Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Osha 3a > Public Health > Flashcards

Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 domains of public health?

A
  • health improvement
  • health protection
  • health care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is health improvement?

A
  • social interventions aimed at preventing disease, promoting health, reducing inequalities
  • encompasses education, housing and employment
  • screening programmes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is health protection?

A
  • measures to control infectious disease and environmental hazards
  • notifying diseases
  • contact tracing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is health care?

A
  • organisation and delivery of safe, high-quality services for prevention, treatment and care
  • auditing and improving recommendations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is health behaviour?

A
  • behaviour aimed to prevent disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is illness behaviour?

A

behaviour to seek remedy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is sick role behaviour?

A

behaviour aimed at getting well e.g. resting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is health promotion?

A
  • process of enabling people to exert control over their health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give examples of health promotion at a population level?

A
  • awareness campaigns
  • screening
  • immunisations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give an example of health promotion at an individual level

A
  • patient centred approach
  • care responsive to individual needs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is unrealistic optimism?

A
  • individuals continue to practice health damaging behaviours
  • inaccurate perceptions of risk and susceptibility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What 4 factors influence perception of risk?

A
  1. lack of personal experience with the problem
  2. belief that the problem is preventable by personal action
  3. belief that if it hasn’t happened by now, it isn’t likely to
  4. belief that the problem is infrequent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the health belief model?

A
  • perceived barriers are the most important factor in addressing behaviour change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 4 parts of the health belief model?

A
  1. Believe they are susceptible to the condition
  2. Believe that it has serious consequences
  3. Believe that taking action reduces susceptibility
  4. Believe that the costs of taking action outweigh the benefits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the pros and cons of the health belief model?

A
  • can be applied to wide variety of behaviours
  • other factors may influence outcome, doesn’t consider emotions, doesn’t differentiate between first time and repeated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the theory of planned behaviour?

A

Best predictor of behaviour
change is intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 3 determinants of the theory of planned behaviour?

A
  1. Personal attitude to the behaviour
  2. Social pressure to change behaviour (social norm)
  3. Person’s perceived behavioural control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the stages of the transtheoretical model of change?

A
  • pre-contemplation
  • contemplation
  • preparation
  • action
  • maintenance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is nudging?

A
  • nudging the environment to make the best option easiest
  • e.g. fruit at checkout
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the social norms theory?

A
  • behaviour influenced by social norms in their group
  • leads to misperceptions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is motivational interviewing? RULE

A
  • enhance a patient’s motivation to change, resolve ambivalence
  • Resist righting reflex
  • understand their motivations
  • listen with empathy
  • empower patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the determinants of health?

A
  • genes
  • environment
  • lifestyle
  • healthcare
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is horizontal equity?

A
  • equal treatment for equal need
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is vertical equity?

A
  • unequal treatment for unequal need
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is equity?

A
  • resources shared based on need
  • being fair and just
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is equality?

A
  • providing everyone with the same amount of resources regardless of need
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a health needs assessment?

A
  • systematic method for reviewing health issues faced by a population
  • agreed priorities and resource allocation
  • to improve health and reduce inequalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 3 parts of a health need assessment?

A
  • need
  • demand
  • supply
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 3 levels of interventions in public health?

A
  • individual e.g. immunisations
  • community e.g. playgrounds
  • ecological (population) e.g. clean air act
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is felt need?

A
  • individual perceptions of variation from normal health
    e.g. person believes they need to lose weight even if they don’t
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is expressed need?

A
  • individual seeks help to overcome variation in normal health
    e.g. seeks help from doctor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is normative need?

A
  • professional defines intervention appropriate for the expressed need
    e.g. doctor says go to rehab
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is comparative need?

A
  • comparison between severity, range of interventions and cost
    e.g. patient improves but then service is oversubscribed so no longer prioritised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A
  • physiological
  • safety
  • love
  • esteem
  • self-actualisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is self-actualisation?

A
  • a person’s motivation to reach his or her full potential
  • must meet basic needs before this can be met
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the inverse care law?

A

the availability of medical or social care tends to vary inversely with the need of the population served

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the key determinants of health? PROGRESS

A
  • place of residence
  • race
  • occupation
  • gender
  • religion
  • education
  • socioeconomic status
  • social capital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the medical model of disability?

A
  • sees the disabled person as the problem
  • what they can’t do e.g. walk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the social model of disability?

A
  • the problem is the disabled world
  • e.g. no ramps or lifts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the bucket model of error?

A
  • self: poor knowledge
  • context: distraction, poor handover
  • task: errors, process, complexity
41
Q

What is an error of commission?

A
  • making a wrong action/doing something incorrectly
  • wrong Abx for UTi
42
Q

What is an error of omission?

A
  • forgetting to do something
  • e.g. forgetting to give prescribed meds
43
Q

What factors affect food behaviours?

A
  • maternal diet
  • breastfeeding
  • parenting practices
  • age of intro to solid foods and types given
44
Q

What are non-organic feeding disorders?

A
  • feeding aversion, food refusal, negative mealtimes
  • <6 years old usually
45
Q

What are the 4 stages of a planning cycle for a needs assessment?

A
  • needs assessment
  • planning
  • implementation
  • evaluation
46
Q

What is an epidemiological approach to health needs assessment?

A
  • define disease and incidence
  • assess services available and match against existing evidence for cost effectiveness and quality
47
Q

What are the problems with an epidemiological approach to a health needs assessment?

A
  • doesn’t consider felt needs
  • purely biomedical approach
  • requires existing data
48
Q

What is a corporate approach to health needs assessment?

A
  • wide variety of stakeholders
  • focus groups
  • problems: difficult to distinguish need and demand
  • certain groups have vested interest
49
Q

What is a comparative approach to health needs assessment?

A
  • compares services received by 2 diff subgroups e.g. diff locations or ages
  • problems: difficulty finding comparison and comparing outcomes
50
Q

What are Maxwell’s dimensions? 3 A’s and 3 E’s

A
  • effectiveness
  • efficiency - output maximised?
  • equity
  • acceptability e.g. operations at acceptable time of day
  • accessibility
  • appropriateness
51
Q

What is ethnocentrism?

A
  • tendency to evaluate other groups according to your own values and standards
  • with conviction that your values are superior to theirs
52
Q

What are the 3 resource allocation methods?

A
  • egalitarian
  • maximising
  • libertarian
53
Q

What is egalitarian allocation?

A
  • provide all care that is necessary and required to everyone
  • adv: equal
  • dis: econonomically restricted
54
Q

What is maximising allocation?

A
  • based solely on consequence
  • +: resources given to those likely to benefit most
  • -: those with less need receive nothing
55
Q

What is libertarian allocation?

A
  • each individual responsible for own health
  • +: onus on patient so more engaged
  • -: not all diseases self inflicted
56
Q

What is evaluation?

A
  • process that attempts to systematically assess whether a service meets its objectives
57
Q

What is the Donabedian approach to evaluation?

A
  • structure: what there is
  • process: what is done
  • outcome
58
Q

What are the 5 D’s for outcome of evaluation?

A
  • death
  • disease
  • disability
  • discomfort
  • dissatisfaction
59
Q

What is epidemiology?

A
  • the study of the frequency, distribution and determinants of diseases and health-related states in populations in order to prevent and control disease
60
Q

What is incidence?

A
  • number of new cases in a specific time period divided by size of population
61
Q

What is prevalence?

A
  • number of existing cases in a population at a specific point in time
  • divided by the total population
62
Q

What is relative risk?

A
  • risk in one category relative to another
  • strength of association between RF and disease
  • RR >1 indicates risks have increased
63
Q

How do you calculate relative risk?

A
  • absolute risk in exposed group/absolute risk in non-exposed group
64
Q

how do you calculate absolute risk?

A
  • new cases/total population at risk
65
Q

What is attributable risk?

A
  • amount of disease specifically due to exposure
  • exposed risk - unexposed risk
66
Q

What is the number need to treat?

A
  • no of patients who need a specific treatment to prevent 1 having a bad outcome
    e.g. no to give up smoking to prevent 1 person getting lung cancer
  • 1/attributable risk
  • round up
67
Q

What is bias?

A
  • systematic error resulting in deviation from true effect of exposure on an outcome
68
Q

What is selection bias?

A
  • error in selection of study participants
  • allocation of participants to different groups
69
Q

What is information bias?

A
  • error in collection of info
  • recall, reporting, calibration of instrument
70
Q

What is publication bias?

A
  • studies with -ve results less likely to be published
71
Q

What is confounding?

A

when an apparent association between an exposure and outcome is actually the result of another facto
- independently associated with exposure and outcome but don’t lie on causal pathway between two
e.g. grey hair and back pain (age is the factor)

72
Q

What are 3 ways to reduce confounding?

A
  • randomisation
  • restriction (limit people who are similar)
  • matching (case control study - 2 comparison groups w/ same distribution of confounders
73
Q

What is lead time bias?

A

early identification doesn’t alter the outcome but appears to increase survival as disease identified earlier

74
Q

What is length time bias?

A
  • disease that progresses slowly is more likely to be picked up by screening > screening appears to inc survival
75
Q

What is allocation bias?

A
  • individuals assigned to different treatment groups in a way that favours one leading to unequal comparisons
76
Q

What are the bradford hill criteria for causation? DRBCST CAS

A
  • dose response
  • reversibility
  • biological plausibility
  • consistency
  • strength
  • temporality
  • coherence
  • analogy
  • specificity
77
Q

What is temporality?

A
  • exposure occurs before outcome
    e.g. people smoking before developing lung cancer
78
Q

What are the 3 prevention types?

A
  • primary: prevent the disease - vaccination
  • secondary: detect a disease early and prevent it getting worse- screening
  • tertiary: improve quality of life and reduce symptoms 0 rehab
79
Q

What is a duty of candour?

A
  • hcps must be open and honest when something has gone wrong or has the potential for harm or distress
80
Q

What is a never event?

A
  • largely preventable patient safety incident that shouldn’t occur if preventative measures have been implemented
    e.g. wrong site of surgery
81
Q

What are the 4 questions if negligence is suspected?

A
  • was there a duty of care
  • was there a breach in that duty
  • did the patient come to harm
  • did the breach cause that harm
82
Q

What are the 2 questions to determine if negligence occurred?

A
  • bolam test: would a group of reasonable doctors do the same
  • bolitho test: would it have been reasonable for them to do so
83
Q

What is the swiss cheese model of error?

A
  • cheese: organisation’s defence against failure
  • holes: weakness on individual parts of system
  • system produces errors when holes align momentarily
84
Q

What is sloth error?

A
  • inaccurate documentation or not checking results for accuracy
85
Q

What is fixation error?

A
  • focus on one diagnosis
  • confirmation bias
86
Q

What is communication breakdown?

A
  • unclear plan
  • not listening and explaining well
87
Q

What is poor team working?

A
  • some individuals out of depth
  • others underutilised
88
Q

What is playing the odds?

A
  • choosing the common and dismissing the rare
89
Q

What is bravado/timidity?

A
  • working beyond confidence or not having confidence to object
90
Q

What is ignorance?

A
  • lack of knowledge
  • conscious or unconscious competence
91
Q

What is lack of skill?

A
  • not having appropriate skills/training/practice
92
Q

What is system error?

A

environmental, technological, equipment failure

93
Q

What are the two outcomes of error?

A
  • adverse event: incident resulting in harm
  • near miss: potential to cause harm but fails to develop
94
Q

What is rationing?

A
  • refusing resources based on lack of affordability rather than clinical ineffectiveness
95
Q

What is ecological fallacy?

A

mismatch arising from trying to draw conclusions abotu individual level epidemiological associations from a group level study
e.g. assuming all med students have high IQs

96
Q

What is the prevention paradox?

A
  • a preventative measure which brings much benefit to the population often offers little to each participating individual e.g. seatbelts
97
Q

What is the positive predictive value?

A
  • proportion of people with positive test result who acc have disease
  • (a/(a+b))
98
Q

What is negative predictive value?

A
  • proportion of people with a negative result who don’t actually have the disease
  • (d/(c+d))

Osha 3a (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions