive Hb on dipstick
>5 RBCs/hpf but not visibly pink
Care re: interpretation if catheterised/cysto

Both can be accompanied by clinical signs (stranguria, dysuria, pollakiuria)

959
Q

Dysuria

A

discomfort or burning with urination

960
Q

Pollakiuria

A

increased frequency of urination

961
Q

Periuria

A

urination at inappropriate sites

962
Q

Anuria

A

failure of urine production by the kidneys

963
Q

Oliguria

A

reduction in urine production

964
Q

Polyuria

A

Increase urine production

965
Q

signs of a lame cow

A

head bobbing
stride leanght
joint rigitity
toe tipping
cadence/timing of strides
lordosis

966
Q

The 90% rule for cattle lamness

A

90% of the time it’s in the claw
90% of the time it’s on the back feet
90% of the time it’s the lateral claw on the back feet

967
Q

Foot trimming – Dutch 5 Step

A
  1. Toe length
  2. Match
  3. Model- correct weight distribution on wall of horn
  4. Create height
  5. Investigate/trim loose horn
968
Q

Non-infectious cow foot lesions

A

White Line Disease
Sole Ulcers

Trauma
Iatrogenic
Trimming
Experimental
Nutritional?
Presentation of pain elsewhere?

969
Q

Infectious cow foot lesions

A

Digital derematitis
Foul in the foot
Foot and Mouth Disease
MCF
Polyarthritis – mycoplasma, joint ill

970
Q

White Line Disease

A

a range of presentations, all at the white line.

can travel up to coronary band- if this happens the entire wall of horm must be removed

risk factors-
Horn integrity- more common in aging cattle with weakened horn
Surfaces- deep tracks
Stockmanship- stressed, fearful, pushed around cows, most important risk factor

Treatment:
Block other claw
Remove all loose horn
NSAID

Prevention
Good cow surfaces
Good stockmanship
Appropriate nutrition

971
Q

Sole Ulcers

A

one of the commonest causes of lameness in dairy cattle. It is an area of damaged sole horn which has completely lost the horn tissue except for the corium

Disruption to horn growth due to pressure on the corium underneath P3

Risk Factors:
metabolic- pregnancy, relaxation of the ddft, drops p3 and rotates it
Standing time- biggest, lying time 14 hours is optimum
Surfaces- softer surfaces (pasture) mean cows weigh distribution is more optimal
Foot trimming
Fat mobilisation- fat pad reduction during pregnacy and lac due to neg energy
Inflammation

large long term effects- bone spur formation in P3

treatment:
Remove pressure
Block
Trim loose horn
NSAID

Prevention:
Cow comfort – minimise standing times
Maximise transition health
Ensure cows aren’t lame in dry yards
Prompt ID and treatment
Foot trimming technique and strategy

predominantly a result of poor transition (pregnancy and lactation)

972
Q

Digital Dermatitis in cows

A

Multifactorial
Strong bacterial component
Treponeme spp
Genetic susceptibility
Hoof hygiene

chronic condition- prior infection huge risk

M1- new infection, not painful
M2- acute active lesions, inflamed
M3- healing, black plauqes
M4- chronic but dormant
M4.1- chronic and reactivated

M2- treat topically
M4- footbath

prevention- clenliness
vigilnce with heifers
foot bathing for M4

973
Q

Foul in the foot

A

Bacterial infection of interdigital tissue
F. Necrophorum et al
Painful, swollen ID space
Characteristic fragrance
foul smell

can result in deep infections

Treatment
Systemic antimicrobials
NSAID
Local treatments

Prevention
Similar to DD
Minimise risk of interdigital trauma

974
Q

Heel horn erosion

A

a change in the appearance of the surface of the bulb of the heel in cows

Prevention:
Hygiene and trimming of loose heel horn

975
Q

Interdigital hyperplasia

A

fibrous mass that protrudes from the interdigital space of the feet of cattle

related to laws spreading adn streaching interdigital skin

may be caused by poor trimming

976
Q

Fissures in cattle

A

Horizontal- thimble foot
horizontal fissues indicate stopped horn growth- metabloic

vertical
needs trimming all the way back

axial- iatrogenic- bad hoof triming

977
Q

Toe lesions

A

white line, absesses, Thin soles
Thin soles most common- Abrasion, Over-trimming

not much can be done- thn blocks for those with no pain

978
Q

Corkscrew Claws

A

Don’t tend to occur on well managed farms…

Medial corkscrew claws are a different phenomenon

979
Q

Deep Digital Sepsis

A

Terminal presentation.
deep nfection

980
Q

Footbathing cattle

A

3-4x/week
Not too strong/acidic (below pH3)
No more than 200 cows
Effective design required
Commonest ingredients – formalin, CuSO4

981
Q

common signs of lamness in horses

A

Heat
Effusion (swelling)
Discharge
Muscle atrophy
Lameness!

982
Q

Initial examination for lameness

A

Complete clinical history:
- signalment
- duration
- previous issues
- speed of onset
- exercise induced
- known trauma
- any treatment started
- any pattern?

Observation stationary
- size/shape
- hoof pastern angle
- hoof capsule
- coronary band conformation
- shoe type, wear pattern, position

Palpation
coronary band/ coffin joint(DIPJ)/lateral cartilages/heel bulbs

Remove dirt/false horn
Symmetry/heels?

Hoof testers

983
Q

Gait assessment

A

Hard straight line
Flexion tests
Soft and hard lunge
Ridden sometimes required

hard level non slip surface is important

984
Q

Flexion tests

A

Apply stress or pressure on an anatomical region of the limb for set period of time
Horse then trotted off and observed for the effects of the test on gait

Controversial amongst the equine population
Can induce lameness that may be unrelated to the baseline lameness
Responses must be interpreted carefully

985
Q

how can you tell if a horse has forelimb lamness

A

head is highest during the phase when horse is taking eight on the lambe limb

986
Q

how can you tell if a horse has hindlimb lamness

A

increased verticle displacment of the tuber coxae in the lame limb copared to sound limb

987
Q

what tools are available to diagnose lameness in horses

A

3 grading systems:
1-5: american
1-8: sue dison
1-10: one to use

10/10- non weight baring
8-9/ 10 - toe touching
3/10 seen every stride
1/10- not lame

988
Q

Nerve blocks

A

Time consuming and hazardous!
Valuable tool for localisation
Mepivicaine administered perineurally lasts 90-120min – can be up to 3hours. less tissue reaction than other options
Intra-articularly lasts approximately 1hr

lidocane cheaper but more reaction

in the foot-
Palmar digital
Abaxial sesamoid
Coffin joint
Navicular bursa
DFTS?

False positive
Will the horse warm out of the lameness?
Proximal diffusion?
Clinician bias

False negative
Misdirection of needle outside of the fascia that surrounds the neurovascular bundle or into synovial structure.
Local anaesthetic inadvertently injected into a blood vessel
Clinician bias

Other limitations
Mechanical lameness that doesn’t respond to anaesthesia- dont do if horse warms out of lameness
Desensitisation of skin but not deeper structures.

989
Q

Palmar digital nerve block

A

What does it block?
Sole
Navicular apparatus
Soft tissues of the heel
Coffin joint
Distal portion of the DDFT
Distalsesamoideanligament

inserted distally two points on palmar aspect of foot abouve heel bulbs

How?
25g 2/3in needle (25g if cobby!)
Needle separate from syringe- makes sure you are not in blood vessel, makes it easier to keep needle in if trouble with horse
1.5ml mepivicaine- larger volumes give larger spread and so less diagnostic
Proximal edge of the cartilage of the foot- can palpate neurovascular bundle
Evaluate before 10mins

990
Q

Abaxial sesamoid nerve block

A

What does it block?
Foot
Middle phalanx
PIPJ
Distopalmar aspects of the proximal phalanx
Distal portion of the SDFT andDDFT
Distalsesamoideanligaments
Distal annular ligament
Fetlock

How?
25g 2/3in needle (25g if cobby!)
Needle separate from syringe- makes sure you are not in blood vessel, makes it easier to keep needle in if trouble with horse
2.5ml mepivicaine
Base of the proximal sesamoids- can feel neurovascular bundle
Direct needle distally.

991
Q

Coffin joint block

A

What does it block?
Coffin joint!
Navicular apparatus
Branches of the palmar digital nerves
Toe region of the sole
(larger volumes – heel region of the sole)
Minimal benefit over PDNB

quick block
horse finds it uncomfortable

How?
20g 1.5in needle
Needle separate from syringe
5-6ml mepivicaine
Lateral approach with the limb off the ground
May be better tolerated
May enter navicular bursa or DFTS

992
Q

Navicular bursa block

A

What does it block?
Navicular bursa
Navicular bone and associated ligament’s
Solar toe pain
Distal DDFT
Does not block the coffin joint

How?
Hickman block
20g spinal needle
Desensitise skin
Ideally with radiographic guidance- needle will be inserted, radiograph will be takein, if it sits on the palmar aspect of navicular bone, the la will be injected
Omnipaque?
3-4ml

993
Q

Digital flexor tendon sheath block

A

What does it block?
Lesions within the DFTS
The portion of DDFT in the foot distal to the DFTS
How?
Palmar aspect of the pastern (out of choice)- sheeth is superficial
Tourniquet applied- encorages la to move distally
20g 1-1.5inc needle
Needle must remain superficial to the DDFT

994
Q

Foot balance radiographs

A

Gross imbalance can induce lameness
Correct early on in a lameness investigation
Leave the shoes on
longterm poor foot balence leads to pathology

Lateromedial-
Foot positioned flat
Weight bearing on 2-5cm block
Horizontal beam centred on coronary band halfway between toe and heel
Dorso-palmar imbalance - Long toe/ low heel common finding
What to assess:
Solar surface angle in frontfeet
Long toe/low heel
Osteophyte/entheseophyteassociated with coffinjoint andnaviucularbone
Margin and cortico-medullary definitionnavicular bone

Dorsopalmar (weightbearing)-
How?
Leave shoes on
Foot positioned flat
Weight bearing on 2-5cm block
Horizontal beam centred on coronary band
Often foot not aligned with pastern/fetlock.
What to assess?
Medial –lateral imbalance – abnormal stress though the joints.
Coffin joint space should be even.
Ossification of the lateral cartilages

Dorso proximal palmaro distal oblique-
(Dorsal 65 degree proximal-palmarodistaloblique weight bearing–pedal/ navicular bone)

Shoes off–pack well with putty
Could useDPr-PaDiO
Standing on cassette tunnel
Some elongation of radiographic anatomy
Much easier to perform when limited people.
What to assess:
Navicular bone-
Cyst like lesions
Distal border fragments and lucent zones
Medullary sclerosis

Pedal bone-
Fractures
Keratomas
Osteitis

Palmaroproximal – palmarodistal oblique of the navicular bone (skyline)-

How?
Cassette tunnel
Caudal to the contralateral limb with heel on ground
45o angle
X-ray beam centred between the bulbs of the heel and collimated to the navicular bone

What to assess:
Palmar cortex of the navicular bone
Corticomedullary definition
Lucencies within the spongiosa
Cyst like lesions?

Limited to bony changes
Limited assessment of soft tissues.
By the time radiographic changes are seen its likely disease is well developed.
Advancement in diagnostic imaging has lead to improvement in treatment success rates.
Able to provide a more reliable prognosis with a definitive diagnosis.

995
Q

MRI

A

Utilises radiowaves, strong magnetic fields and computer technology
MRI uses the hydrogen nuclei (protons) found in body water due to their magnetic properties
Once a magnetic field is applied the spinning protons rotate to align with the magnetic field.
A radiofrequency pulse is then applied forcing the protons out of alignment
The radiofrequency pulse is then removed and the electromagnetic energy released is converted into black and white images.
Different sequences are set up to look at different aspects

In the equine veterinary world its being used to improve the accurary and efficacy of diagnostics for lameness investigations.

horses must have GA

Radiographs show only bone
Ultrasound provides soft tissue detail
Ultrasound very limited in the foot.

Image bilateral limbs
Pre-fracture pathology and subtle soft tissue damage
Foot penetrations
Able to image within the hoof capsule!

Indications?
Where radiographs are negative or unclear and US access is difficult in a localised area.
Penetrating injuries
When GA is unadvisable
Acute onset lameness during exercise
Cases that do not respond to treatment as expected.
Monitor progress/ readiness for competition.

996
Q

Computed Tomography

A

Series of x-rays emitted from various angles and the detectors measure attenuation
Provide a 3D image via advanced mathematical algorithms reconstructing the image

Benefits over radiographs-
No super imposition or complex overlap of anatomy

Can orientate images to view key structures

3D image capture in 60 second scan time.

997
Q

Gamma Scintigraphy

A

Radioactive technetium
Bone tracing agent
Identifying fractures
Poor performance cases
Difficult areas to examine/radiograph

998
Q

SUB–SOLAR ABSCESS

A

The most common cause of acute lameness in horses
Ascending bacterial infection into the chorium (solar dermis)
Lesions in the white line
“Nail bind”
Penetration injuries

Risk Factors
Poor foot conformation
Seedy Toe
Wet, muddy conditions
Seen both in shod & unshod horses
Chronic Laminitis / PPID- white line streaches and splays

Diagnosis
Acute & severe unilateral lameness
Grade 3 or 4 (AAEP lameness scale)
Increased digital pulsation to affected hoof – “Bounding pulses”
Heat in the hoof
+/- distal limb swelling

Repeatable and marked pain response on application of hoof testers

Differential Diagnosis-
Solar Bruising, Pedal bone fracture,
Laminitis (rare to be unilateral)

TREATMENT

AIM TO ENCOURAGE DRAINAGE- drainage will be black/grey

Remove Shoe
Pare and clean the sole
‘Explore’ any discoloured tracts or defects in the white line
(Sedation infrequently required)​

NB: Nerve block contraindicated in NWB lameness

POULTICE
To soften hoof prior to curetting
To maintain drainage after abscess open
Poultice should be changed 2-3 times daily

Provide pain relief
24-48 hours NSAID therapy
Phenylbutazone 4.4 mg/kg IV or PO BID

Antibiotics are not indicated for un-complicated abscess

Tetanus Prophylaxis
Check tetanus vaccination status
If in doubt
 Administer tetanus antitoxin

999
Q

Chronic Abscess

A

Will rupture at coronary band or heel bulb
Still aim to encourage drainage distally
May require repeat flushing

1000
Q

Purulent Abscess

A

Deeper/sensitive structure involved
Will require further diagnostics – Radiography
Likely to need more extensive surgery
Antimicrobial therapy indicated

1001
Q

Solar Penetrations

A

If nail/wire is still in place
Leave it in situ - support leg with bandage/splint
Obtained radiographs if possible

If nail/wire already removed by owner
Try to identify tract and carefully pare sole to expose chorium (solar dermis)
Clean, lavage and dress the lesion
BEWARE delay in onset of lameness
Further investigations ASAP if any suspicion of complications;
Contrast Radiography/MRI

Potential Sequelae-
Damage to Pedal bone-
Pedal osteitis  Sequestrum formation
Damage to Soft tissue structures-
Insertion of Deep digital flexor tendon
Impar Ligament
Synovial Infection- 56% survival from hospital
36% return to normal athletic function
Navicular bursa
Distal interphalangeal joint
Digital tendon sheath

Simple, uncomplicated penetration;
As per solar abscess – pare and poultice
Antibiotics only if clear evidence of infection
Judicious use of analgesia / NSAIDs
Penetrations with synovial penetration;
Broad-spectrum antimicrobial therapy
Procaine Penicillin, 22mg/kg IM BID (or IV QID)
Gentamicin, 6.6mg/kg IV SID
SURGICAL INTERVENTION
Arthroscopic lavage of synovial cavity

TETANUS PROPHYLAXIS

1002
Q

Hoof Trauma

A

FOOT CAST
Support
Sterility
Protection
Pain Relief

fracture managment
PRIORITIES

Establish diagnosis to INFORM PROGNOSIS
Stabilise the limb
Provide analgesia

Situational awareness (finances, logistics, future athletic aims)
Allow owner to make informed decision on treatment
Prioritise welfare and recognize role of euthanasia

1003
Q

parameters for assesing lamness

A

head nod- down on sound for front lameness
hip drop, hip hike- hindlimb lamenessy
limb movement- joint angle changes, stride leanght, stance duration, adduction/abduction, limb protration
sound of hoof hitting carrage
tail carrige
track
quality of movment- “stifff” ect

1004
Q

what is the best movment paraemter to detect and quantify lameness

A

alterations in weightbrearing forces on the ground

1005
Q

describe an exam for lamness in small animals

A

step 1- history

Step 2. Hands off: Observe
Observe sitting and standing
Uneven weight distribution on a particular limb
Muscle asymmetry
Join angulations/conformation
Loading position of feet and toes
Asymmetries in ways limbs are positioned
Swellings
Observe sitting -> standing
Particularly useful if stifle issues
Positive sit test
Weight shifting

Observe - Moving
Analyse gait and lameness
Contraindicated in severe lameness or major traumatic injury
Observe prior to treatments
Walk and trot
Repeat on different surfaces – concrete, gravel, grass
Lameness score 5 or 10 point scale – subjective
Kinematic/kinetic gait analysis - objective
Head nod- down on sound

Stride length and duration

Limb tracking- limb should be stight
Gait abnormalities are not always painful
Some are conformational
Muscle contractures
Limb shortening
Joint arthrodesis

Some are neurological
Ataxia
knuckling

3.Hands-on examination
General Clinical Exam

  1. Orthopaedic Examination
    Be methodical
    Minimal restraint
    Palpate painful areas last
  2. Neurological Examination
    Proprioceptive testing
    Reflex testing

Symmetry

Manipulation:
May be painful – be gentle
Some manipulations better performed under sedation or general anaesthesia

instability: laxity (looseness), sub-luxation or luxation (dislocated)
pain
range of motion:
flex, extend, abduct, adduct, rotate
reduced or increased?
Crepitus

1006
Q

Lameness Grading in small animals

A

0- no lamness
1- subtle and only observed in trot
2- mild lameness in walk, worse in trot
3- obvious in both gautes
4- observeavle in both gautes with periods on non weight baring
5- non wiegh bearing most/all of the time

1007
Q

signs of Forelimb lameness in small animals

A

Placement on lame limb – head raises
Placement of sound limb – head dips

1008
Q

signs of hindlimb lameness in small animals

A

Placement of lame limb – pelvis rises
Placement of sound limb – pelvis dips
Weight shift to forelimbs

Bilateral lameness
Abnormal tracking – affected limbs wider
Forelimbs – short choppy strides and circumduction
Hindlimbs
Hips – waddling/oscillating gait at walk
Stifles – short stilted strides and circumduction
Bunny-hopping

1009
Q

lameness effecting the elbow of small animals

A

Complex hinge joint
Common site of lameness in large breed dogs:
Elbow dysplasia- hard to see sue to it being bilateral
Effusion -> lateral epicondyle and olecranon

1010
Q

lameness effecting the shoulder of small animals

A

Biceps Tendon test
Abduction test to assess medial instability under GA/sedation
examine after elbow to distinguish between elbow and shoulder pain

1011
Q

lameness effecting the Pelvic Limb
of small animals

A

Tarsus
Tibiotarsal joint only appreciable motion
Assess for laxity and luxations
Palpated and stressed
Hyperflexion
SDFT
Calcaneal tendon

Tibia & Fibula
Deep palpation to elicit osseus source of pain
Detect focal area of swelling
Abnormal conformation

1012
Q

Stifle Examination

A

Synovial effusion -> palpate either side of the patellar ligament.
Chronic cranial cruciate ligament instability results in medial fibrosis and thickening -> medial buttress
Patella position ->patellar luxation
Partial CCL rupture
Craniomedial band rupture
Cranial drawer only in flexion
Intact caudolateral band taut in extension – prevents cranial drawer

Caudolateral band rupture
No cranial drawer
Craniomedial band taut in flexion and extension – prevents cranial drawer.

CCL
Positive Sit Test
Cranial Draw
Tibial Compression Test/Tibial thrust

1013
Q

Patella Luxation

A

Medial>Lateral patella luxation
More common in smaller dogs
Insidious in onset
Skipping intermittent lameness
Graded in severity from I to IV:
Grade 1: subclinical. Patella can be manipulated out of place but will return to its normal position
Grade 2: the patella luxates when the stifle is placed through a normal range of movement, spontaneously.
Grade 3: permanent luxation but the patella can be manually returned (reduced) to the femoral trochlear sulcus by the examiner, but the patella luxates again.
Grade 4: permanent luxation and the patella cannot be returned to the femoral trochlear sulcus.

1014
Q

lamness resulting from te hips in small animals

A

Hip examination:
Decreased ROM especially in extension
Crepitus
Pain
Laxity
Note ->Hip extension also results in extension of the lumbosacral joint and passive extension of the stifle – beware false-positives.
Extension and abduction of the hip = hip pain

1015
Q

Ortolani test

A

More objective assessment of hip laxity
Must be done under sedation/GA

Angle of subluxation  the point at which the hip subluxates
Angle of reduction  the point at which the femoral head returns to the acetabulum

1016
Q

Abnormalities can be classified according to distribution within the skeleton:

A

Monostotic – involving a single bone (e.g. an osteosarcoma)
Polyostotic – multiple bones are involved (as seen with multiple myeloma or haematogenous osteomyelitis
Focal – may involve a specific bone region (e.g. the metaphysis)
Generalized – involving all bones (as may be seen with metabolic conditions)
Symmetrical or Asymmetrical

1017
Q

Bone reacts to pathological processes in a limited number of ways:

A

change in alignment
change in contour
increased or decreased bone mass.

1018
Q

Aggressive vs non-aggressive changes in radiographs of bones

A

Aggressive lesion  rapid bony change where there is minimal time for the bone to respond and remodel
Non-aggressive lesion  benign, slow-growing, more chronic process with time for bone to remodel.
Wide spectrum in between!

This can be assessed by looking at the nature of any:
Bone destruction (lysis)
Periosteal reaction
Lytic edge character
Cortical disruption
Transition from normal to abnormal bone
Rate of change (10-14 days)

1019
Q

Periosteal Reactions:

A

New bone production:
Artifact (superimposition)
New bone production secondary to injury

continiuos (solid, lammelar, lamellated) vs interupted (thin brush like, sunburst, amorphus)

1020
Q

bone loss in radiographs

A

Aggressive vs non-aggressive changes
Patterns of bone lysis:
Artifact (superimposition)
Real due to generalised or focal bone loss

geofraphic lysis- least agressive
moth eaten lysis
permiative bone lysis- most agressive

1021
Q

Stages of wound healing

A
  1. Haemorrhage/Coagulation -
    Immediate haemorrhage
    Vasoconstriction
    Vasodilation
    Blood clot forms
    ‘Scab’
  2. Inflammation/Debridement -
    6 hours after injury
    Neutrophils -> Monocytes -> Macrophages
    Macrophages – ESSENTIAL TO WOUND HEALING
    Wound exudate – serosanguinous to purulent – NORMAL finding
    Inflammatory phase can be minimal in apposed wound e.g. surgical incision
  3. Reparative .-
    Granulation tissue –
    Identified between day 3 and 5 of wound healing
    Fibroblasts
    Angiogenesis – capillaries advance 0.4-1mm/ day
    Collagen
    Develops from wound margins
    Contraction - 5-9 days after injury

Epithelialisation -
Visible 4-5 days after injury
Pink smooth margin to wound
Monolayer of cells

  1. Maturation
    Re-organisation of collagen
    Can take Months – Years
    80% Strength of normal tissue
1022
Q

stage one of wound healing

A

Haemorrhage/Coagulation -

Immediate haemorrhage

Vasoconstriction

Vasodilation

Blood clot forms

‘Scab’

1023
Q

stage two of wound healing

A

nflammation/Debridement -
6 hours after injury
Neutrophils Monocytes Macrophages
Macrophages – ESSENTIAL TO WOUND HEALING
Wound exudate – serosanguinous to purulent – NORMAL finding
Inflammatory phase can be minimal in apposed wound e.g. surgical incision

1024
Q

stage three of wound healing

A

Reparative-

Granulation tissue –
Identified between day 3 and 5 of wound healing
Fibroblasts
Angiogenesis – capillaries advance 0.4-1mm/ day
Collagen
Develops from wound margins

Contraction

5-9 days after injury

Epithelialisation

Visible 4-5 days after injury

Pink smooth margin to wound

Monolayer of cells

1025
Q

stage four of wound healing

A

maturation-

Re-organisation of collagen

Can take Months – Years

80% Strength of normal tissue

1026
Q

First Intention wound healing

A

Healing of a wound where skin edges are closely re-approximated

1027
Q

Second Intention wound healing

A

Gap left between wound edges and natural healing allowed to occur
nsuitable for surgical closure, extensive contamination or devitalisation

Allow to heal by granulation, contraction and epithelialisation

1028
Q

Immediate Primary wound healing

A

Incision/Clean e.g. surgical incision
closes imediatly

1029
Q

Delayed Primary wound closure

A

Clean contaminated – contaminated

closes Up to 2-3 days after wounding. Inflammatory phase over

1030
Q

Secondary wound closure

A

Contaminated or Dirty

closes Up to 5-7 days after wounding. Granulation tissue present

1031
Q

Approach to wound management in abrasions

A

partial skin thickness wound

Rapidly re-epithelialise

Can be more severe – shearing injuries e.g. RTA

heals by Second Intention

1032
Q

Approach to wound management in avulsions

A

valuation – Avulsion
= skin torn from underlying attachments e.g. de-gloving injury of distal

heals by
Delayed Primary Closure

Secondary Closure

Second Intention

1033
Q

Approach to wound management in Incisions

A

smooth wound edges with minimal trauma e.g. surgical wound
heals by Immediate Primary Closure

1034
Q

Approach to wound management in laceration

A

= ragged incision with variable damage to surrounding tissues
Immediate Primary Closure?

Delayed Primary Closure

Secondary Closure

1035
Q

Approach to wound management in burns

A

Classified by depth -

First degree: superficial

Second degree: partial thickness

Third degree: full thickness

Secondary Closure

Second Intention

1036
Q

Approach to wound management in Punctures

A

e.g. bite wounds or ballistic missile

Minimal external skin damage
Extensive underlying tissue damage
Foreign material e.g. dirt/debris/hair in wound
Surgical exploration indicated
Consider underlying structures! - penetration of body cavities???

Delayed Primary Closure

Secondary Closure

1037
Q

Poor local blood supply to a wound =

A

slow granulation tissue formation and increased risk of wound infection
Can be difficult to assess in the early stages

1038
Q

pproach to wound management - debriding

A

emove devitalised tissue, foreign material, bacteria from wound
Sedation/GA/local
Clip hair from around wound
SHARP excision with scalpel
Conservative with skin
Radical with fat/muscle
Preserve bone/tendons/blood vessels/nerves where possible
Bleeding good indicator of tissue viability
NO point leaving in obviously necrotic tissue

1039
Q

Approach to wound management -Lavage

A

DILUTION IS THE SOLUTION TO POLLUTION

TYPE OF FLUID
TAP WATER – CHEAP and readily available. Useful for grossly contaminated large wounds

HARTMANNS/STERILE SALINE (0.9%) – fluid of choice. Still relatively cheap, minimally toxic to cells
20 or 50ml syringe with 18G needle

DO NOT USE UNDILUTED ANTISEPTICS E.G. CHLORHEXIDINE FOR WOUND LAVAGE

1040
Q

Barriers to wound healing

A

Infection

Movement

Foreign Material

Necrotic tissue

Local factors – pH, Shape of wound
Poor blood supply

Health Status

Iatrogenic Factors

Cell transformation

Patient Temperament

Client Temperament

1041
Q

Principles of Open Wound Management

A

Assess at every stage:
Degree of inflammation
Degree of exudate
Presence and quality of granulation tissue
Skin edges
Degree of epithelialisation

1042
Q

Primary contact layer for Bandaging Inflammatory/Debridement
wounds

A

Wet to dry
Moisture retentive
Honey
Negative pressure
MagPrimary contact layer for Bandaging Inflammatory/Debridement
wounds gots
q24 hours for 1st 3 days then q48 hours

1043
Q

Primary contact layer for Bandaging Reparative – early stages wounds

A

Wet to dry?
Moisture retentive
Honey
Negative pressure

1044
Q

Primary contact layer for Bandaging Reparative – later stage/good granulation bed wounds

A

Moisture retentive
Foam/absorptive
Hydrogel if drying out

1045
Q

Nutrition associated diseases in exotics

A

Commonly referred to as MBD

Results from inadequate dietary calcium and/or vitamin D3, imbalance in the calcium-to-phosphorus ratio and/or lack of UV light provision.

Persistent hypocalcaemia will lead to hyperparathyroidism.

This causes an increase in production of parathyroid hormone (PTH)  promotes calcium resorption from the bones .

Uncommon in snakes
Eat warm-blooded whole prey items

Exceptions ->Green snakes
Insectivorous

Most commonly seen in herbivorous, insectivorous and omnivorous reptiles.
Increased incidence in herbivorous and insectivorous species  challenging with diets
Diurnal species may be more susceptible

More in juvenile animals due to an increase in demand for growth.
Parents may play an essential role
Vitamin D3
Calcium
Genetic status
Skeletal development during embryonic development  influences bone quality in later life

Less common in adult reptiles (with the exception of reproductively active females) as long bones and/or shell are no longer growing, reducing the calcium demand.

Similar clinical signs may be seen in adults and usually are due to other metabolic diseases such as renal secondary hyperparathyroidism (RSHP).

Differentials for bone and joint changes
RSHP
Traumatic fractures
Osteomyelitis
Gout/pseudogout
Abscesses
Cellulitis
Neoplasia

lizards-
Brachycephalic appearance to the head
Deformity of mandibular and maxillary bones
Soft and pliable
Deformed jaw  characteristic smile appearance
Kyphosis and scoliosis of the spine
May see decreased neurological function to the rear limbs

Hypocalcaemic tetany
Partial depolarisation of nerves and muscles  tremors, twitching and seizures
Tremors and fasciculations may be seen, especially during handling
Seizure, tetany and/or flaccid paresis of limbs/tail.

chelonians-
Beak may be overgrown and can develop a parrot beak-like appearance.
Prolapse of the cloaca, colon, rectum or phallus due to a lack of calcium on smooth muscle.
Carapace and plastron may be soft, the shape of the shell may be distorted and there may be difficulty in ambulating due to the inability to lift the plastron from the ground.

1046
Q

hypocalcaemia birds

A

Hypocalcaemia
Inadequate dietary calcium and/or vitamin D3
Lack of UV light provision.

Commonly seen in Grey Parrots

Commonly seen in birds fed seed diet.

Lethargy
Fluffed-up
Shaking/tremoring
Seizures
Pathological fractures
Limb deformities
Dystocia

Clinical examination
Full blood profile
Ionised calcium low
Radiography
Serum 25-hydroxycholecalciferol

1047
Q

Exotic mammals – NSHP

A

Less commonly diagnosed with NSHP
Reported in
Nonhuman primates
Sugar gliders
Skunks
Exotic cats
Guinea pigs
Rabbits

NSHP not uncommon in sugar gliders
Causes
Suboptimal husbandry
Suboptimal nutrition
Low calcium
Low vitamin D3
High phosphorus
Clinical signs
Acute collapse
CNS abnormalities
Seizures
Hind limb weakness
Osteoporosis

1048
Q

Hypovitaminosis E

A

Birds
Associated with muscle weakness
Localised wing paralysis
Poor digestion
Embryonic and hatchling mortalities

Rabbits
Cause of muscular dystrophy
Degeneration and necrosis of skeletal muscle fibres

Long-term storage of feed can decrease vitamin E content

1049
Q

Vitamin B deficiency

A

Chondrodystrophy
Short, widened leg bones
Distortion of the hock
Slipped tendon/gastrocnemius tendon movement from trochlear groove – also called perosis
Associated with nutritional deficiencies
Vitamin B deficiencies
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
Biotin (vitamin B7)
Folic acid (vitamin B9)
Niacin (vitamin B3)
Manganese deficiency
Choline deficiency
Zinc deficiency

1050
Q

Myopathies in exotics

A

Myopathy = muscle disease
Capture myopathy = exertional rhabdomyolysis
Occurs as a result of stress & physical exertion
Important in capture and restraint of wild or zoo animals
Ungulates susceptible
Some bird species  long legged wading birds and ratites
Myopathy in poultry
Associated with heavy, large birds

Can be associated with different infectious organisms
Fungi
Bacteria
Viruses
Protozoa
Trematodes
Mycobacterial infections
Zoonotic implications
Weight loss, severe muscle wasting, atrophy of pectoral muscles (birds)
Granulomatous lesions in bones and joints
Identification of acid-fast microorganisms

1051
Q

neoplasia in exotic

A

Tumours of the musculoskeletal system
Squamous cell carcinomas of the mandible
Leiomyosarcomas
Osteoma/Osteosarcomas
Chondrosarcomas
Rhabdomyomas/rhabdomyosarcomas
Sarcomas
Chordomas

Chordoma -ferrets
Commonly occur at tip of the tail

1052
Q

Osteomyelitis in exotics

A

Osteomyelitis  infection of bone or medullary canal
Bacterial osteomyelitis
Staphylococcus spp.
Streptococcus spp.
Gram-negative aerobic bacteria
Sometimes anaerobic infections
Sometimes fungi
Diagnosis
Radiographs
Culture of samples
Culture of implants  implants used for internal fixation can act as a nidus of infection, or a sequestrum may be present

1053
Q

Gout

A

Gout  painful!
Visceral gout - crystals within internal organs
Articular gout – crystals in joints
Periarticular gout – crystals in the tissues around the joint
Clinical exam
Poor body condition
Subcutaneous nodules near joints
Pain on palpation
Diagnosis
History
Clinical exam
Bloods  Uric acid high
FNA and cytology  birefringent needle-shaped urate crystals
Radiography  Osteolysis and proliferative densities around joints

1054
Q

Structure of the skin

A

Epidermis
Superficial
Derived from ectoderm

Dermis
Deeper
Derived from mesoderm

Subcutis/Hypodermis

1055
Q

structure of Epidermis

A

Most superficial layer
4 cell types :
Keratinocytes ∼ 85%
Langerhans cells ∼ 3– 8%
Melanocytes ∼ 5%
Merkel cells ∼ 2%

1056
Q

Keratinocytes

A

form the bulk of the epidermis.
Produced from the stratum basale
Constantly reproduced and then shed as dead horny cells.
Anchored to each other by desmosomes

Structural and immune functions:
produce structural keratins
phagocytic and capable of processing antigens
produce cytokines (IL-1, IL-3, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, interferon)

Pemphigus foliaceus- a rare autoimmune condition that causes painful and itchy blisters and sores to form on your skin.

1057
Q

Langerhans cells

A

mononuclear dendritic cells
immune surveillance of the skin
found basally or suprabasilar

Functions:
antigen processing and presentation to helper T lymphocytes
induction of cytotoxic T lymphocytes directed to modified alloantigens
production of cytokines including IL-1
phagocytic activity.

1058
Q

Melanocytes

A

Dendritic cells
found within epidermis, hair follicle and ducts of sebaceous and sweat glands.
In epidermis, each melanocyte communicate with 10– 20 keratinocytes to form the ‘epidermal melanin unit’.
Each melanocyte produces eumelanin or pheomelanin within melanosomes  melanosomes migrate to the end of dendrites and transfer melanin to adjacent epidermal cells.

functions:
production of protective colouration and for sexual attraction
barrier against ionising radiation
scavengers for cytotoxic radicals
contribution to inflammatory response via production of cytokines

1059
Q

Merkel Cells

A

Dendritic epidermal cells in basal cell layer of the epidermis or just below.

Functions:
specialised slow-adapting mechanoreceptors
influencing cutaneous blood flow and sweat production
coordinating keratinocytes proliferation
controlling of hair cycle by maintaining and stimulating hair follicle stem cell population.

1060
Q

layers of the epidermis

A

Stratum Basale
Stratum Spinosum
Stratum Granulosum
Stratum Lucidum
Stratum Corneum

1061
Q

Stratum Basale

A

Single layer columnar cells
Mostly keratinocytes
Anchoring:
To Basement Membrane Zone (BMZ)/dermis
hemidesmosomes
KC to KC
desmosome
Initial site of keratin production
Stem cell function
Proliferating- very mitotically active, skin produced here

1062
Q

Stratum Spinosum

A

Generally 1-2 cells thick
Footpads, nasal planum and MCJ’s upto 20 cell layers
Desmosomes mediate adhesion between keratinocytes
Important in barrier function

1063
Q

Stratum Granulosum

A

Not always present in haired skin (1-2 cell thick if is)
Cornified envelope and degeneration of cells starts in this level
various lipids and enzymes-secreted extracellularly (watertight seal)

1064
Q

Stratum Lucidum

A

Compact layer of dead keratinocytes only found in footpads and nasal planum.

1065
Q

Stratum Corneum

A

Outermost layer of skin
Flattened cornified anucleate cells
Constantly shed

1066
Q

Basement Membrane Zone (BMZ)

A

Separates epidermis from the dermis
Acts as a physical barrier- maintians arcatechtue AND STRUCTURE
Regulates nutrition
Aids in wound healing

1067
Q

The Dermis

A

The dermis forms the middle of the three layers and is comprised of dense connective tissue that is vascular. - Thickness of dermis determines the thickness of the skin

It is this layer that contains the nerve fibres, nerve endings and elastic fibres in addition to the hair follicles, and the sweat and sebaceous glands that grow down from the epidermis.

Tensile strength and elasticity of skin
Made up of:
Insoluble fibres ->collagen and elastin ->resist tensile forces
Soluble polymers -> proteoglycans and hyaluronan -> dissipate compressive forces

1068
Q

Hypodermis

A

The hypodermis or subcutaneous layer lies beneath the dermis and consists of loose connective tissue.

Predominant cell type – lipocyte (90%)
Energy reserve
Thermogenesis and insulation
Protective padding and support
Maintaining surface contour/shape
Small blood supply - susceptible to disease

1069
Q

Functions of the integument

A
  1. Protection
    Mechanical protection from chemical, physical and microbial damage
    Epidermal cells, Hair, Specialised secretions e.g. sebaceous and sweat glands
    Antibacterial and antifungal activity
    Immune system
    Nerve sensors to allow the perception of heat, cold, pressure, pain and itch
    Pigment production to protect against solar damage
  2. Maintenance of homeostasis
    prevent loss of water, electrolytes and macromolecules Temperature regulation
  3. Excretion
    Sebaceous glands, sweat glands
    Secretion via epitrichial, atrichial and sebaceous glands
  4. Synthesis of vitamin D
    Calcium homeostasis
    Conversion of Vitamin D precursor into Vit D3
    Synthesis of calcitriol by kidney
  5. Storage
    Energy reserve
    Storage of vitamins, electrolytes, water, fat, carbohydrates and protein
  6. Other
    Elasticity to allow movement
    Production of adnexa, e.g. hair and claws
    Communication as to the health of the individual and sexual identity
1070
Q

structureof hair

A

Specialised keratinised tubular structure-
Primary (guard hairs)-
Bulb deep in dermis
Have associated sebaceous glands, sweat glands, arrector pili muscles

Secondary (downy hairs)-
Small, not as deep in dermis
May have associated sebaceous gland but not sweat glands or arrector pili muscles

Cortex, medulla & cuticle containing variable pigment

Important for Insulation, Signalling, Physical protection

1071
Q

Sebaceous Glands

A

Holocrine secretion – produces sebum containing triglycerides, other lipids (e.g. linoleic acid), transferrin, IgA, IgG
Functions of sebum
Lubricates hair, and skin (glossy sheen)
Required for normal hair shaft separation
Excreted via squamous duct to the hair follicle

1072
Q

hair follicles

A

Simple hair follicles
single hair protrudes from the follicular orifice

Compound hair follicles
multiple hairs use the same follicular orifice (enter at the level of the sebaceous gland)

Species differences:
Omnivores and herbivores – simple follicles (bar sheep)
Dogs – compound – 2-15 hairs per group
Cats – compound follicles – 10-12 hairs per group

1073
Q

The hair cycle

A

Three phases:
Anagen (growing phase) – deep dermis
New hair produced under previous hair in deep dermis
Distinctive hair bulb containing follicular dermal papilla

Catagen (intermediate phase) – mid dermis
Rarely seen in normal skin – feature of some skin diseases (e.g. alopecia X)

Telogen (resting phase) – mid to upper dermis

Regulated by photoperiod, temperature, hormones and growth factors

1074
Q

Trichograms

A

a trichogram is the microscopic examination of hair shafts

Telogen bulb-
spear-shaped
rough
no pigment

Inactive hairs
Normally 80-90%
often 100% in endocrinopathies- results in allopecia

Anagen bulb-
rounded
smooth
pigmented centre +/-
bulb may fold around shaft when plucked

Actively growing hairs
Normally 10-20%

But many variations…

Breed variations:
poodles 80-100% anagen
Most dogs/cats telogenic growth patterns

Seasonal variation:
summer <50% anagen
winter 10% anagen

NB 100% telogen never normal. Indicates eg:
Endocrine disease
Telogen effluvium (sudden hairloss 1-2 months post-stress)
Post-clipping alopecia

Look at the hair tips!

Normal hair tips
Smooth pointed tips

Angular broken ends
Indicates self-inflicted hair loss and probable pruritus

1075
Q

Pruritis

A

Unpleasant sensation that elicits the desire or reflex to scratch (rub, lick, chew)
Classify as
Pruriceptive pruritus – due to stimulation of peripheral receptors in skin (in presence of healthy nervous system). Usually due to skin disease

Neuropathic pruritus – generated in CNS in response to
circulating pruritogens (eg cholestasis)
pharmacological mediators (eg intraspinal morphine)
anatomical lesion of PNS or CNS, eg syringomyelia in CKCS

Psychogenic pruritus recognised in animals/man, poorly understood)
Uncommon but need to differentiate from dermatological causes of pruritus

Somato-sensory activity of skin involves
Mechanoreceptors
Thermoreceptors
Nociceptors – itch and pain
Mainly via unmyelinated slow-conducting C-fibres
Some dedicated purely to itch (and temperature change)
Also A-delta fibres

But complex interaction between itch and pain
Painful stimuli can inhibit itch (eg scratching)

1076
Q

Pruriceptive pruritus

A

due to stimulation of peripheral receptors in skin (in presence of healthy nervous system). Usually due to skin disease

1077
Q

Neuropathic pruritus

A

generated in CNS in response to
circulating pruritogens (eg cholestasis)
pharmacological mediators (eg intraspinal morphine)
anatomical lesion of PNS or CNS, eg syringomyelia in CKCS

1078
Q

Sensitisation in chronic pruritus

A

In man:
Peripheral sensitisation
Scratching ->increase local inflammation -> production of pruritogens by inflammatory cells -> ncrease C-fibre responsiveness

Central sensitisation
Inflammation of skin -> altered perception of gentle mechanical /other stimuli -> perceived as pruritus (allokinesis)

+ Emotional, biochemical, central factors alter pruritic neural impulses in the brain

Likely occurs in animals too…
Therefore in the chronically pruritic animal, marked pruritus may be incited by only minor stimuli (hyperkinesis)

Threshold of itch: summation effect
– an important clinical concept….

Pruritus from multiple sources may coexist, eg:
Allergen concentrations
Often seasonally variable in atopy
Environmental factors
heat enhances itch – lowers threshold of receptors to pruritus
effects on skin microclimate and microbial growth

Ectoparasites -
Flea burden, even if not flea-allergic

Stress factors-
changes in the family, new pets, new baby, move house

Effects summate and may take pruritus over the pruritic threshold -> clinical pruritus.

Identification and elimination of as many factors as possible is important -> return below the threshold where able

1079
Q

Skin lesions

A

Primary lesions: Those that are a direct result of skin disease. They are usually most obvious in the early stages of the disease and are those upon which a definitive diagnosis should be based.
Macule
Papule
Nodule
Vesicle
Bulla
Pustule
Wheals
Alopecia
Scale
Crust
Comedone
Follicular Cast

Secondary lesions: are mostly non specific and are caused by pathological changes which result from the primary disease and its lesions or by self-inflicted damage by the patient. (more common) result of cutaneous, immunological or metabolic abnormality.
Erosion
Ulcer
Lichenification
Hyperpigmentation
Epidermal collarette

1080
Q

Epidermal responses

A

Hyperkeratosis
Scale (seborrhoea)
Follicular hyperkeratosis
Acanthosis
Lichenification
Vesicle/pustule formation
Hyperpigmentation/ hypopigmentation
Crusting

1081
Q

Dermal responses

A

Erythema
Oedema
Thickening

1082
Q

Hyperkeratosis

A

Increased depth of the cornified layer
Scaling
= production of abnormal or excessive scale
indicates abnormality of keratinisation
also known as seborrhoea (older term)
can be greasy (“oleosa”) or dry (“sicca”)
Can be primary (usually inherited) or secondary

compared to Crusting
formation of dried exudate
variable cellularity, variably coloured
may contain organisms
always secondary

Primary keratinisation defects
unusual/rare in domestic animals
Ichthyosis (fish scales) of Golden Retrievers

secondary defects are common
Non-specific sign indicative of
increased turnover of epidermis, or
imbalance between turnover and desquamation

Feature of many different skin diseases
Metabolic
Infectious
Parasitic
Immune mediated
Neoplastic

Follicular Hyperkeratosis

1083
Q

Follicular Hyperkeratosis

A

Keratinaceous plugs in hair follicle infundibula
= comedo / comedones (plural)

particular feature of
Demodicosis-parasite lives down hair follicle
Endocrinopathies

Comedones (black heads) in a hypothyroid dog -skin scrapes and hair plucks for Demodex are essential first tests in dogs which present with comedones.

Keratinaceous collar around emerging hair
= follicular cast

Non-specific finding, often seen in many diseases where increased keratin produced in the hair follicle e.g.

Sebaceous adenitis
Demodicosis
Dermatophytosis
Endocrinopathies
Vitamin-A associated dermatosis

Usually seen on trichogram

1084
Q

follicular cast

A

type of Follicular Hyperkeratosis

Keratinaceous collar around emerging hair
= follicular cast

Non-specific finding, often seen in many diseases where increased keratin produced in the hair follicle e.g.

Sebaceous adenitis
Demodicosis
Dermatophytosis
Endocrinopathies
Vitamin-A associated dermatosis

Usually seen on trichogram

1085
Q

comedo / comedones (plural)

A

type of Follicular Hyperkeratosis

Keratinaceous plugs in hair follicle infundibula
= comedo / comedones (plural)

particular feature of
Demodicosis-parasite lives down hair follicle
Endocrinopathies

1086
Q

Acanthosis

A

Increased depth of epidermis - inc no. of layers of cells
usually due to persistant low grade trauma

different from Hyperkeratosis = Increased depth of cornified layer

1087
Q

Lichenification

A

Thickening and hardening of the skin characterised by exaggeration of the superficial skin markings

Non-specific finding of many diseases with chronic inflammation or friction

: different from Hyperkeratosis = Increased depth of cornified layer

1088
Q

Vesicles of the skin

A

A small circumscribed elevation of the epidermis containing clear fluid less than 1 cm (“blister”)
Short-lived as epidermis is very fragile
Subsequently see erosions and ulcers.
Usually occur with:
Viruses e.g.
FMD
Feline orthopoxvirus
Orf (sheep)
Autoimmune diseases

Bulla-
As above but more than 1 cm diameter

1089
Q

Erosions vs Ulcers

A

Erosions
(superficial: basal layer of epidermis not breached)

ulcers
(deeper: dermis exposed)

1090
Q

Papule

A

Papule
Small solid elevation of skin <1cm diameter
Often erythematous
May –> crusts of serum, pus or blood

Plaque
A large flatter elevation of the skin, sometimes formed by papules coalescing

1091
Q

Plaque

A

A large flatter elevation of the skin, sometimes formed by papules coalescing

1092
Q

Pustule

A

Pustule
Small (<1cm) skin elevation, filled with pus
Often start as papule
But not all papules turn into pustules!
Both are always primary lesions… cf scale, crust

Usually associated with infection..
..but some are sterile (eg auto-immune diseases)

do impression smear of contents:

Helps differentiate bacterial vs sterile pustules (pustules often sterile in immune-mediated diseases eg pemphigus foliaceus)
Also used to detect acantholytic keratinocytes

Insert a fine (25-27G) needle into pustule (needle parallel to skin so not puncturing tissue below pustule)

Impress microscope slide directly onto pustule contents. Air dry and stain.

1093
Q

Nodules

A

Nodules
A solid elevation of the skin greater than
1 cm in diameter that usually extends into the deeper skin layers.

Nodules may result from:
Neoplasia (originating from skin cells, or metastatic)
Inflammatory cell accumulation (especially chronic granulomatous inflammation associated with infections or sterile processes)
or less commonly, tissue dysplasia or hyperplasia or mineral deposition

1094
Q

Pigmentation Disturbances

A

Melanocytes in basal layer of epidermis-
Important in skin pigmentation
But also role in local modulation of cutaneous inflammation

Skin damage can result in both hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation

Hyperpigmentation-
Skin pigmentation increased beyond what is normal for that area

Non-specific -
Commonly post-inflammatory
Some endocrine skin disorders

Hypopigmentation
Skin pigmentation decreased beyond what is normal for that area

Feature of diseases affecting the basal epidermis and dermo-epidermal junction in dog, eg
some immune-mediated disorders
epitheliotropic lymphoma (neoplasia)

Hypopigmentation
Skin pigmentation decreased beyond what is normal for that area

Feature of diseases affecting the basal epidermis and dermo-epidermal junction in dog, eg
some immune-mediated disorders
epitheliotropic lymphoma (neoplasia)

But also post-inflammatory, especially after more marked inflammation in the horse
Cutaneous lupus erythematosus
(immune-mediated)
Leucotrichia

1095
Q

Crusting of the skin

A

Formed when dried exudate, serum, pus, blood, cells, scales or medications adhere to skin surface

Caused by multiple exudative and ulcerative diseases including:
Physical damage- mechanical, thermal, chemical

Many infectious processes- Viral, bacterial, fungal, parasitic

Sterile inflammatory diseases- auto-immune and immune mediated diseases

Ulcerating neoplasms

1096
Q

erythema

A

dermal response

Damage -> release of pro-inflammatory mediators (incl. histamine) -> vasodilation of dermal vessels -> erythema

Common in infectious and allergic processes…

Epitheliotropic lymphoma

Macule
A circumscribed flat area of change in colour of the skin <1cm in diameter
>1cm = patch

Bacterial pyoderma

1097
Q

Oedema of the skin

A

dermal reaction

Mediated by histamine and other cytokines  increased vascular permeability  leakage of tissue fluid  urticarial lesions
‘Pit’ on pressure
Classically Type I hypersensitivity but occasional other causes

Wheals: circumscribed, raised lesion consisting of dermal oedema.
-> Reflect localised mast cell degranulation

1098
Q

Thickening of the skin

A

dermal reaction
Associated with:
Longer-standing allergic reactions
Late-phase reaction  cellular infiltrate
Chronic inflammatory conditions
Increased collagen/other connective tissue components

NB Sometimes nodular – need to differentiate from neoplasms (fine-needle aspirate/biopsy)

1099
Q

Alopecia

A

= Loss of hair
Partial
Complete
Due to
failure to grow properly
Endocrinopathies
Hair follicle dysplasias
damage to hair follicles/shafts
Trauma
Follicular infections
Follicular parasites
Neoplasia
Immune-mediated/autoimmune disease
Nutritional deficiency

Demidocosis (follicular parasite)

Dermatophytosis
(Fungal follicular infection)

Sertoli cell tumour (testicular tumour) -> produces oestrogens -> alopecia

1100
Q

Normal Skin flora

A

Skin and hairs are not sterile and have a resident flora.

Normal skin is resistant to microorganisms

The resident flora can aid in exclusion of pathogens but may also contribute to disease.

Disease occurs when virulence of pathogen overwhelms or bypasses the cutaneous defences - or the resident flora is disadvantaged by local conditions and overgrowth occurs.

Definitions.
Resident - can replicate on the skin and can persist.

Nomad organisms that can colonise and reproduce on the skin for short times.

Transient - can not replicate so stay for a short time.

Pathogens organisms that become established and can proliferate on the skin surface and deeper that are deleterious to normal physiology of the skin.

staphelococus intermedius- resident
micrococcus - resident
pseudomonas- transient

1101
Q

What should be found on skin microscopy?

A

some bacteria and yeast.

Malassezia, Gram +ve (Staphylococci)
Treat
only if intractable send to lab
staphelococus psuedointermedius not found on skin but hair and hair folicles

Gram –ve unexpected
Rods unexpected
send to lab – C&S!
start treatment
-

1102
Q

Bacterial Skin disease

A

IS OFTEN SECONDARY
Primary disease affects defence
Atopic dermatitis
Endocrinopathy
Nutritional deficiencies
Trauma/overcrowding
Environmental damage

Organisms implicated in the dog most commonly Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

Canine Pyoderma
1. Surface pyoderma:
Secondary bacterial colonisation of lesions on the skin surface.
Examples include: acute moist dermatitis, eczemas and intertrigo.

  1. Superficial pyoderma.
    Infection involves skin and hair follicle epithelium.
    Examples include: impetigo, superficial bacterial folliculitis, dermatophilosis, pyotraumatic folliculitis and mucocutaneneous pyoderma.
  2. Deep pyoderma.
    Infection involves the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
    Examples include: furnculosis, cellulitis, and furunculosis, acral lick furnculosis
1103
Q

Surface pyoderma:

A

Secondary bacterial colonisation of lesions on the skin surface.
Examples include: acute moist dermatitis, eczemas and intertrigo.

Diagnostic techniques
* Dermatological signs
* Bacterial culture and susceptibility testing
* Skin biopsies – histology +/- culture

Management
Treat the primary disease
Treat the bacterial infection (usually topically)
Anti-Staphylococcal antibacterial
Treat the inflammation (usually topically)
Usually corticosteroid - short-acting to reduce the inflammation

1104
Q

Superficial pyoderma.

A

Infection involves skin and hair follicle epithelium.
Examples include: impetigo, superficial bacterial folliculitis, dermatophilosis, pyotraumatic folliculitis and mucocutaneneous pyoderma.

Common, often recurrent (SECONDARY) - treat the primary disease
Allergy/endocrinopathy, parasites

Clinical Signs
Often diffuse – ventral abdomen especially
Pustules
Papules
Epidermal collarettes
Alopecia
Variable pruritus

Epidermal collaret is characterisic- circular leasion of crusting, caused by burst pustule

Diagnostic Techniques
Dermatological signs – main diagnostic
Bacterial culture and susceptibility testing - rarely only if recurrent
Skin biopsies – histology +/- culture

Management
Manage any primary cause
Systemic anti-staphylococcal antimicrobial
Minimum 3 weeks
1 week beyond cure
Topical antibacterial shampoo/rinse e.g. Chlorhexidine
Long-term maintenance

1105
Q

Deep pyoderma.

A

Infection involves the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
Examples include: furnculosis, cellulitis, and furunculosis, acral lick furnculosis

Furuncle – (“boil”) – follicle infection spreads into hair follicle which ruptures in the dermis

Cellulitis - infection of follicles and surrounding dermis

Difficult to manage
Often secondary
Some breed predispositions?
GSD – immunodeficiency?

Clinical Signs
Papules
Pustules
Alopecia
Nodules – furuncles, palpable lumps in dermis
Sinuses
Draining tracts

Diagnostic techniques:
Dermatological signs
Cytology - aspirate/impression smear
Bacterial culture and susceptibility testing
Skin biopsies – histology +/- culture

Management
* Treat any primary cause
* Topical antibacterial shampoo/rinse
* Long courses of systemic antibacterials
○ Based on culture and sensitivity
○ Minimum 6 weeks
○ 2 weeks beyond cure

1106
Q

Acute moist dermatitis

A

Surface pyoderma
IS USUALLY A SECONDARY CONDITION
Look for a primary pruritic condition
Otitis externa
Anal gland impaction
Fleas/other ectoparasites
??Function of hair coat
??Breed predosposition – Golden retriever

1107
Q

Intertrigo

A

Surface pyoderma
skin fold dermatitis
Associated with certain breeds
Facial fold
Vulval fold
Lip fold
Tail fold
Often less acute/chronic

1108
Q

Fungal Skin disease

A

Dermatophytes:
Microsporum and Trichopyton species
Microsporum canis most common isolate in cats and dogs
Use keratin to grow.
Grow exclusively in the non living tissue of skin nails & hair.
Cause inflammation and irritation.

Yeast and Yeast-like organisms:
Candida
Malassezia
Trichosporon

1109
Q

Dermatophytosis

A

Microsporum canis
Cats>dogs
Zoonotic!

Reservoirs
Infected by direct contact with infected animal/contaminated environment/fomite
Ringworm spores can survive for many months
Contaminated environment.
Exposure to infected host.
Fomites

Two groups:
Culture positive (dogs or) cats with subtle active infections.
Culture positive (dogs or cats) no active infection

Incubation period is approx 1 week.
Spores of the fungus invades anagen hairs – hence circular lesions
Germinate – produce hyphae - invasion by digestion of keratin
New arthrospores produced
Hair breaks off due to weakening leading to partial alopecia
Inflammatory reaction leads to folliculitis or furunculosis.
Inflammatory disease so animals often pruritic.

Clinical Signs:
Lesions VERY variable
Circular, patchy alopecia (broken hairs)
Variable erythema (peripheral?) and pruritus
Scale, crusts
Local/patchy/generalised
Nails may be affected, lost and grow back deformed – onychomycosis

Diagnostic techniques
Trichogram
Wood’s lamp examination
Fungal culture
McKenzie toothbrush culture
PCR
Skin biopsies – histology +/- culture

Zoonotic! Warn re avoiding handling animals and risk from fomites; esp if immunocompromised people

Environmental decontamination:
Spores very long-lived in environment – essential to clear from here to prevent continuous reinfection
Clip hair around lesions with scissors and dispose carefully of hair
Physical cleaning (e.g. daily vacuuming, seal and burn bag)
Chemical agents
Spontaneous resolution?
Topical tx  Miconazole/chlorhexidine shampoo
Systemic tx 
Ketaconazole licensed for dogs only. Do not use in cats.
Itraconazole licensed for cats. Off license in dogs.

Clinical resolution reached before mycological cure – base assessment of progress on basis of cultures, not clinical appearance of animal.
Monitor all animals with coat brushing weekly: treat until 2-3 negative cultures at least 7 days apart.

1110
Q

Malassezia pachydermatis

A

Broad based budding organisms- yeast
Isolated from skin and mucous membranes of a variety of species
M. pachydermatis is a typical on healthy canine skin and mucosa.
It is an opportunistic pathogen of cats and dogs.

Infection 100-10000 fold increase in numbers on skin.

Breed Predisposition for higher levels in some breeds.
Bassett, dachshunds, cocker spaniels, WHWT

Common to have concurrent Staphylococcus psuedointermedius infection.

1111
Q

Malassezia dermatitis

A

Also known as seborrhoea dermatitis (Seborrhoea = “flow of sebum“)
Normal commensal organism
Secondary condition
Usually generalised
Scale – “dry” seborrhoea (dandruff)
seborrhoea sicca
Greasy coat
Seborrhoea oleosa

Pathogenesis
Primary condition allows yeast overgrowth
Yeast lipases alter surface lipid (hence smell)
Epidermal turnover rises due to damage (hence scale)
Immediate (Type 1) hypersensitivity to yeast develops

Clinical Signs
Variable, usually generalised
Most commonly affected regions are hot and moist!
Worse in SKIN FOLDS (athlete’s foot)
Erythema
Scale
Greasy coat
OTITIS EXTERNA – may be only sign
Variable pruritus
Variable alopecia
“yeasty” smell

Diagnostic techniques
Dermatological signs
Acetate tape prep
Impression smear
Fungal culture

Management
TREAT ANY PRIMARY CAUSE
Reduce organism numbers
Topical treatment very effective
Usually aimed at M.p. AND S.p.
Itraconazole if topical fails
Often use anti fungal shampoos

1112
Q

steps of a hands off neuro exam

A

mentation/sensorume
posture
gait
asymetry

1113
Q

steps of a hands onneuro exam

A

proprioseption
spinal reflexes
cranial nerves
nociception

1114
Q

MENTATION vs Levels of Consciousness

A

mentation means mental activity
Normal

Dull/Depressed

Obtundation

Stuporous- still responds to pain

Comatose

1115
Q

MENTATION: behaviour

A

Compulsive

Disorientation

Hyperactive

Aggressive

1116
Q

posture in a neuro exam

A

Head Turn- forebrain problem, head turns to side of problem

Head Turn + Body Turn = Pleurothotonus

Head Tilt- vestibular

muscle weakness and damage-
KYPHOSIS- n excessive curve of the spine results in an abnormal rounding of the upper back

LORDOSIS- a deep curve in the spine resulting in dipped back

SCOLIOSIS- s shape deviation of the spine

special postures
Decerebrate Rigidity
Decerebellate Rigidity
Shiff-Sherrington

1117
Q

Decerebrate Rigidity

A

Stuporous or Comatose

Extension of all limbs

Extension of head and neck (opisthotonus)

Acute rostral brainstem injury

1118
Q

Decerebellate Rigidity

A

Mentation normal- cerebellum not involved

Extension of head and neck (opisthotonus)

Thoracic limbs extended

Hips flexed- back musces contract, almst lordotic

Acute rostral cerebellar injury

1119
Q

Shiff-Sherrington

A

Extension of thoracic limbs

Normal mentation

Reduced to normal tone in pelvic limbs

Normal postural responses in thoracic limbs

Acute thoracolumbar injury- disc herniation

1120
Q

ATAXIA

A

uncordinated gait

cerebellar- patient strugles to place feet, incordination, hyermetric (exagerated) gaite, hyometria

Vestibular- head tilt, problems with baence, staggering, all four limbs

cerebello- vestibular- the cerebellum is involved with the vestibular sytem, head tilt, hypermetria

General Proprioceptive/Spinal- involves spinal cord, can effect all four legs but also may just effect pelvic limbs

1121
Q

PARESIS

A

weakness of guate
Spontaneous knuckling

Scuffing of nails

Inability to support weight

Mono – one limb only

Para – pelvic limbs only

Hemi – one thoracic and one pelvic (same side)

Tetra – All four limbs affected

1122
Q

when is lamness neurological

A

Shifting of weight to the contralateral limb

Reduced protraction of affected limb

Musculoskeletal

Radicular pain/Nerve root signature

Neuropathy

1123
Q

Asymmetry, Spontaneous and Positional abnormalities in a neuro exam

A

Pupil size: Sympathetic vs parasympathetic dysfunction

Muscles of mastication: drooping (CNVII) or loss (CN V)- drop jaw

Eye Position: (CN III, IV and/or VI)

Positional nystagmus or strabismus (vestibular)

1124
Q

neuro Tests for Body and Limbs

A

Responses-
Postural
Hopping
Placing
Nociception

Reflexes-
Withdrawal
Patellar
Perineal
Cutaneous trunci-
(Extensor carpi radialis)
(Cranial tibial)
(Triceps)
(Gastrops)
(Biceps)

1125
Q

PROPRIOCEPTION

A

Postural responses-
Appropriate response: brisk normal placement of paw

Abnormal: delayed response or absence

Hopping
One leg only- TLs only (wheelbarrow)

One side only- PLs only ( Ext postural thrust)

1126
Q

NOCICEPTION

A

Response to noxious stimuli
Appropriate reaction (vocalization or moving away from noxious stimuli) NOT just movement of limb.
In cases of paralysis (plegia) or suspected sensory neuropathy

1127
Q

Spinal Reflexes: Patellar Reflex

A

Assessment of Femoral Nerve
Appropriate reflex: Kicking out of limb
Non-neuro causes for abnormal result:
Stifle disease
Old age
Anatomy: Middle patellar lig. Femoral nerve and L4-L6 spinal cord segment

1128
Q

Spinal Reflexes: Withdrawal Reflex

A

DO NOT TRAVEL TO BRAIN
Does not require noxious stimuli
Appropriate reflex: Flexion of all flexors.

Anatomy: Afferent nerve, C6-T2 or L4-S1 spinal cord segment, LMN to flexors

1129
Q

Spinal Reflexes: Cutaneous Trunci Reflex

A

Start at L4/5 and pinch with fingers or artery forecepts
Continue cranially up to T2 if no response
Appropriate reflex = bilateral contraction of cutaneous trunci.

Anatomy: Afferent nerve, Spinal cord (C8-L4/5), Brachial plexus, Lateral thoracic nerves, Cutaneous trunci mm.

1130
Q

Spinal Reflexes: Perineal reflex

A

stroking the spects of the perineaium watch for the anus clamping down
Anatomy: S1-S3 spinal cord segments

1131
Q

neuro tests for head

A

Responses-
Menace Response

Nasal septal mucosal response

Reflexes-
Pupillary Light Reflex

Palpebral Reflex

Corneal reflex

Vestibulo-ocular reflex

Gag reflex

1132
Q

Menace Response

A

move hand towards face to cause blink
Learned response: > 12 weeks in dogs
Not reliable in cats

Anatomy: Retina, optic nerve optic chiasm, optic tract, lateral geniculate n. (thalamus), optic radiation, visual cortex (occipital cortex), motor cortex, midbrain, cerebellar cortex, facial nucleus (medulla oblongata), facial n (orbicularis oculi mm)

1133
Q

Nasal septal mucosal response

A

poke nose with foreceps and watch for dog flinching away- cover eyes for accurate result
Anatomy: nasal septum, ophthalmic branch of CN V, sensory cortex (forebrain)

1134
Q

Pupillary Light Reflex

A

shine light on pupil and watch for contraction

Anatomy: Retina, optic nerve, optic chiasm, optic tract, pretectal n. (midbrain), parasympathetic n of oculomotor, oculomotor n, ciliary ganglion, short ciliary n, pupillary muscle.

1135
Q

Palpebral reflex

A

poke next ot eye, watch for blink

Anatomy
Medial: A = CN V (ophthalmic branch)
E = CN VII (orbicularis oculi mm)
Lateral: A = CN V (maxillary branch)
E = CN VII (obicularis oculi mm)

1136
Q

Corneal reflex

A

poke eye with coton bud, watch for blink(trigeminal nerve) and eye drawing back (facial nerve)

Anatomy

A = CN V (ophthalmic branch)
E = CN VII (obicularis oculi mm)
= CN VI (retractor bulbi mm)

1137
Q

Gag reflex

A

poke dog in back f throat, watch for swallow
Anatomy:
A= CN IX and X
E= CN IX and X

1138
Q

Vestibulo-ocular reflex

A

physiological nastagmus
move whole body in asur for small animas
move the head an watch for corection of eye direction
A = CN VIII

E = CN III, IV and CN VI

1139
Q

ranges of motion in a neuro exam

A

Neck range of motion

Palpation of back and neck

check for signs of pain

1140
Q

signs of a forebrain leasion

A

circling to side of leasion
menece response absent on opposite side to leasion
visual input affected- dog wont eat food in bowl on side of leasion

1141
Q

signs of bilateral facil nerve leasion

A

no palpebral rsponse on both eyes
no menace response
response ofn nnasal mucosal response ruling out trigeminal nerve

1142
Q

signs of a bilateral trigeminal nerve leasion

A

drop jaw
corneal reflex absent insensory section injury but present in motor injury

1143
Q

sings of a cerebellar problem

A

head tilt on oposite side to leasion
delayed postural reflex on same side as leasion

1144
Q

signs of peripheral nervus sytem issue

A

muscle wastage
head seems fine- less lilkly to be brain
signs of senstation but withdrawl reduced
no muscle tone in limbs

1145
Q

AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM

A

Activating emergency mechanism
Preservation of the body’s internal environment: homeostasis
E.g change blood supply from skin to guts in aid of preservation

Mainly LMN (motor and efferent systems) system but higher centers present within brain (hypothalamus and autonomic nuclei)

LMN = Two neuron system- differences between sympathetic and parasympathetic- sympathetic longer and releases acetylcholine and eopineferin whie parasympathetic shorter and just uses acetylecholine

Target organ= smooth muscle

Parasympathetic vs Sympathetic- YING and YANG relationship, symbiotic

1146
Q

Sympathetic Nervous System

A

Flight or Fight response
Majority in Thoracolumbar Division [T1-L4]- feeds into other ganglia

1147
Q

Parasympathetic Nervous System

A

Rest and Digest

Craniosacral divisions

Cranio part- give rise to function in head area and slightly branches intothoratic and abdominal

Sacral division- pelvic pexus and ganglia

1148
Q

autonomic division of PUPIL CONTROL

A

PARASYMPATHETIC= CONSTRICTION

SYMPATHETIC = DILATION

1149
Q

assesment of Pupil Size….PARASYMPATHETIC

A

Pupillary Light Reflex!
Target organ = Sphincter pupillae
Involves oculomotor nucleaus-> oculomotor nerve -> cillary gangleion

1150
Q

PARASYMPATHETIC: Dysfunction

A

Mydriatic pupil

-ve on direct PLR of affected eye

-ve on indirect PLR when light shone in unaffected eye

INTERNAL OPTHALMAPLEGIA- an ocular movement disorder that presents as an inability to perform conjugate lateral gaze and ophthalmoplegia due to damage to the interneuron between two nuclei of cranial nerves (CN) VI and CN III (internuclear).

1151
Q

assesment of Pupil Size….SYMPATHETIC

A

1st order-
Hypothalamus ->lateral tectotegmentospinal tract ->Spinal cord segment T1-T3

2nd order
Brachial Plexus-> Cervical Sympathetic trunk (with the vagus nerve)

3rd order
Cranial cervical ganglion -> passes near middle cavity ->base of skull->exits orbital fissure -> dilator pupillae mm

SYMPATHETIC DYSFUNCTION = Horner Syndrome

Miosis
Third eyelid protrusion
Ptosis ( reduced palpebral commissure)

Scleral congestion
Enophthalmos
(Warm ipsilateral pinnae)

1152
Q

symathetic bladder control

A

STORAGE = SYMPATHETIC
TL division

Hypogastric nerve +
Relaxes the detrusor muscle
Tightens the internal urethral sphincter

1153
Q

parasymathetic bladder control

A

MICTURITION/PEEING = PARASYMPATHETIC
Sacral division

Stretch receptors in the bladder wall travel up the pelvic n. to brain.

Centers in the brainstem relay information to activate pelvic nerve +- Contracts the detrusor mm

1154
Q

Pudendal nerve

A

controls External urethral sphincter
Kept closed during Storage phase (mediated by sympathetic)
Opened for micturition (parasympathetic phase)

1155
Q

UMN BLADDER: Dysfunction

A

UMN lesion T3-L3- Loss of function from hypogastric muscle, no nerve signals to tell detrusor muscle to relax

Increase muscle tone to the external urethral sphincter muscle (lack of inhibition)

Increased detrusor muscle tone
Increased tone in external urethral sphincter

CLINICAL SIGNS-

Firm turgid bladder

Difficult to express

1156
Q

lmn BLADDER: Dysfunction

A

LMN lesion S1-S3

relaxed muscle tone to the external urethral sphincter muscle

Decreased detrusor muscle tone and loss of contractility

CLINICAL SIGNS

Flaccid large bladder

Easy to express but not fully

Constant leaking of urine

1157
Q

Vestibular System

A

Controls balance and posture

Stops a cat/dog from falling over

Consists of receptors and specialised nuclei

Affects movements of eyes, head, neck and limbs

CENTRAL vs PERIPHERAL

1158
Q

Peripheral
(extracranial)
nervous system

A

Vestibular receptors

Vestibular portion of the vestibulocochlear nerve

1159
Q

Central
(intracranial)

nervous system

A

Vestibular nuclei

Caudal cerebellar peduncle

Flocculonodular lobe

Fastigial nuclei

1160
Q

Peripheral vestibular receptors

A

Crista Ampullaris
-acceleration/deceleration

Macula
-static changes in posture

1161
Q

Central vestibular apparatus

A

Vestibular nuclei

Caudal cerebellar peduncle

Flocculonodular lobe

Fastigial nuclei

1162
Q

Pathology of Head Tilt

A

Unilateral loss of anti-gravity tone on the muscles of the head and neck ipsilateral to the lesion.

Imbalance of tone leads to head tilt

HEAD TILT TO SIDE OF LESION (n.b exception to the rule [paradoxical])

1163
Q

Gait analysis

A

Vestibular ataxia
Uncoordinated gait
Circling:
Circles to the side of the lesion

1164
Q

Clinical Evaluation: Mentation and Posture

A

Peripheral:
Normal
Disorientated
Central:
Normal  Comatose

(Decerebellate Rigidity)

1165
Q

Jerk Nystagmus

A

Involuntary rhythmic oscillations of the eyes

Fast phase and slow phase

NOT spontaneous

Elicited via vestibulo-ocular reflex

Physiological nystagmus is a normal finding

Abnormal finding associated with vestibular disease

Spontaneous and positional

Fast phase and slow phase

Fast phase away from the lesion (with exceptions)

Central and peripheral

HORIZONTAL
VERTICAL
ROTATORY

1166
Q

Pendular Nystagmus

A

Not pathological

Seen in oriental breeds: Siamese overrepresented

Seen often in periods of stress

1167
Q

Strabismus

A

Abnormal position of the globe of the eye

If spontaneous, consider direct cranial nerve dysfunction; III, IV and/or VI

In vestibular dysfunction:
Positional ventral or ventro-lateral strabismus

1168
Q

Bilateral Vestibular Dysfunction

A

Loss of balance to both sides

No postural symmetry noted

Crouching posture

Wide head excursions

E.g. thiamine deficiency, metronidazole toxicity, bilateral otitis media/interna

1169
Q

Paradoxical Vestibular dysfunction

A

Dysfunction of:
Caudal cerebellar peduncle
Fastigial nuclei
Flocculonodular lobe

Lack of inhibition of the vestibular nuclei on affected side -> Greater activation of affected side

1170
Q

Generalised Tonic-Clonic Seizure

A

looses consciousness and has stiffening and jerking of the muscles. These seizures usually are generalized, starting on both sides of the brain.

Opisthotonus- amatic abnormal posture due to spastic contraction of the extensor muscles of the neck, trunk, and lower extremities that produces a severe backward arching

Piloerection- the contraction of small muscles at the base of hair follicles resulting in visible erection of hair.

Urination
Defecation

Salivation

Chewing movements
Face twitching

Clonic phase- paddling

Loss of consciousness

Mydriasis- dilation of the pupil of the eye

Lateral recumbency

Tonic phase- outstreached limbs

Apnea

1171
Q

What is a seizure?

A

ACVIM Consensus 2016

“A non-specific, paroxysmal event of the body that represents an abnormality of forebrain neurotransmission”

International Veterinary Epilepsy Task Force 2015

“a transient occurrence of signs due to abnormal excessive or synchronous neuronal activity”

Originated by an imbalance of excitatory and inhibitory influences on the cerebral neurons

When too many cells in the cerebral cortex become too excited and synchronise, a seizure can result

Seizure threshold

1172
Q

Pre-ictal phenomenon

A

behavioral changes or autonomic signs that may precede an observable seizure

1173
Q

Ictus

A

a sudden paroxysmal neurologic occurrence

1174
Q

Post-ictal phenomenon

A

a transient clinical abnormality of the CNS function that appears or becomes more evident when the clinical signs of the seizure have ended
Disorientation
Ataxia
Central blindness
Behavioral changes

1175
Q

Generalised seizures

A

involvement of both the cerebral hemispheres.

Tonic-clonic seizures Clonic
Tonic
Atonic
Absence seizures

1176
Q

Focal seizures

A

activation of only part of a cerebral hemisphere

simple focal seizures (consciousness is not impaired)

complex focal seizures (with impairment of consciousness)

1177
Q

Cluster seizures:

A

:two or more seizures in a 24-hour period or one seizure per day

1178
Q

Status epilepticus

A

a seizure that shows no clinical signs of arresting after 5 minutes of activity, or recurrent seizures with no recovery between them

give emergency ASD

If patient newly seizuring naïve of ASDs

Haematology

Biochemistry (including glucose and electrolytes)

Ammonia

Bile acids if appropriate (e.g. patient on phenobarbital with signs of adverse effects or uncertain diagnosis)

If returning patient on ASDs

CBC

Biochemistry (including glucose and electrolytes)

Ammonia

Bile acids if appropriate (e.g. patient on phenobarbital with signs of adverse effects or uncertain diagnosis)

Serum levels of anti-seizure drugs (ASD) when appropriate (phenobarbital and potassium bromide – PLAIN SERUM

Treatment of Status Epilepticus: duration 5-30 minutes

diazepam- 0.5mg-1mg/kg, IV or 1mg/kg rectally, repeated administration >/= 5 minutes apart up to 3 times within 24 hour period
Can double the dose in dogs pre-treated with phenobarbital

midazolam-
0.2-0.5mg/kg, IN, IV or IM. Repeated administration >/= 5min apart up to 3 times within 24 hr period.
CRI 0.2-0.5mg/kg/hr. Continue for 24 hrs and taper.

Treatment of SE: duration 30-60 minutes

Phenobarbital:
In pre-treated patients:

3-5mg/kg, i/v as a bolus

In non-pretreated animals:
3-5mg/kg, i/v as bolus (or orally in the event of a cluster seizure)

Loading? 2-4 mg/kg q6-8hours [max 24mg/kg/hr]

CRI? 2-4mg/kg/hr (<100mg/min)

Levetiracetam

Loading dose

40-60mg/kg i/v or rectal

Followed by:

20mg /kg i/v q 8hrs

Treatment of SE: duration 30-60 minutes
Potassium Bromide
In non-pre-treated patients loading doses:

400-600mg/kg/24hr  100mg/kg PO q4-6hours or 100mg/kg per rectum q24 hours for 5-6 days

130mg/kg/day orally for 6 days

Treatment of SE: 60-120 minutes

Levetiracetam
(can be used in 30-60min interval)

Initial dose 40-60mg/kg, i/v or rectally
Following therapy: 20mg/kg q 8 hours until seizure-free for at least 48 hours

Propofol

1-6mg/kg i/v propofol bolus
CRI: 0.1-0.6 mg/kg/min i/v

Refractory/Drug-resistant SE: > 120min

Ketamine:

5mg/kg, i/v as bolus

CRI: 5mg/kg/hr. If seizure-free for 12-24 hrs, continuous rate infusion under observation can be reduced by ~25% every 2 hours.

Inhalant anaesthesia:

Isoflurane
Sevoflurane

1179
Q

Differential diagnoses for sezure

A

Syncope

Narcolepsy/Cataplexy

Neuromuscular

Paroxysmal dyskinesia

Vestibular episode

Idiopathic Head tremor

Pain

1180
Q

Idiopathic epilepsy

A

(genetic)
Recurrent seizures
No identifiable cause
Genetic/familial predisposition
Age dependent

1181
Q

Symptomatic epilepsy

A

(structural-metabolic): result of identifiable intracranial or extracranial disease

Intracranial (structural) causes such as brain tumors, encephalitides, infarcts…
Extracranial (metabolic) diseases such as toxic or metabolic disorders
Cryptogenic epilepsy (epilepsy of unknown cause)

1182
Q

Investigations for seizure activity:

A

Signalment: age, breed and gender

History:
Description of event and events before and after that, how long lasted, interictal periods
Vaccinations, toxins, head trauma
Family history, littermates

Physical and neurological examination
Abnormal (post-ictal vs inter-ictal)
Lateralised signs (structural?)

. Haematology, Biochemistry, Urinalysis

  1. More extensive work up:
    Bile acids, Ammonia
    Serologic studies (infectious diseases)
    EEG
    CSF analysis
    MRI
1183
Q

When to start Anti-Seizure Medication

A

> 1 seizure within a 6-month period

One period of cluster seizures

One period of status epilepticus

Prolonged or severe post-ictal signs

Suspect structural brain disease

1184
Q

Anti-seizure drugs (ASDs) LICENSED in dogs

A

Phenobarbitone / Phenobarbital
(Epiphen or Phenoleptil or Epityl®)
Imepitoin (Pexion®)
Potassium bromide (Epilease, Libromide or Bromilep®)

1185
Q

Anti-seizure drugs (ASDs) ‘off-label’ in dogs and cats

A

Levetiracetam
Zonisamide
Gabapentin
Pregabalin
Topiramate

1186
Q

Phenobarbitone

A

MOA: GABAA receptor agonist (potentiating inhibition)
Barbiturate
50% protein bound
Metabolised by liver (approx. 75%)
Approximately a third excreted unchanged in urine
Autoinducer of hepatic microsomal enzymes (p450 system)
10-20 days for steady state

Expected side effects
Polyphagia - High ALKP
Polyuria - High ALT
Polydipsia - Ataxia (transient)
Sedation (transient) - low T4

Dose:
2-3mg/kg PO BID in dogs, 2mg/kg PO BID in cats

Monitoring:
2 weeks: CBC, Biochem, pheno serum levels
6 months: CBC, Biochem, pheno serum levels
Yearly: Biochem, pheno serum levels
Ideal phenobarbital serum levels 25-30 mg/L [10-40]

> 35 mg/L associated with hepatotoxicity

1187
Q

Potassium Bromide

A

anti sezure med
MOA: Bromide hyperpolarises neurons entering via Cl- channels
Halide salt
Excreted in the kidneys (no biotransformation), Half-life in dogs 15-30 days
2-5 months for steady state

NOT FOR CATS- eosinphilic brochitis

Expected
Polyphagia - Polyuria
Polydipsia - Ataxia
-Sedation

DOSE
20-40mg/kg PO SID or dose split BID as monotherapy
10-20mg/kg PO SID if used with phenobarbital.

MONITORING
2 months after starting treatment
Yearly assessment of serum level and kidney function

MANAGEMENT
Dietary chloride intake: Increase Cl- = increase clearance of Br-
On Biochemistry: False hyperchloraemia (bromide is read as choride)

1188
Q

Imepitoin (Pexion®)

A

anti sezure drug

MOA: Partial GABA agonist

DOSE: 20-40mg/kg PO BID

Linear pharmacokinetic, we are NOT currently monitoring serum levels

Expected Side effects
- Polyphagia - Ataxia
- Sedation - Vomiting

Other benefits:

Anxiolytic; licensed for noise phobia

Not licensed for structural epilepsy or cluster seizuring patients

1189
Q

Levetiracetam

A

anti sezure med

MOA: Inhibits neurotransmitter release (binds to the synaptic vesicle protein 2A)

DOSE: 20mg/kg PO TID in dogs and cats

Mostly excreted unchanged by the kidneys (biotransformation enzymatic hydrolysis and hepatic metabolism)

EXPECTED SIDE EFFECTS:
-Hypersalivation (cats) - Sedation
- Anorexia
MANAGEMENT
Linear pharmacokinetic, we are NOT currently monitoring serum levels

1190
Q

Zonisamide

A

MOA:
inhibition of T-type Ca channels and VG-Na channels = inhibit excitation!
Allosterically bind to GABA R to increase function
Regulate transporters to decrease glutamate and increase GABA
Metabolised by CYP3A4 (with pheno, increase clearance by 50% and shortens half-life)
Free-radical scavenger
Weak carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Expected side effects

  • Sedation - Low TT4
  • Ataxia - Low albumin

Idiosyncratic

  • Renal tubular acidosis - Polyarthritis
  • Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
1191
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

MOA: GABAA agonist

Diazepam and Midazolam
Quick onset of action, short half-life
Hepatic metabolism

Side effects
Avoid oral diazepam in cats = idiosyncratic hepatic necrosis

1192
Q

Anti-seizure drugs in an emergency?

A

MIDAZOLAM/DIAZEPAM
LEVETIRACETAM
POTASSIUM BROMIDE
PHENOBARBITAL

1193
Q

Treatment of Status Epilepticus: duration 5-30 minutes

A

Diazepam:
0.5mg-1mg/kg, IV or 1mg/kg rectally, repeated administration >/= 5 minutes apart up to 3 times within 24 hour period
Can double the dose in dogs pre-treated with phenobarbital

Midazolam:
0.2-0.5mg/kg, IN, IV or IM. Repeated administration >/= 5min apart up to 3 times within 24 hr period.
CRI 0.2-0.5mg/kg/hr. Continue for 24 hrs and taper.

1194
Q

Treatment of SE: duration 30-60 minutes

A

Phenobarbital:
In pre-treated patients:

3-5mg/kg, i/v as a bolus

In non-pretreated animals:
3-5mg/kg, i/v as bolus (or orally in the event of a cluster seizure)

Loading? 2-4 mg/kg q6-8hours [max 24mg/kg/hr]

CRI? 2-4mg/kg/hr (<100mg/min)

Levetiracetam

Loading dose

40-60mg/kg i/v or rectal

Followed by:

20mg /kg i/v q 8hrs

Potassium Bromide
In non-pre-treated patients loading doses:

400-600mg/kg/24hr  100mg/kg PO q4-6hours or 100mg/kg per rectum q24 hours for 5-6 days

130mg/kg/day orally for 6 days

1195
Q

Treatment of SE: 60-120 minutes

A

Levetiracetam
(can be used in 30-60min interval)

Initial dose 40-60mg/kg, i/v or rectally
Following therapy: 20mg/kg q 8 hours until seizure-free for at least 48 hours

Propofol

1-6mg/kg i/v propofol bolus
CRI: 0.1-0.6 mg/kg/min i/v

1196
Q

Refractory/Drug-resistant SE: > 120min

A

Ketamine:

5mg/kg, i/v as bolus

CRI: 5mg/kg/hr. If seizure-free for 12-24 hrs, continuous rate infusion under observation can be reduced by ~25% every 2 hours.

Inhalant anaesthesia:

Isoflurane
Sevoflurane

1197
Q

The Tapetum

A

An aid to vision in dim light for nocturnal animals

A highly reflective coloured layer in the inner choroid reflecting light back onto the photoreceptors

in horse it terminates before optic nerve in sharp line

variabkle in dogs and cats

1198
Q

Aqueous fluid

A

Watery
Constant production- ciliary body
Constant drainage- drainage angle

1199
Q

Vitreous fluid

A

Gel
No turnover

1200
Q

Iris musculature

A

Constrictor muscle-
Circular
Parasympathetic control

Dilator muscle-
Radial
Sympathetic control

Miotic = Drug which constricts the pupil
Mydriatic = A drug which dilates the pupil

1201
Q

The tarsal plate

A

stiffens the lid marginal areas
contains the tarsal/Meibomian glands
holds sutures much better then adjacent tissues

1202
Q

Distichiasis

A

Hairs growing on the edge of the lid
from the tarsal/Meibomian glands within the tarsal plate and emerging at the lid margin

treatment-
Plucking – they regrow
Electrolysis
Cryo
Tarsoconjunctival resection
So nothing simple or easily available

1203
Q

Ectopic (conjunctival) cilia

A

Emerge from the conjunctival surface and impinge directly on the eye
Much more sporadic and far less common than distichiasis
Far more painful
Alert - young dog (especially bulldogs) with a severely painful eye, possible shallow ulcer and no obvious cause
Ectopic cilia can certainly cause shallow ulcers but distichiasis hairs rarely

1204
Q

Entropion

A

In-rolling of the lid margin so that skin hairs abrade the eye

Chronic severe hair abrasion can cause large masses of corneal granulation tissue.
Once the abrasion is removed they resolve.

in cats-
Kittens/juveniles-
British Short Hairs
Lid usually needs shortening
Older cats-
?pathogenesis
Both groups-
Major problem for the patient
Often not diagnosed

It is not advisable to do excision surgery in young pups as the correction required
is difficult to judge.

A temporary holding procedure – “Tacking” - will buy some time until the pup is more mature

1205
Q

Ectropion

A

Out turning of the lid margin with conjunctival exposure

More severe ectropion can be part of the “diamond eye” spectrum

1206
Q

Upper lid trichiasis syndrome

A

Not true entropion but definitely trichiasis“Middle-aged cocker spaniel upper eyelid syndrome”

Middle-aged cocker spaniels (and other breeds and ages) can suffer from a laxity of the upper lid lashes which angle downwards as a result and abrade the eye causing great discomfort and debility.

These patients need a (modified) Stades procedure
rather than a standard skin-muscle excision

1207
Q

Sebaceous adenoma/epithelioma in the eye

A

The most common eyelid tumour in the dog
Arises from the tarsal/Meibomian gland

Grows as a:
well-defined mass
requiring full thickness excision
but minimal clearances

Very low metastatic potential

not commonm in cats

1208
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of the eye

A

Lid tumours are very uncommon in the cat
SCCa can occur in pale areas
It may be nodular and tumour-like OR erosive and destructive

1209
Q

Functions of the Third Eyelid

A

Secretory – 30% of aqueous tears
Surface protection
Tear film distribution
Immunological

1210
Q

Cherry Eye

A

prolapse of the nictitans gland
English bulldogs more than other breeds

Burying but preserving the gland (The Pocket Technique)
Preserves function
Pocket technique ?not that difficult
(Relatively) expensive especially if referred
Failure rate

Excision of the gland
30% of aqueous tear capacity lost
Relatively easy and cheap
Recommended by many breeders and some vets
Comes with a guarantee

1211
Q

The Pre-Corneal Tear Film

A

Air
Lipid- tarsal glands
Aqueou- lacrimal and nictitans gland- Mucus conjunctival goblet cells
Corneal surface

1212
Q

Chronic Dry Eye

A

Chronic conjunctivitis
Dull appearance to the ocular surface
Mucopurulent discharge - tenacious and adherent
Discomfort
Corneal ulceration (variable)
Corneal vascularisation and pigmentation

Purulent discharge may be hidden in the fornices

Uncomplicatedconjunctivitis-
antibiotic responsive
clears up in a few days
does not affect the cornea
does not affect the pupil
or vision

Tear production can be quantified –
not a specialist procedure- tear test

1213
Q

corneal ulcer

A

A corneal ulcer is a full thickness defect in the epithelium

pain

potential for progression

In favourable conditions
the corneal epithelium heals rapidly but…
…the corneal stroma is susceptible to enzymatic destruction

Proteolytic enzymes may be released by:

Bacteria
Pseudomonas
β haemolytic streps
Inflammatory cells
Corneal cells
Unexplained/sterile

Signs of a perforation

Sudden pain
Convex protrusion of brown/black tissue with overlying fibrinous material
Blood from the eye

1214
Q

Indolent ulcers

A

generally don’t:
get infected
deepen
melt
They just don’t heal!

Minor surgery always needed- dont respond to other treatments

Debride away all loose epithelium firmly
Treat the exposed surface to encourage proper adhesion
Local anaesthetic and sedation preferred

Debridement needs to be thorough
Rub firmly and keep going till it stops
“If it comes off it needs to come off”
Don’t repeat too soon…
…and only if there are loose edges again
If the edges are sharp give it longer to heal
Repeats possible, serious complications rare

Don’t grid stromal ulcers…
pathogenesis different
…nor cats
risk factor for a sequestrum

1215
Q

Corneal Foreign Bodies- essentially two types

A

Adherent to surface
embedded in/on surface with little penetration
can be wiped off or squirted off with a jet of saline under local anaesthesia

Intracorneal = thorns
easier with a reasonable amount protruding
microsurgical problem in many cases
needle(s) for removal

1216
Q

Pigmentary keratitis

A

Invasion of the cornea by melanocytes
A common non-specific response of the cornea of the dog to a variety of insults
Common in the medial quadrant of brachycephalics
Brachycephalics more prone generally

1217
Q

Dermoid

A

a congenital malformation where a patch of skin differentiates on the ocular surface
Currently a French bulldog speciality

1218
Q

Pannus

A

inflammatory and vascular tissue advances across the cornea always from the ventrolateral direction.
Strong association with GSDs

topical cyclosporine/tacrolimus or topical steroids

1219
Q

Paracentral lipid dystrophy

A

Not proven to be associated with hyperlipidaemia or any systemic disease
Deposits of crystalline fat in the central cornea
Not proven to be associated with hyperlipidaemia or any systemic disease
Peripheral lipid depositions may well be associated with hyperlipidaemia. Investigate

1220
Q

Glaucoma

A

Definition - an abnormal rise in intraocular pressure

Always a problem of aqueous flow or drainage and not over-production

Acute glaucoma causes great pain
It rapidly destroys the retina and optic nerve

Glaucoma is ultimately the reason for removing most eyes

Primary Closed Angle Glaucoma-
Primary abnormality of the drainage angle
Inherited in several dog breeds
Sudden decompensation in middle age with an acute pressure rise
Acute pressure rise is devastating – hours matter
Bilateral (but not symmetrical) problem

The onset is usually acute
Easily confused with other conditions
The pain is severe and the damage to the eye rapid
As a result the most important eye emergency of all
The second eye is at risk although it usually appears perfectly normal at the time

1221
Q

Primary lens luxation

A

An insidious degeneration of the apparatus supporting the lens
Affecting both eyes but not simultaneously
If/when the lens luxates anteriorly through the pupil it causes glaucoma, inflammation and secondary corneal oedema presenting as an acute eye

Anterior dislocation
Surgical lens removal
Return the lens to the posterior chamber by external manipulation (“couching”)
Then maintain a constricted pupil to keep it there

Subluxated lens
Maintain a constricted pupil to prevent anterior dislocation
(Surgical lens removal – historical now)
But the prognosis will always be guarded

1222
Q

Enucleation

A

is a means of pain relief and a good one.
Removal of a blind painful eye is a simple procedure with a low complication rate which provides pain relief without functional loss.
“Without functional loss” – it is not a question of whether the dog “can manage with one eye”.

1223
Q

Chemosis

A

oedma of the conjunctiva
occurs readily in the cat conjunctiva
looks dramatic
no prognostic significance

1224
Q

Symblepharon

A

The permanent adhesion of ocular surfaces – conjunctiva/cornea - following herpes infection as kittens
The flu may have cleared up when the kitten/cat is seen
Very variable
Often pain free and functionally minor and can be left
Special techniques may be required for cases needing surgery

1225
Q

Corneal sequestrum

A

Delayed healing of a corneal ulcer may lead to necrosis of the exposed stroma
The necrotic stroma then turns brown/black
This then acts as a foreign body and causes pain in its own right

very common eye condition of cat

1226
Q

Systemic Hypertension and the Eye

A

The eyes of cats appear particularly susceptible to the effects of systemic hypertension
Dogs with overt ocular signs are usually in renal failure
Cats may be surprisingly well with alarmingly high blood pressures

Hyphaema in a teenage cat is almost pathognomonic for hypertension unless there has been trauma.
Look in the fellow eye

1227
Q

Corneal response to injury

A

Epithelium- very good
Stroma- significant cellular infiltration so good
Endothelium- limited capacity for regeneration

1228
Q

corneal odema

A

blue opacity
ocuurs ddue to disruption of epthelium

1229
Q

Cellular infiltration of the eye

A

White/ creamy opacity

Response to infection
Scarring and fibrosis

1230
Q

Pentobarbital Sodium (e.g. Dolethal, Pentoject, Euthasol)

A

SCHEDULE 3
Barbiturate class of drug
200 or 400mg/ml
Coloured solution
Progressive CNS depression

Stages:
i) sedation,
ii) intoxication, possibly with involuntary
excitement,
iii) anaesthesia,
(iv) respiratory arrest and subsequent cardiac failure.
Rapid IV injection – 200mg/ml 0.4ml/kg debilitated animals 0.6-0.8ml fit/healthy animal
(IP, IC, IM, IT)
Dogs, cats, rodents, rabbits, cattle, sheep, goats, horses and mink

1231
Q

Somulose

A

(SCHEDULE 2)

Quinalbarbitone sodium
Depresses CNS inc respiratory centre and causes loss of consciousness
Cinchocaine hydrochloride
Cardiotoxic effects

Brain function and cardiac output should stop AT THE SAME TIME

CLEAR Solution

Licensed in dogs, cats, horses, cattle

HIGHLY TOXIC TO HUMANS

IV only - VIA 14G CANNULA

Horses and Cattle = 1ml/10KG OVER 10-15 Seconds
TOO SLOW = ‘Normal’ collapse but prolonged period until death
TOO FAST = Premature cardiac arrest (heart attack)

1232
Q

Captive bolt

A

Large Animals

Stuns by percussive force.

MUST be ‘bled’ or ‘pithed’ immediately following stunning

Declassified in 1998 – no firearms license required to purchase or use

If used in emergency/casualty situations no slaughter license required either

1233
Q

Bleeding
(for euthanasia)

A

ASAP after stunning – prevents risk of recovery

Ideally in tonic phase

Sever carotid arteries and jugular veins

Emergency – deep transverse cut across angle of the jaw

2 powerful jets of blood

Sharp knife at least 120mm long

Carcass will not be permitted for human consumption

1234
Q

Pithing

A

Not to be performed in animals intended for human consumption

Insert a flexible wire or polypropylene rod through the hole in the head made by a captive-bolt.

Disposable pithing canes available – Stay inside the carcass

1235
Q

Firearms (for euthanasia)

A

Free Bullet

Humane Killer – single shot, barrel in contact with animal
Shotgun
Rifle
Hand-gun

Shotgun or Firearms License required

Storage – locked gun cabinet. Locked metal box in car, ammunition separate from gun

health and saftey-
Firearms Legislation

People

Handling and Restraint

Backdrop

1236
Q

How is death confirmed

A

Absence of rhythmical breathing

Absence of corneal reflex

Absence of heart beat/pulse

Reflex/Agonal ‘gasps’ common

1237
Q

Disposal of carcases

A

Burial - Barbituates make boies toxic and owners must be made aware

Cremation - Costs involved

Incineration/Collection/Fallen Stock

1238
Q

Euthanasia of dogs and cats

A

In practice or home visit

Almost always by intravenous injection

PLAN
Gain informed consent
Administer sedation if required
Secure IV access – cephalic or saphenous vein most common
Inject drug IV
Confirm death

Other methods:
Intra-peritoneal
Intra-renal
Intracardiac

1239
Q

Euthanasia of hrses

A

Considerations -

Positioning

Disposal

Safety

Insurance - BEVA guidelines

Free bullet most common for companion horses

Lethal Injection:

Gain informed consent

Sedate - detomidine IV

LA at cannula site

Secure IV access with 14g cannula

Inject Somulose IV over 10-15 seconds

Confirm death

1240
Q

Euthanasia of cattle

A

Lethal Injection :
0.4-0.8ml/kg 200mg/ml pentobarbital sodium via rapid IV injection – Jugular vein
1ml/10KG Somulose IV injection over 10-15 seconds – Jugular vein
Sedation not normally required in most cases
Firearms:

1241
Q

Euthanasia of sheep

A

Lethal Injection:
0.4-0.8ml/kg pentobarbital sodium rapid IV injection – Jugular Vein.
Sedation not normally required

Firearms

1242
Q

Euthanasia of Pigs

A

Very difficult
Best option is shotgun

Can be done with ga into soft muscle the somulose into peritoneal cavity- death takes time

1243
Q

What are RECOVER Guidelines?

A

Series of systematic reviews
Conducted by more than 100 specialists in the field
Evidence based

Divided into 5 major topics (domains)
1.Preparedness and prevention
2.Basic life support (BLS)
3.Advanced life support (ALS)
4.Monitoring
5.Post cardiac arrest (PCA) care

A total of 101 clinical guidelines were published
Evidence classified using Class and Level system

1244
Q

What to do in a case of Cardiopulmonary Arrest

A

Philosophy?- cpr on healthy patient will not do harm, start anyway if in doubt

Team Size?- could be alone, ideally 3 people with chest compressions, 2 people on respiration, 2 people drawing up drugs, 1 person calling owner, 1 person coordinating team

Should we carry out
CPR?
DNR?
Facilities for PCA care

Success of CPR?
Dogs acute arrest under GA – almost 100%

Hospitalised cases
Dogs 3.8-25%
Cats 2.3-22%

People >20%

1245
Q

domain 1 of RECOVER guidelines

A

Equipment & Training

Ensure:
All staff are familiar with and utilise a standardised crash cart- Regular training?

Needed drugs and equipment in logical sequence- labels pointing forward
Pre drawn seringes of adrenalin and atropine

Ensure:

Cognitive aids are available

Staff receive comprehensive training (including simulations) plus assessment to ensure comprehension

Education & Leadership-

Refresher training every 6 months recommended (I-A)

Specific leadership training for those leading CPR (I-A)

Both vets and nurses are capable of leading CPR (IIb-B)

Debriefing after CPR to discuss performance (I-A)

1246
Q

domain 2 of RECOVER guidelines

A

Clinical signs of CPA?
Discoloured blood at surgical site
Bleeding stops
‘Gasping’ ventilation or apnoea
Mucous membranes change colour
CRT > 2 s
No heart sounds
No palpable pulse
Central eye
Mydriasis
Dry cornea
Cranial nerve arreflexia
Generalised muscle relaxation

Response-
Respond conservatively- O2  PPV  ECC  IT drugs  indirect DC defibrillation (not very useful)
Respond aggressively- O2  PPV  thoracotomy- direct cardiac compressions and deal with sequale ICC  IV / IC drugs  direct DC defibrillation
Respond conservatively  aggressive if no response
DNR

Response depends on;
Owner
Number of assistants available
(time of day)
Equipment available
Drug availability
Size of patient
Type of arrest: “acute” vs “chronic”

Domain 2: Basic life support (BLS)
A – Airway
B – Breathing
C – Circulation
D – Drugs
E – Electric defibrillation
F – Follow up

Accept the fact-
Call assistance
Position
In right lateral recumbency
On hard surface
In head-down position- Drainage of fliud and good blood flow to brain

A: Airway

Clear airway
Cuffed endotracheal tube
Check patency
Position accurately

Breathing-
PPV- Anaesthetic machine + abs 100 % O2
Self-inflating resuscitation bags- Air or 100 % O2

No synchronicity
Ensure expiratory pause
No PEEP
Rate = maximum 10 bpm
DO NOT OVERVENTILATE

C: Circulation-
Check pulse

External cardiac compression (ECC) - Cardiac pump, Thoracic pump
Internal cardiac compression (ICC)

1247
Q

Acute Arrest

A

Oxygen runs out In myocytes
Good prognosis

1248
Q

Chronic Arrest

A

Oxygen runs out and there is lactate build up in myocytes- old dog with comorbidities

1249
Q

Cardiac pump

A

Cats
Dogs < 15 kg
rabbit
Narrow chests

Compression ventral third 3rd - 6th ribs Between thumb and forefinger

Compression rate 80 - 100 per minute, musxle needs time o relax

1250
Q

Thoracic pump

A

For dogs > 20 kg
“Barrel chests” (?In dorsal)
Compression widest point
Compression rate 80 - 100 per minute
Compressions during peak lung inflation are fine
HANDS OFF BETWEEN COMPRESSIONS

1251
Q

Internal Cardiac Compressions

A

Open-chest CPR may be considered in cases of intrathoracic
disease if appropriate resources are available for the intensive
PCA care these patients will require

If thorax is open
When ECC fails (2 minutes but can do alot longer)
When ECC futile
‘Chronic’ arrests in dogs > 20 kg

Technique

Rapid clip in long-coats over left 3rd - 6th ic spaces
Identify 5th ic space
Deflate lungs
Boldly incise
Blunt scissors sternum to dorsum
Open pericardium
‘Milk’ ventricles at 80 - 120 min-1

Internal cardiac compression: advantages
More effective
Arrhythmias diagnosis
Assessment of contractility
Atrial & vena caval filling
Lung inflation assessed
Aortic cross-clamping
Cardiac warming
Accurate IC injection

1252
Q

domain 3 of RECOVER guidelines

A

Advanced Life Support
Have specific list of drug doses

Adrenaline- 10 mg kg -1 (low dose) (x3 for Intra Tracheal (IT), follow up with saline) x3 then one High dose if needed
Atropine - 40 mg kg -1 (x3 IT) every 2/3 rounds- gets rid of low heart rate
ADH (vasopressin) - 0.8IU/kg
Lidocaine- 2 – 4 mg kg -1 25 – 75 mg kg -1 min –1- FOR ARYTHMIAS
Amiodarone – V/A fib- 5mg/kg- FIBRILATION, last resort

NO fluids unless hypovolaemic
(Magnesium)
(Methoxamine - 500 mg kg -1 (X3 IT))
(Calcium)
If in doubt use twice maintanence

E: Electrical Defibrillation
Energy required
Lowest setting
External 1 - 5 - joules kg -1
Internal 0.1 - 0.5
Crank up
Cardiac massage inter discharge

1253
Q

Domain 4 of RECOVER guidelines

A

Monitoring – Diagnosing CPA

“Rapid identification of a patient requiring CPR allows more rapid institution of BLS and ALS, which increases the chance of ROSC”

Pulse palpation to diagnose CPA is NOT recommended (current human guidelines limit pulse palpation by health care professionals to less than 10 seconds before BLS measures are initiated).

Electrocardiography (ECG) or Doppler blood pressure measurement to diagnose CPA is NOT recommended

ECG or Doppler blood pressure measurement to detect impending CPA is reasonable to perform in at-risk patients

End-tidal carbon dioxide (EtCO2) monitoring is recommended for intubated patients at risk of CPA
EtCO2 correlates well with cardiac output and rapidly drops to zero at CPA onset

ECG recommended for rhythm evaluation- only during intercycle pauses and NOT delay resumption of chest compressions

EtCO2 monitoring during CPR to evaluate efficacy of chest compressions is reasonable - ROSC will cause a sharp increase in EtCO2

10-15 c02 = good cpr

Blood gas and electrolyte analysis may be helpful in evaluating CPR effectiveness and identifying underlying causes

If underlying electrolyte derangements are suspected or known, electrolyte analysis to guide therapy is recommended
In patients with documented hyperkalaemia, treatment is recommended

1254
Q

Domain 5 of RECOVER guidelines

A

Post Cardiac Arrest Care

Excellent PCA care- Minimises CPA recurrence and maximises patient discharge. >50% of dogs and cats will have another CPA event while hospitalised

Following ROSC patients have:
Haemodynamic instability (vasopressor therapy during CPR or the underlying cause of CPA)
Cardiac ischaemia
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (inflammatory system activation and excess circulating cytokines)
Anoxic brain injury

Referral to Specialty Centre?- improved survival of patients treated by professionals with experience in PCA care and in facilities with higher staff-to-patient ratios
Research has indicated that patients were more likely to survive when drugs, such as dopamine and vasopressin, were available and more staff were involved in resuscitation efforts

It is reasonable to refer a PCA patient to a facility with-
24-hour care
Higher staff-to-patient ratios
Advanced critical care capabilities

F: Follow Up
Oxygenation & ventilation
Fluids and urine output
Inotropes & anti-arrhythmics
Analgesics
Warmth OR therapeutic hypothermia
Antibiosis
Position
Neurological sequelae, i.e. Diazepam
Monitor
Fee collection

1255
Q

Cardiopulmonary Arrest

A

Myocardial disease

Myocardial hypoxia-

Systemic hypoxia

Cardiac overwork

Hypotension

Extremes of temperature

Extremes of pH

Altered electrolytes

Toxaemia

1256
Q

Primary Assessment for triage

A

Done by receptionist, nurse ect

Respiration

Awareness

Perfusion

RAP

1257
Q

Triaging airway

A

Any change in breathing pattern might be an emergency
Step back and look- still has airway? just reverse sneezing? abdominal effort? mouth breathing in cat?
?? Emergency Ballpark – Above 50 Br/min considered emergency finding
Mucous membranes
Pulse oximeter

1258
Q

Triaging AWARENESS

A

It is conscious? Yes?
Is it:

Alert? Normal behavior and is responsive BAR/QAR
Depressed? Awake but subdued. Uninterested in environment QAR?
Delirious? Awake but altered perception. Responds inappropriately to stimulus

Watch for change – a decline in level of consciousness could be indicative of a worsening prognosis

Stuporous: Remains in sleep state. Only roused by strong stimulus
Comatose: Deep unconsciousness. Unable to rouse even with strong stimulus

What kind of situations are these most relevant?
What about an animal in a seizure??

1259
Q

Triaging PERFUSION

A

MUCUS MEMBRANES
They should be PINK
Any colour change could represent an emergency
They should have a capillary refil time of less than 2 seconds (CRT<2). Cardiovascular collapse might have a CRT of 3 seconds or more.

PULSES
Quality – are they weak and hard to feel? Are they bounding or hyperdynamic?
Rate – too fast? Too slow? Does it co-ordinate with the heart rate i.e. Synchronous or are there Pulse Deficits
Rhythm – regular? Irregular?

  1. AUSCULATE THE HEART
    The Rate – too fast or too slow?
    The Sounds – murmurs?
    The Rhythm – regular or irregular?
1260
Q

Secondary Assessments - Respiratory

A

OXYGEN – Flowby, mask, oxygen tent, nasal prongs
Airway?! Inspiratory or expiratory issue??
Primary Respiratory vs Primary Cardio?

b lines- lung rocket- seen on t fast scan with wet lungs

pulmonary odema can be seen on radiograph as enlarged radioopaque heart

pleural effusion can be seen on radiograph as lifting of lungs or large field of radioopuaque material

1261
Q

Secondary Assessments - Awareness

A

What is this about??

Pupil assessment:
Pupillary Light Response PLR
Miosis (bad)? OR Mydriasis(worse)?- progression of this can indicate herniation (no way back)
A change?
Oculocephalic Reflexes?

Strabismus or Nystagmus?

Cerebral Perfusion Pressure = Mean Arterial Pressure – Intracranial Pressure
CPP = MAP – ICP

OXYGEN

MEASURE BLOOD PRESSURE

IDENTIFY AND TREAT HYPOVOLAEMIA

POSITIONING – Keep head at 30^ to ma

Head trauma+ shock= vasodilation, leading to increased icp

1262
Q

Secondary assessment - Perfusion

A

Hypovolaemic Shock

**NEED TO RECOGNISE AND ADDRESS THIS **

Tachycardic
Delayed CRT on pale mucous membranes
Progresses to weak pulses
Dull mentation
Low temp/cool extremities

Anaemia-
Pale/white mucous membranes
Normal CRT?
Pulse quality bounding – weak
Tachycardia

Is it bleeding?? Where?!

More chronic? Tachypnoea

Cardiac Dysfunction-

Acute Heart Failure

Tachycardia
Tachpnoea/Dyspnoea
Weak pulses
CARDIAC AUSCULATION – changes in RHYTHM, SOUNDS (murmurs or gallop)
LUNG FIELD AUSCULATION – Might hear adventitious lung sounds like crackles
MUCOUS MEMBRANES – Pale, with long CRT

Sepsis-
Aka Septic Shock
High rectal temp as in over 40 ^C OR low rectal temp as in less than 38^C
Tachycardia (OR bradycardia – typically in cats)
Hyperemic (RED) mucous membranes with short CRT (less so in cats)
Hypotension

Other clinical signs assoc with the disease foci.

1263
Q

Other markers to check with triage

A

Glucose- Check with glucometer
The bladder- Can they urinate?

PAIN-
The 4th vital marker!!!

Pain can confuse your diagnostic picture!! Administer analgesia and re-examine, re-examine, re-examine.

Opiods vs NSAIDS vs Others – what is appropriate?

1264
Q

Horse obstetrics

A

HEALTH AND SAFETY – PLEASE TAKE CARE
Stage 2 labour (after the membranes are passed) is only 20 mins in a normal foaling.
Foals not delivered within 30 mins have a much lower survival rate
Retained foetal membranes – 6 hour window

1265
Q

What is an emergency in exotics?

A

Initial phone call
Based on this call need to determine whether an emergency-
Signalment
Species, breed, sex, neutered/entire, age
Clinical signs
When did this start?
Trauma – when and how?
Did owner notice the animal eat anything poisonous/toxic? How much and what? Birds – respiratory toxins?

Instructions to client
Basic first aid
Handling
Correct Transport to the surgery

Examples of signs noted in small mammals needing immediate attention
Anorexia
Bloating
Haemorrhage
Respiratory distress/compromise
Collapse
Diarrhoea or absence of faeces (particularly herbivores)
Dysuria
Dystocia
Neurological signs
Traumatic injuries
Vomiting (ferrets)

Can be divided into two categories
Acute-
A sudden, recent event
Fight/bite wounds (myiasis), haemorrhage
Trauma – falls, crash landings, fractures
Prolapses
Dystocia

Chronic-
A more chronic illness that has reached a critical point- Dental disease, GI disease
Can be just as life threatening!

1266
Q

First aid and basic information in exotic emergencies for client

A

Basic first aid – allows animal to be transported safely to optimise survival
Bleeding -> apply pressure
Burns -> Cool area immediately
Choking -> keep animal calm, if breathing immediate travel to surgery. If partially obstructed allow animal to cough. If airway obstructed a modified Heimlich manoeuvre performed

Hypothermia -> bubble wrap & towel to prevent further heat loss. Snugglesafe/hotwater bottle covered -> do not want to burn!
Hyperthermia (heat stroke – rabbits/guinea pigs) -> move to cooler area. Cool slowly. Drizzle water over, concentrating on head, stomach, inner thighs and footpads.
Seizures -> darken room, remove hazards. Time how long seizure lasts. Do not restrain
Prolapse -> dampened substrate – damp kitchen towel (no woodchip or sand), cover with cling film/glove

1267
Q

Procedure for exotics emergencies in practice

A

Stable vs unstable?
Observe the animal

History collection:
Reason for concerns
Diet and husbandry- Hypocalcaemic tetany -> birds & reptiles.
Vaccination history (distemper – ferrets; Myxo/RHD 1& 2 – rabbits)
Neutering status (ferrets – oestrus induced anaemia. Rabbits – uterine adenocarcinoma/pulmonary metastases)

Assess husbandry
1. What do they feed it?
2. Do they feed vitamin/mineral supplements?
3. Is there UVB provision?
4. What temperature gradient do they keep the vivarium at?
5. What hides/cage furniture is present in the tank?
6. What humidity do they keep the vivarium at?
7. Do they have any other reptiles/pets?
8. If a snake-when did it last shed its skin, and was it a complete shed?

Physical examination – primary assessment
Basic exam initially until stabilised.
Alertness
Posture
Facial asymmetry/facial changes
Locomotion
Body condition score

Coughing
Sneezing
Wheezing
Dyspnoea
Open-mouth breathing
Increased respiratory effort
Ocular and/or nasal discharge
Respiratory noise
Poor hair coat
Abnormal stance
Helps to determine level of urgency
Standard clinical exam
ABCDE protocol

1268
Q

Reptiles - triage

A

Initial Assessment
1. Safety first! Is it potentially hazardous/dangerous to the handler?
2. Is it mouth-breathing and possibly in respiratory distress?
3. Is it a species that can perform autotomy? (many geckos will shed their tails very easily)
4. Is it suffering from metabolic bone disease making it a risk to handle? (deformed limbs, shell, spine and inability to support its own weight may predispose it to pathological fractures)
5. How large is the animal? (many larger species of tortoise are heavy and strong, with the ability to crush fingers. Snakes longer than 3-4 feet require more than one handler).

1269
Q

Birds - triage

A

Any bird that is unconscious, seizuring, with evidence of head trauma or respiratory
distress should be attended to immediately.

Birds that are off colour should be hospitalised in a quiet, warm (29-30°C), dimly lit area with supplemental oxygen if there is any evidence of respiratory distress and should be examined as soon as possible.

All birds presenting as an emergency should be assumed to be hypothermic

1270
Q

Primary assement of exotics procedure

A

ABCDE

Airway -> chest & abdominal movements, respiratory effort, respiratory noise, open mouth breathing.
Open mouth breathing = Severe distress for birds. Severe distress for our small mammal patient such as rabbits & guinea pigs-> obligate nasal breathers.

Breathing -> depth, frequency, rate and rhythm of respiratory movements. - Nostril flaring.
Auscultate for respiratory sounds (wheezing/whistling) or for absence of sounds.
Percussion of thorax – pneumothorax/pleural effusion.

Circulation ->pulse rate/strength, mucous membrane colour, heart rate and rhythm.
Reptiles -> use of a Doppler probe applied over the heart/carotid artery can provide an assessment of blood flow -> can assess intensity of flow and turbulence.

Disability/disease
-> assess the animals consciousness and responsiveness to the surroundings. Assess reflexes
Remember menace response frequently ABSENT in rabbits and rodents

Exposure to the environment-
Bruises, fractures, wounds, contamination
Check body temperature

If stable -> proceed to secondary assessment/full physical examination

1271
Q

Handling and Hospitalisation of exotics

A

Handling
Keep to a minimum
Place on a non-slippery surface
Visualisation within a clear box  transillumination
Towel
Constantly monitor for signs of stress  stop!
Consider sedation

Hospitalisation
Appropriate environment
Heated vivariums to POTZ
Appropriate temperature and humidity
Escape proof enclosures
Quiet environment – minimise stress – Pet Remedy plug-in or spray (is safe for birds!)
Predator/prey

1272
Q

Differential for a down dry cow

A

Dystocia- uterine torsion, seen as ime of partuition
Metabolic- milk fever (secondary possibly to dystocia), ca drop from parturition- not seen without calving complication
Toxaemia- recently dried of cows: toxic mastitis, selective dry off, septic peritonitis (quick drop)
Trauma- always possibility, dry cows pregnant and mixed into new groups so increases risk, lamness prevents them form rising
Physical- near calving puts pressure on many body systems and so may just be the cause

1273
Q

Differentials for down fresh cows

A

Trauma (obstetric)- biggest reason, calving paralysis syndromes (nerve damage): soon or late onset
Metabolic- Milk Fever
Toxic- Mastitis, Metritis

1274
Q

Differentials for Lactating fresh cows

A

Traumatic
Toxic
Metabolic

1275
Q

Reasons grazing causes a down cow

A

Toxin Ingestion
Hypomagnasaemia- to treat magnesium goes under skin NOT IN VEIN

1276
Q

Reasons grazing causes a heifer

A

Trauma
Toxin Ingestion
Chronic?- may think its acute however could be a long term management problem: pnuemonia

1277
Q

Treatment of a down cow

A

Traumatic
Depends on prognosis
NSAID
Supportive care
Slaughter certificate?- for animla sthat do not show any sign of systemic disease of emaciation. Needs to be close to abitoure as slaughter man must get there. Kill on farm- captive bolt and examination. Need to know meds that they’ve had

Metabolic
Correct underlying challenge
Supportive care

Toxic
Depends on prognosis
Fluids, NSAID, +/- Abs
Supportive care

Continued care essential- farmer input important to prevent sequential conitions. If farmer cannot support cow euthanasia may be option.

1278
Q

IV access exotic mammals

A

Rabbits – Lateral saphenous vein, cephalic vein or marginal ear vein
Guinea pigs – cephalic vein, lateral saphenous, jugular vein, cranial vena cava
Ferrets – cephalic, saphenous, jugular vein
Hedgehogs – jugular vein, cranial vena cava

1279
Q

Blood sampling - reptiles

A

Can take up to 1ml/100g in a healthy animal
Advise to collect 0.5ml/100g- Most patients are compromised
Collect in lithium-heparin tubes (birds & reptiles)
Prepare a fresh blood smear
Edta causes haemolysis

1280
Q

Blood collection - chelonians

A

Jugular vein
Less chance of lymphodilution
Often at level of auricular scale and base of neck
Apply pressure after

Subcarapacial sinus
Haemodilution
Potential for damage to spine

Dorsal coccygeal vein
Haemodilution
Potential for damage to coccygeal vertebrae

Subcarapacial – situated in the midline below the cranial aspect of the carapace, just above the caudal cervical vertebrae

Brachial plexus
Useful in larger chelonians
Extend front limb
Palpate tendon on caudal aspect of radial-humeral joint
Insert needle just caudal or ventral to the tendon

1281
Q

Blood collection - lizards

A

Ventral tail vein
Care with species that perform autotomy

Jugular vein
Can be considered for leopard geckos

1282
Q

Blood collection - snakes

A

Ventral tail vein
Recommended site
Care not to insert needle into hemipenes or cloacal musk glands
Cardiocentesis (ADVISE SEDATION FOR THIS METHOD!)

CARE - risks of laceration to ventricle and risk of pericardial haemorrhage

1283
Q

Blood collection - birds

A

Venepuncture sites
Right jugular vein
Can obtain large volumes
Gentle pressure to achieve haemostasis

Basilic (ulnar/brachial vein)
Extend wing and visualise vein
Vein runs over the elbow area
Care as haematoma formation is common

Medial metatarsal vein
Vein is very short in psittacines

1284
Q

Assessing hydration In exotics

A

Assess hydration  often dehydrated
Methods are subjective +/- in combination with lab tests
Skin turgor – variable  greater elasticity in mammals compared with birds & reptiles. Greater elasticity in younger and fatter animals. Assess over pectoral muscles in birds & scruff of neck most mammals.
<5% = no clear sign of skin tenting/loss of elasticity
5-6% = slight skin tenting & loss of elasticity
7-9% = notable skin tenting % significant loss of elasticity
10-12% = marked skin tenting & complete loss of elasticity
12-15% = marked skin tenting & complete loss of elasticity

Mucous membranes – difficult to assess. Tacky at 7-9% and dry at 10-15%
CRT (mammals) & venous refill time (birds) - >2 seconds at 7-9% and >3 seconds at 10-15%
Eyes – varies with species and bodyweight. Slightly sunken at 7-9%, noticeably sunken at 10-12% and markedly sunken at 12-15%
General condition – variable and difficult to assess normal in a wild animal  stress response. 7-9% mild changes in mentation, 10-12% marked changes in mentation, 12-15% moderate shock and moribund

1285
Q

Fluid therapy (birds)

A

Ability to maintain IV lines more challenging in wildlife/zoo birds vs pet
Direct monitoring often more limited

Birds- SC injection  inguinal or precrural folds, wing web (propatagium), axilla, interscapular area- Up to 20ml/kg  I tend to go LOWER
Can add hyaluronidase – 1500IU/L added to sterile crystalloid fluids – increases absorption

IV or IO (non pneumatised long bone only – ulna or tibiotarsus)

Maintenance – varies with size of bird – very small birds require more per body mass
Average daily maintenance = 100ml/kg/da

1286
Q

Fluid therapy – IO tibiotarsus

A
  1. Anaesthetise the bird and administer analgesia
  2. Aseptic preparation and administer local anaesthesia
  3. Hold the tibiotarsus in one hand
  4. Insert the needle into the cnemial crest, through the insertion of the patellar tendon that is aligned with the diaphysis. Gently advance the needle
  5. Suture in place
1287
Q

Fluid therapy – IO ulna

A

GA and administer analgesia
2. Flex the carpus and identify the needle insertion site on the dorsal surface of the ulna just distal to the condyle.
3. Infuse local anaesthesia
4. Aseptic skin preparation
5. Hold the limb and insert the needle in the mid portion of the condyle and in the same plane as the bone
6. Seat the tip of the needle into the periosteum. Rotate the needle and advance. A gentle ‘pop’ may be felt.
7. Flush catheter and secure with tape and sutures

1288
Q

Crop tubing

A

Fluid therapy (birds)

Crop tubing into crop or at level of thoracic inlet for species without a well developed crop (owls)
General rule = crop volume is calculated as 5% bodyweight  LOWER in debilitated patients

1289
Q

Fluid therapy (reptiles)

A

Epicoelomic (chelonians)
Between the plastron and coelomic membrane

Intravenous
Requires surgical cut-down

Intraosseous
Medial tibial crest (lizards)
Tibial crest and gular plastron (chelonians)

Epicoelomic route recommended  10-20 ml/kg can be given

IO requires sedation. In chelonians also reports of IO on the bony bridge but there is debate whether the bridge communicates with vascular system

1290
Q

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation in reptiles

A

Establish an airway (reptiles)
Intubation
Glottis situated rostrally (lizards & snakes)
Tortoise – more challenging due to fleshy tongue
Tortoise – Complete tracheal rings
Lizards & snakes – incomplete tracheal rings

IPPV required
Small animal ventilator
Manually

1291
Q

Emergency diagnostics

A

Conscious radiography
DV – assess for shelled eggs (birds and reptiles)
Gas within intestinal tract (gastric dilatation – rabbits/g pigs; GDV guinea pigs)
Point-of-Care Ultrasound (POCUS)
Detection of free fluid
Evaluation of trauma cases – pneumothorax/penetrating injury patients

1292
Q
  • Describe a basic anesthetic plan for a routine bitch spay
A
  • Acp or alpha 2 agonist- give reasons for choice e.g (medetomidine gives good anasthesia and analgesia but produces profound bradycardia. Has effective time of 40 mins (is this enough for op? alpha-2 hump as it wears off once prep is finished- top up alpha 2 or give something else appropriate to give analgesia)
  • Opiod-
  • buprenorphine?- last up to 6 hours. When dog gets light you must top up with ketamine/ something other than an opiod.
  • Methadone is a better choice as as a full mu agonist opiod you can top up, sicker the patient lower the dose. Start low you can always give more top up with half dose. Also, cheaper
    -don’t forget recovery- alpha 2s only last 40 mins!!!!.
1293
Q

What is the common arrhythmia associated with alpha 2s-

A

2nd degree av block. P wave without qrs
Will be herd as missed heartbeats

1294
Q

Can you use lidocaine in cats as an anti arhythmic iv

A

Only one bolus!!!! For cats with ventricular dysrhythmias

1295
Q

Recommended sedatives for cvrs/ compromised patients

A

Very sick patient (cartiovascular- gdv)- sicker the patient the more likely methadone and only a methadone (opiod) is best. Treat bradycardia with atropine

Cavvies with mitral valve disease- acp causes less adrenaline, vasodilation, is an antiemetic and calms the dog

Benzodiazapime may be appropriate in very young/ very old patients
Alpha 2s good because they can be antagonized

1296
Q

Why is butorphanol good for birds and exotics

A

Lots of birds and some reptiles have lots of KAPPA receptors so targeting those is thought to be better

1297
Q

Atropine vs adrenaline-

A

Atropine increases vagal tone- should be added in every third round of cpr to combat brady cardia
Adenerline increases heart rate and returns blood to heart- drug of choice

1298
Q

Cardiogenic ossilations

A

Heart beating againt lungs pushes out small bits of co2 and causes “bumpy lines” on capnograph.

1299
Q

Sail shape on capnograph means….

A

obstruction

1300
Q

A capnograph that does not reach the dotted baseline indicates

A

This is caused by
Non- rebreathing systems
- The valve being shut (but only in first few seconds)
- Too low flow- flow pushes co2 out

Circle
- Sodalime running out
- Stuck valves in set

1301
Q
  • Gas flows are measured in
A
  • Liters per minute