Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 3a > Public Health > Flashcards

Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 domains of public health?

A

Health Improvement, Health protection, Service improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the difference between equality and equity?

A

Equality: treating everyone the same, giving everyone equal shares
Equity: being fair, giving everyone what they need to be successful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is horizontal vs vertical equity?

A
  • horizontal: equal treatment for equal need
  • vertical equity: unequal treatment for unequal need

(theyre all the same lying down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the bradford hill criteria?

A

BC-ASPECTS:
- biological gradient
- coherence
- analogy
- strength
- plausibility
- experiment
- consistency
- temporality
- specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What can cause association?

A

Bias, confounding factors, chance, reverse causality, true association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is bias?

A

A systematic error that results in a deviation from the true effect of an exposure of an outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three classifications of bias?

A

Selection bias, information bias, publication bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is selection bias?

A

Systematic error in the selection of study participants or the allocation of participants to different study groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is information bias?

A

Systematic error in the measurement or classification of exposure or outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are sources of information bias?

A

Observer, participant, instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is publication bias?

A

Trials with negative results less likely to be published

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is lead time bias?

A

Early identification doesn’t alter outcome but appears to increase survival (eg, patient knows they have disease for longer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is length time bias?

A

Disease that progress more slowly is more likely to be picked up by screening, which makes it appear that screening prolongs life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is confounding?

A

When an apparent association between an exposure and an outcome is actually the result of another factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a cross sectional study?

A

A retrospective observational study collecting data from a population at a specific point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the pros of cross sectional study design?

A

Large sample size, rapid, can repeat over time to identify changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the cons of cross sectional study designs?

A

Risk of reverse causality, disease length bias (won’t include those who recovery quickly), can’t identify any temporal components, selection bias, largely reliant on self reported data, limited for rare outcomes or exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a case control study?

A

A retrospective observational study looking at population with disease and a control population. Looks at those who were exposed/non exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the pros of case control study design?

A

Good for rare outcomes, rapid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the cons of case control study design?

A

Prone to selection bias, resource consuming to find well matched controls, retrospective, hard to establish causality, may be difficult to get enough numbers for rare outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

Prospective longitudinal study looking at separate cohorts with different treatments/exposure applied. Wait to see if disease occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the pros of cohort studies?

A

Can establish disease risk factors, can follow rare exposure, can collect data on confounders, can establish causality, can track multiple otucomes and exposures, can calculate incidence rates and relative risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the possible cons of cohort studies?

A

Difficult to assess rare diseases (might not develop), drop outs, large sample size required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between cohort studies and RCTs?

A

In RCT groups are randomised and double blinded, whereas they are picked in cohort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the pros of RCTs?

A

Two groups can be accurately compared, risk of bias and confounding is minimised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the cons of RCTs?

A

Ethical issues, drop outs, expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a ecological study?

A

Population based data rather than individual data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the difference between ecological study and cross sectional study?

A

Ecological is looking at two areas/two years, whereas cross sectional just looks at one area, one year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the definitions of need, demand and supply?

A

Need = ability to benefit from an intervention
Demand = what people ask for
Supply = what is provided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the definition of a health needs assessment?

A

A health needs assessment is a systematic method for reviewing the health issues facing a population, leading to agreed priorities and resource allocation that will improve health and reduce inequalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Bradshaw’s needs?

A

Felt need, expressed need, normative need, comparative need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is felt need?

A

Individual perceptions of variation from normal health (eg, patient can’t walk as far as they could before)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is expressed need?

A

Individual seeks help to overcome variation in normal health (demand) (eg, seeking help from a doctor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is normative need?

A

Professional defines intervention appropriate for the expressed need (eg, doctor says go to physio services)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is comparative need?

A

Needs identified by comparing the services received by one group of individuals with those received by another comparable group. Eg, one person may think they need a hip replacement if someone they know gets one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the stages of planning cycle for health needs?

A

Needs assessment, planning, implementation, evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the approaches to health needs assessments?

A

Epidemiological, comparative, corporate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is an epidemiological approach to health needs assessment?

A

Top down approach, looks at a whole area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the problems with an epidemiological approach to health needs assessment?

A

Does not consider the felt needs of people it is catering for, purely biomedical approach, requires pre-existing high quality data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is corporate approach health needs assessment?

A

Takes into account views from patients, politicians, press, professionals, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the cons of health needs assessments, corporate approach?

A

May be hard to distinguish need from demand, certain groups may have vested interests and be influenced by political agendas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is comparative health needs assessment approach?

A

Compares the services receieved by a sub-group with services recieved by another sub group (eg; MS patients physiotherapy in Yorkshire vs North West (spacial) or between under 30s vs over 30s (social)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the cons of comparative health needs assessment approach?

A

Difficulty in finding two comparable groups, may be comparing 2 bad services (lol, blind leading the blind!), may have 2 different sets of needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the main 2 types of health needs assessment evaluation?

A

Donabedian approach, Maxwell’s dimensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the Donabedian approach to health needs assessments?

A
  1. Structure 2. Process 3. Outcome (eg, PROMs, mortality, morbidity, patient satisfaction groups, 5D’s)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Maxwell’s dimensions of evaluation?

A

3Es+3As (effectiveness, efficiency, equity, acceptability, accessibility, appropriateness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What ties together the two models used in health needs assessment evaluation?

A

Wright’s Matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is incidence?

A

The number of new cases in a population during a specific time period (rate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the definition of prevalence?

A

The number of existing cases at a specific point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is relative risk?

A

The risk in one category relative to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does relative risk tell us?

A

The strength of association between a risk factor and a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does a relative risk of >1 indicate?

A

That risks have increased due to a factor exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is attributable risk?

A

The amount of disease that is specifically due to the exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is number needed to treat?

A

The number of patients who need a specific treatment to prevent one bad outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How do you calculate attributable risk?

A

Risk incidence with expousre - risk of incidence no exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How do you calculate number needed to treat?

A

1/attributable risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What Criteria is used for screening programmes?

A

Wilson Jugner criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the 4 categories of Wilson and Jugner criteria?

A

Knowledge of disease, knowledge of test, treatment for disease, cost considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What fits under ‘knowledge of disease’, Wilson Jugner criteria?

A

Important disease, must be a recognisable latent or early symptomatic stage (DCIS), understand natural course of condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What fits under knowledge of test for Wilson and Jungner criteria?

A

Suitable test of examination (sensitivity, specific, inexpensive), test acceptable to population,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What fits under cost and organisation, in Jungner and Wilson criteria?

A

Must have costs and benefits, and available facilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What fits under ‘treatment’ in Wilson and Jungner critera?

A

Acceptable treatment, facilities for dx and tx available, agreed policy concerning who to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

Does the test pick up the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is specificity?

A

Does the test identify people who do not have the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is positive predictive value?

A

Probability that subjects with a positive screening test have the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the negative predictive value?

A

Probability that subjects with a negative screening test do not have the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is health behaviour and an example?

A

Aimed at preventing disease, for example going for a run

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is illness behaviour?

A

Seeking remedy, for example going to GP for symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is sick role behaviour?

A

Activity aimed at getting well, for example taking antibiotics

70
Q

What is the health belief model?

A

Individuals will change their health behaviour if:
1. they believe they are susceptible to the condition
2. believe in serious consequences
3. believe taking action reduces susceptibility
4. believe that benefits of action outweigh costs

71
Q

What are critiques of the health belief model?

A

Ignores that people often don’t weigh up decisions like this, they are shaped by habitual behaviours, and may be influenced by social factors

72
Q

What is the transtheoretical model?

A

Stages of change model!
Precontemplation, contemplation, pla/determination, action, maintenance/relapse (PC PAM)

73
Q

What are the cons of stages of change model?

A

Not all people move forwards through all the stages/skip stages, doesn’t take into account social factors

74
Q

What is the theory of planned behaviour?

A

There are 3 factors (attitudes, subjective norm, and perceived behaviour control) that lead to intention, and lead to behaviour

75
Q

What are three examples of models of change?

A

Transtheoretical model (Stages of change), health belief model, theory of planned behaviour

76
Q

How do you calculate the number of units in alcohol?

A

Units=ABV% x (volume (mls)/1000)

77
Q

What is the recommended alcohol limit/week?

A

14 units

77
Q

What is binge drinking for men and women?

A

Men = 8 units in a single session, women = 6 units in a single session

78
Q

What is the CAGE questionnaire?

A

C: have you ever felt the need to cut down your drinking
A: have other people ever been annoyed by your drinking
G: do you ever feel guilty about your drinking
E: do you ever have an eye opening drink in the morning?

79
Q

What is sloth error?

A

An error due to laziness, inadequate documentation

80
Q

What is system error?

A

Inadequate built in safeguards, lack of surgical equipment due to failure for rota to check stock

81
Q

What is the swiss cheese model?

A

When weaknesses at every level can lead to error

82
Q

What is the three bucket model of error?

A

Buckets represent ‘self’, ‘context’, ‘task’. The more full those buckets are, the more likely error is.

83
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

Preventing disease before it occurs, such as via vaccination, health promotion

84
Q

What is secondary disease prevention?

A

Detecting a disease process before it causes symptoms (eg, via screening) or reduce the impact of what has already occurred

85
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

Treating a disease to prevent progression/complications

86
Q

What is meant by ‘error’?

A

Unintended outcome

87
Q

What are the 4 ways that error could be classified?

A

Context, Outcome, Intention, Action

COIA: ‘Come On It’s Accidental’

88
Q

Rausmussen’s 3 levels of performance

How can error be classified based on intention?

A

Failure of planned actions to achieve desired outcome. Skill based errors, rule based mistake, knowledge based mistakes

89
Q

What are the 2 different persepctives on error?

A

The person approach (focus on individual), system approach (focus on working conditions)

90
Q

What are the 10 basic types of error?

A

Sloth, fixation and loss of perspective, communication breakdown, poor team playing, playing the odds, ignorance, mis-triage, lack of skill, system error

91
Q

What criteria is used for prescribing abx to someone with a sore throat?

A

CENTOR score or FEVERPain Score

92
Q

What is the CENTOR criteria?

A

Tonsillar exudate, absence of cough, fever or large lymphadenopathy, fever

93
Q

What 3 levels can health interventions be applied?

A

Individual level, community level, population level

94
Q

What are 2 general approaches to prevention?

A

Population approach and high risk approach

95
Q

What is the prevention paradox?

A

A preventative measure which brings much benefit to the population often offers little to each participating individual

96
Q

What is an independent variable?

A

A variable which can be altered in a study

97
Q

What is a dependent variable?

A

A variable that is dependent on the independent variables/cannot be altered

98
Q

What is meant by ‘odds’ of an event?

A

Odds = probability/ (1-probability)

99
Q

What is meant by epidemiology?

A

Epidemiology is the study and analysis of the distribution (who, when, and where), patterns and determinants of health and disease conditions in a defined population.

100
Q

What are the 5 factors that could be responsible a study finds an association between an exposure and an outcome?

A

Bias, chance, confounding factors, reverse causality, a true causal association

101
Q

What is the definition of addiction?

A

Craving, tolerance, compulsive drug/substance seeking behaviour, physiological withdrawal state

102
Q

How often must heroin be used in people with heroin dependency to avoid withdrawal?

A

8 hourly

103
Q

What are the effects of heroin?

A

Euphoria, intense relaxation, miosis, drowsiness

104
Q

What are the adverse effects of heroin?

A

Dependence, withdrawal symptoms, nausea, itching, sweating, constipation, overdose

105
Q

What is the mode of action of crack/cocaine?

A

Blocks reuptake of serotonin and dopamine at synapse, leading to intense pleasurable sensation

106
Q

What does the theory of planning behaviour suggest the best predictor of behaviour is?

A

Intention

107
Q

What is the nudge theory?

A

Changing the environment to make the best/healthiest option the easiest (eg, not having sweets at supermarket checkouts)

108
Q

What factor of the health beliefs models has been shown to be most important?

A

Percieved barriers

109
Q

Why do patients continue high risk behaviours despite knowing the risk?

A

Fun, justifies behaviour with other things, doesn’t have willpower to stop, unrealistic optimism

110
Q

What is unrealistic optimism?

A

The only theory for why patients engage in risky behaviours. They might be aware of risks but don’t think it could happen to them

111
Q

What is the difference between an infectious disease and a communicable disease?

A

Infectious disease = any disease caused by an infection, communicable disease = disease that can spread from one person to another

112
Q

Define cluster (in communicable disease)

A

Aggregation of cases, may or may not be linked

113
Q

Define suspected outbreak?

A

Occurence of more cases of a disease than normally expected within a specific place or group of people over a given time period

114
Q

What are the levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

(from bottom) physiological, safety, love/belonging, esteem, self actualisation

115
Q

What is the definition of a never event?

A

Serious, largely preventable patient safety incidents that should not occur if the available preventative measures have been implemented

116
Q

What is the definition of negligence?

A

A breach of duty of care which results in damage

117
Q

What are the 2 tests that can be used to decide whether there was a breach in a duty of care?

A

Bolam test (would a group of responsible doctors do the same) and Bolitho test (would it be reasonable of them to do so)

118
Q

What is the definition of ethnocentrism?

A

The tendency to evaluate other groups according to the values and standards of own’s own culture group

119
Q

What are the 3 allocation theories?

A

Egalitarian principles, maximising principles (utilitarian), libertarian principles

120
Q

What tool can be used to assess domestic abuse?

A

DASH tool

121
Q

What sort of things would be evaluated for structure in health needs assessment evaluation?

A

Buildings, staff, equipment

122
Q

What sort of things would be evaluated for process in health needs assessment evaluation?

A

What is done: eg, number of patients seen in A+E, number of procedures performed

123
Q

How much alcohol is in a unit?

A

8 grams

124
Q

What is deprivation of liberty?

A

When a person cannot consent to care or treatment

125
Q

What is in the 6 in 1 vaccine?

A

Polio, whooping cough, influenzae (HiB), tetanus, hepB, diphtheria

126
Q

When is the 6 in 1 given?

A

2,3,4 months

127
Q

What vaccines given in the immunisation programme are live attenuated (and therefore C/I in immunocompromised)?

A

MMR, Flu, BCG, Rotavirus

128
Q

When is BCG given?

A

At birth if indicated (high risk area, parent from high risk area, family member with known TB/prev infection)

129
Q

What is given at month 2 of immunisation?

A

6 in 1, oral rotavirus, men B

130
Q

What is given at month 3 of immunisation?

A

6 in 1, oral rotavirus, PCV

131
Q

What is given at month 4 of immunisation?

A

6 in 1, Men B

132
Q

What immunisation is given at 12/13 months?

A

Hib/MenC + MMR + PCV + MenB

133
Q

What immunisation is given at 3/4 years?

A

4 in 1 (Polio, whooping cough, tetanus, diphtheria) + MMR

134
Q

When is the HPV vaccine given?

A

12/13 years

135
Q

What is given at 13 years and 18 years?

A

3 in 1 (Polio, tetanus, diphtheria) and Men ACWY

136
Q

When is the flu vaccine given? (children)

A

annually between 2 and 8 years

137
Q

What is the definition of equity?

A

Giving people what they need to achieve equal outcomes

138
Q

What are sources for epidemiological health serviceassessment?

A

Disease registry, admission, GP databases

139
Q

What are two possible approaches for prevention?

A

Population approach (delivered to everyone, but won’t impact everyone that much: Breast Screening), and high risk approach (identify individuals above a chosen cut off and treat them; eg, high blood pressure)

140
Q

What is the staging for CKD?

A

1: >90
2: 60-90
3a: 45-59
3b: 30-44
2: 15-29
4: less than 15

141
Q

What is the staging for AKI?

A

1: increased creatinine x 1.5 -1.9 baseline, urine less than 0.5 ml/kg/hr for 6 hours

2: increased creatinine x2-2.9 baseline, urine less than 0.5/ml/kg/hr for 12 hours

3: increase in creatinine x3 baseline, urine less than 0.3 ml/kg/hr for 24 hours, or no urine for 12 hours

142
Q

What are the categories of developmental milestones?

A

Gross motor, fine motor, language, social

143
Q

What are the red flags of gross motor skills?

A

Not sitting without support at 12 months, not walking supported at 18 months

144
Q

When should a child be able to sit without support?

A

7-8 months

145
Q

When should a child be able to crawl?

A

9 months

146
Q

When should a child be able to walk unsupported?

A

12 months, unsupported at 13-15 months

147
Q

When should a child be able to run?

A

2 years

148
Q

When can a child ride a tricycle?

A

3 years

149
Q

When can a child hop on one leg?

A

4 years

150
Q

When can a child hold something in palmar grasp?

A

6 months (and swap hands)

151
Q

When can a child point with their finger?

A

9 months

152
Q

When does a child have a pincer grip?

A

12 months

153
Q

When can a child stack 3 bricks?

A

18 months

154
Q

When is hand preference abnormal and should be referred?

A

12 months

155
Q

When can a child copy a vertical line?

A

2 years

156
Q

When can a child copy a circle?

A

3 years

157
Q

When can a child copy a cross?

A

4 years

158
Q

When should a child that can’t say 2-6 words be referred?

A

18 months

159
Q

When does a child turn towards sound?

A

3 months

160
Q

When can a child say double syllables?

A

6 months

161
Q

When can a child say mama and dada?

A

9 months

162
Q

When does a child know and respond to name?

A

1 year

163
Q

When should a child know 2-6 words?

A

12-15 months

164
Q

When can a child combine 2 words?

A

2 years

165
Q

When does a child smile, and when should this be referred?

A

6 weeks, refer at 10 weeks

166
Q

When does a child laugh?

A

3 months

167
Q

When can a child play peek a boo?

A

9 months

168
Q

When does a child wave bye bye?

A

12 months

169
Q

When does a child play alone?

A

18 months

170
Q

When does a child play near others but not with them?

A

2 years

171
Q

When does a child play with other children?

A

4 years

Phase 3a (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions