PUBLIC HEALTH 3A Flashcards

1
Q

What is equality?

A

Giving everyone the same rights, opportunities and resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is equity?

A

Giving people what they need to achieve equal outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is horizontal equity?

A

Equal treatment for people with equal health care needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is vertical equity?

A

Unequal treatment for people with unequal healthcare needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the inverse care law?

A

That the availability of health care tends to vary inversely with its need (e.g. developing countries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the determinants of health?

A
  1. Age, sex and race
  2. Individual lifestyle factors
  3. Social and community networks
  4. Living and working conditions
  5. General socio-economic, cultural and environmental conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does PROGRESS stand for in terms of the determinants of health?

A

Place of residence
Race
Occupation
Gender
Religion
Education
Socio-economin
Social capital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 domains of public health practice?

A

Health improvement
Health protection
Improving services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two methods of assessing quality of healthcare?

A

Maxwell’s dimensions
Structure, process, outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are Maxwell’s dimensions of the quality of healthcare?

A

3 A’s:
Acceptability
Accessibility
Appropriateness
3 E’s:
Effectiveness
Efficiency
Equity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the structure, process, outcome assessment criteria look at?

A

Structure: what is there (e.g. no. hospitals)
Process: What happens? (e.g how many people seen)
Outcome: e.g. number of deaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a health needs assessment?

A

A systematic approach for reviewing health issues affecting a population in order to enable agreed priorities and resource allocation to improve health and reduce inequalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does a health needs assessment look at?

A

The need for an intervention
The demand
The current supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give an example of a health needs assessment for antibiotics for routine vaccinations?

A

Needed and supplied but not demanded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 types of need?

A

Felt need
Normative need
Expressed need
Comparative need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is felt need?

A

An individual’s perception of variation from normal health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is expressed need?

A

Felt need turned into action- help seeking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is normative need?

A

Need defined by experts (e.g. vaccinations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is comparative need?

A

Needs identified by comparing the services received by one group with another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 3 perspectives when looking at a health needs assessment?

A

Epidemiological
Comparative
Corporate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the epidemiological perspective look at when doing a health needs assessment?

A

The size of the population
The services available
The evidence base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the comparative perspective look at when doing a health needs assessment?

A

Compares services/ outcomes received by a population with others
looks at health status, service provision and outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the corporate perspective look at when doing a health needs assessment?

A

Asks local population what their health needs are.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 3 different resource allocation models?

A

Egalitarian
Maximising
Libertarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the egalitarian model of resource allocation?

A

Provide all care that is necessary and required for everyone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the maximising model of resource allocation?

A

Resources allocated to those most likely to benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the libertarian model of resource allocation?

A

Each individual is responsible for their own health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

Preventing the disease from happening in the first place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is an example of primary prevention?

A

Vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

Early identification of the disease to alter disease course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is an example of secondary prevention?

A

Screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

Limiting the effects of development of established disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is an example of tertiary prevention?

A

Stroke rehabilitation programme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the population approach to prevention?

A

Prevention approach delivered to everyone to shift the risk factor distribution curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an example of a population approach to prevention?

A

Sugar tax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the high risk approach to prevention?

A

Identifying individuals above a chosen cut off and treating them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an example of a high risk approach to prevention?

A

Screening people for high blood pressure and treating them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the prevention paradox?

A

A preventative measure which brings much benefit to the population but offers little impact to each individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the benefits of screening tests?

A

Good use of resources
Informed decision
Reassurance
Better future health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the downsides of screening test?

A

May cause harm or distress
Over treatment
Difficult decisions
Incorrect results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 3 screening tests in pregnancy?

A

Infectious disease
Sickle cell & thalassaemia
Fetal anomoly screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does the fetal anomoly test screen for?

A

Downs, Edwards, Patau’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 3 screening tests in newborns?

A

NIPE
Hearing screen
Blood spot

44
Q

What are the 5 screening tests in adults and young people?

A

AAA (men at 65)
Bowel cancer
Breast cancer
Cervical screen
Diabetic eye

45
Q

What is the Wilson and Jugner criteria for a screening test?

A

Important disease
Effective treatment available
Simple and safe
Natural history of disease known
Acceptable test
Policy on who to treat

46
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

The proportion of those with the disease who got a positive test

47
Q

What is specificity?

A

The proportion without the disease who got a negative test

48
Q

What is the positive predictive value?

A

The proportion of people with a positive test who have the disease

49
Q

What is negative predictive value?

A

Proportion of people with a negative test who don’t have the disease

50
Q

What is the formula for sensitivity?

A

TP/ (TP+FN)

51
Q

What is the formula for specificity?

A

TN/(TN +FP)

52
Q

What is the formula for PPV?

A

TP/ (TP+FP)

53
Q

What is the formula for NPV?

A

TN/(TN+ FN)

54
Q

What is the length time bias?

A

When screening is more likely to detect slow growing disease that has a long asymptomatic phase, making it appear as though there is a survival benefit to screening

55
Q

What is lead time bias?

A

When a patient diagnosed earlier falsely appears to live longer

56
Q

What is the best research method in the heirarchy of evidence?

A

Systematic review/ Meta analysis

57
Q

What is a case-control study?

A

Retrospective, observational study looking at the cause of a disease that compares similar participants with the disease and without.

58
Q

What is a cross-sectional study?

A

Retrospective observational study that collects data from a population at a specific point in time

59
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

Prospective longitudinal study looking at seperate cohorts with different treatments of exposures to see if the disease occurs

60
Q

What are RTC’s?

A

Prospective study where all participants are randomly assigned an exposure or control intervention

61
Q

What is an ecological study?

A

Looks at the prevalence of the disease over time using population data

62
Q

How to you work out the odds of an event occuring?

A

Probability event occurs (p)/ Probability event does not occur (1-p)

63
Q

What is the odds ratio?

A

Comparing the odds of an outcome occuring between two groups (e.g. exposure and control group)

64
Q

What is the formula for the odds ratio?

A

Odds of event A/ Odds of event B

65
Q

What does an Odds ratio of 1 indicate?

A

The odds of the event occurring in one condition equal the odds of it happening in the other condition. (No association between event and condition)

66
Q

What does it mean if the odds ratio is >1?

A

The events odds are higher for the group in the numerator (making it a risk factor)

67
Q

What does it mean if the odds ratio is <1?

A

The probability of the outcome occurring is lower for the group/condition in the numerator. (Protective factor or a treatment provided)

68
Q

What is measurement bias?

A

When different equipment may measure things differently

69
Q

What is observer bias?

A

When observers expectations influence reporting

70
Q

What is recall bias?

A

When past events are not recalled correctly

71
Q

What is reporting bias?

A

When people don’t tell the truth because of shame/ judgement

72
Q

What is selection bias?

A

Bias in recruiting for a study, or participants being lost to follow up

73
Q

What is publication bias?

A

Trials with negative results less likely to be published

74
Q

What does the Bradford-Hill criteria for causality include?

A

Strength of association
Consistency from different studies
Dose response
Termporarility
Plausibility
Reversibility
Coherence
Analogy (similar to others)
Specificity

75
Q

What are confounders?

A

Variable that influences both the dependent variable and independent variable, causing a spurious association

76
Q

What factors can cause a false association with exposure and outcome?

A

Bias
Confounding factors
Chance

77
Q

What is incidence?

A

Number of new case over a certain time period

78
Q

What is prevelance?

A

Total of number of people with a disease at a certain point in time

79
Q

What is person time?

A

The measure of time at risk for all patients in the study (e.g. 1,000 people studied for 2 years = 2000 person years)

80
Q

What is the relative risk?

A

Risk among exposed group/ Risk in unexposed group

81
Q

What is the absolute risk?

A

Works out how much of the disease occurs because of the exposure

82
Q

What is the formula for absolute risk?

A

Risk from exposed group - Risk from control group

83
Q

What is the number needed to treat?

A

The number of patients you need to treat for one person to benefit

84
Q

How do you calculate number needed to treat?

A

1/ Absolute risk

85
Q

What does it mean if the relative risk is above 1?

A

The risk has increased due to exposure

86
Q

What is a health behaviour?

A

A behaviour done to prevent disease

87
Q

What is an illness behaviour?

A

A behaviour done to seek remedy (e.g. doing to the doctor)

88
Q

What is sick roll behaviour?

A

Behavior done to get well (e.g. taking medicine)

89
Q

What are perceptions of risk influenced by?

A
  1. Personal experience with problem
  2. Belief that it is preventable by personal action
  3. Belief that if it hasn’t happened by now, it won’t
  4. Belief that the problem is infrequent
90
Q

At what points are interventions thought to be more effective?

A

Transition points:
Leaving school
Entering workforce
Becoming a parent
Becoming unemployed
Retirement
Bereavement

91
Q

What are some examples of models of behaviour change?

A

Health belief model
Theory of planned behaviour
Stages of change
Social norms theory
Motivational interviewing
Nudging

92
Q

What are the factors involved in the health belief model?

A

Patients will change their behaviour if they believe:
1. They are susceptible to the condition
2. There are serious consequences
3. That taking action reduces susceptibility
4. That benefits of action outweigh cost

93
Q

What three factors are thought to determine an individuals health behaviour in the theory of planned behaviour?

A

Attitude
Subjective norm (societal pressure)
Perceived behavioural control

94
Q

What are the 6 steps in the stages of change model?

A
  1. Precontemplation
    2.Contemplation
  2. Preparation
  3. Action
  4. Maintenance
  5. Relapse
95
Q

What drug is used to help opiate detoxification?

A

Methadone (or naltrexone)

96
Q

What drug is used in opiode overdose?

A

Naloxone

97
Q

What is the formula to work out units of alcohol?

A

Volume (ml) X % alcohol)/ 1000

98
Q

What are the key things that indicate alcohol dependence?

A

Withdrawal syptoms
Cravings
Tolerance
Primacy (putting it before other activities)
Loss of control
Narrowing of repertoire

99
Q

What may be taken to help alcohol abstinence?

A

Disulfrem
Acomprosate

100
Q

What are the four dimension of food insecurity?

A

Availability of food
Access
Utilisation
Stability

101
Q

What are the different types of error?

A

Sloth error
Lack of skill
Communication
System failure
Human factors
Judgement failure
Neglect
Poor performance
Misconduct

102
Q

What is the Bolam rule?

A

Would a reasonable doctor do the same?

103
Q

What is the Bolitho rule?

A

Would that be reasonable

104
Q

What are the 4 components of medical negligence?

A

Doctors have a duty of care which was breached and the patient came to harm as a result of this breech.

105
Q

What is the swiss cheese model of error?

A

Latent failures build up to allow an error to happen (Organisational influence–> Unsafe supervision–> Preconditions–> Unsafe act)

106
Q

What is the bucket model of error?

A

SELF (poor knowledge/skill, fatigue, unwell)
CONTEXT (Distraction, poor handover, lack of support)
TASK (Errors, complexity)
(Fuller the bucket, more likely an error will occur)

107
Q
A