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CFII > PTS Area of Operation II: Technical Subject Areas-C/D > Flashcards

PTS Area of Operation II: Technical Subject Areas-C/D Flashcards

1
Q

SID

A

Standard Instrument Departures
Designed at the request of ATC to increase capacity of terminal airspace.
Control traffic and provides obstacle clearance and reduce workload
Decreases clearance time simplifies departure eases into IFR structure
Can put No SIDS in remarks section in file
Instrument departure procedures
Non Rnav(radio navigation) established for aircraft with ground based nav in the avionics
Rnav for gps and VOR DME

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2
Q

STAR

A

standard terminal arrival route
Provides common method to arrive at airport from enroute
Provides critical form of communication for pilots and atc

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3
Q

Descend VIA

A

Comply with the lateral path of the STAR. Comply with all published speed restrictions. Comply with all published altitude restrictions

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4
Q

When do you need an alternate 91.169

A

123 rule
1 hour before to 1 hour after
at least 3sm 2000ft ceilings
anything less need one

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5
Q

minimum wx mins at airport to use as a alternate

A

Precision 600-2
nonpercision 800-2
no approach- descent from mea to airport under vfr

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6
Q

alternate gps considerations
Non WAAS GPS equipped

A

GPS approach either the destination or the alternate, but cant be both

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7
Q

alternate gps considerations
WAAS without baro VNAV

A

can use Lnav or circling minimas

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8
Q

IFR altitudes 91.179

A

0-179 odd thousands
180-359 even thousands

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9
Q

IFR fuel requirements 91.167

A

to destination, then alternate then 45 mins at normal cruise

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10
Q

IFR flightplan needed 91.173

A

to fly ifr in controlled airspace need to file ifr flight plan and need atc clearance

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11
Q

IFR take off mins 91.175

A

part 91-none
part 121/135-
1-2 engine 1sm
3-4 engines 1/2 sm

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12
Q

Black T triangle

A

Non standard Takeoff minimums/ departure procedures

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13
Q

Black A triangle

A

Non standard ifr alternate minimums exist

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14
Q

Black triangle A NA

A

alternate not authorized

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15
Q

Departure Procedures AIM-5-2-9

A

they ensure obstacle clearance
airplane must cross the threshold at least 35ft agl
no turns before 400ft agl
standard climbs are 200 ft per nm or as published

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16
Q

how to convert fpnm to fpm

A

FPNM X GS / 60

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17
Q

Two types of DPs

A

Obstacle departure procedures
Standard instrument departure procedures

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18
Q

ODPs

A

provides only obstacle clarance
titled OBSTACLE

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19
Q

Departure procedures are also categorized by

A

equipment
RNAV
NON RNAV
RADAR

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20
Q

Are you required to accecpt

A

NO but cant if you dont have the graphical or textual directions

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21
Q

IFR departure clearance

A

CRAFT

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22
Q

Clearance VOID time

A

clearance is voided if not wheels up by the time or minutes after the controller issued clearance
if not up must let them know within 30 minutes

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23
Q

Hold for release

A

cant takeoff until released by the controller for departure

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24
Q

Release time

A

earliest time the departure can take place

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25
Q

IFR min altitudes 91.177

A

except for T/O or landing cannot operate beneath
minimum altitudes for segment
2000 above highest obstacle in mountainous areas, 1000 ft non-mountainous areas and 4 nm from course

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26
Q

DA/ DH

A

height above ground or altitude msl when to go missed on a vertically guided approach

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27
Q

MEA

A

lowest published altitude between radio fixes that ensures navigation signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.

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28
Q

RNAV MEA BLUE

A

depicted on some IFR en route low altitude charts, allowing both RNAV and non-RNAV pilots to use the same chart for instrument navigation.

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29
Q

Minimum reception altitude (MRA)

A

minimum altitude the navigation signal can be received for the route and for off-course NAVAID facilities that determine a fix.

When the MRA at the fix is higher than the MEA, an MRA is established for the fix and is the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined

flag R

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30
Q

Maximum authorized altitude(MAA)

A

maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment.

It is the highest altitude on a Federal airway, jet route, RNAV low or high route, or other direct route for which an MEA is designated. Adequate reception of navigation signals is assured

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31
Q

5) Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)

A

lowest published altitude in effect between fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment.

This altitude also assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR.

asterick altitude

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32
Q

Off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA)

A

An off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) is an off-route altitude that provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000-foot buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas, and a 2,000-foot buffer in designated mountainous areas. This altitude doesn’t guarantee signal coverage from ground-based NAVAIDs, ATC radar, or communications coverage

Big tan numbers

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33
Q

7) Minimum Turning Altitude (MTA)

A
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34
Q

Minimum crossing altitude (MCA)

A

is the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which the aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude.

flag X

35
Q

Minimum Vectoring Altitudes (MVA)

A

established for use by ATC when radar ATC is exercised. The MVA provides 1,000 feet of clearance above the highest obstacle in non-mountainous areas and 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle in designated mountainous areas.

Because of the ability to isolate specific obstacles, some MVAs may be lower than MEAs, MOCAs, or other minimum altitudes depicted on charts for a given location. While being radar vectored, IFR altitude assignments by ATC are normally at or above the MVA

36
Q

Minimum descent altitude (MDA)

A

lowest altitude can fly on a non precison approach, cannot descend if airport is not in sight, go missed at MAP

37
Q

Cruise clearance

A

“N216BD Cruise 8,000’”
the block of airspace between the minimum IFR altitude to the altitude in your clearance is yours to use. You can climb, descend, and level off at any intermediate altitude within the block of airspace, all the way to your destination under IFR. You’re responsible for determining the minimum IFR altitude in your area. Traffic separation is still provided by ATC.

automatically cleared for the approach, descending is up to you

found in sparsely populated areas, little traffic

38
Q

IFR required equipment 91.205

A

VFR DAY and or night + GRABCARD
above FL240 DME needed or RNAV inlieu of DME

39
Q

Required reports under VFR

A

91.183 AIM 5-3-3
Missed approach
Airspeed change
Reaching a fix
VFR on top
ETA change **
Leaving a fix
Outer Marker **
Unforecasted weather
Safety of Flight
Vacating altitude
Final approach fix **
Radio/Nav failure
Compulsory points **
500- can’t climb 500 FPM

*** only in non radar environments

40
Q

Holding Patterns speeds

A

minimum holding altitude
max speed 200 below 6000
6k-14k- 230 knots
14001-above 265 knots

41
Q

Non charted holds clearance items

A

Direction of hold
holding fix
radial or course, or airway/route
leg distance or minutes
hold turn direction, standard if omitted
EFC time

42
Q

Charted holds clearance items

A

Holding fix
direction
EFC

43
Q

when do you slow down before reaching holding fix

A

3 minutes

44
Q

Hold leg times

A

below 14000 1 minute
above 14000 1.5 minutes

45
Q

Direct hold

A

cross fix and turn directly into hold

46
Q

Parallel hold

A

fly to your holding fix and then turn outbound to parallel the course. Fly for 1 minute, then turn toward the protected side to intercept the inbound course (more than a 180 degree turn)

47
Q

Teardrop hold

A

rossing your holding fix, then turning 30 degrees from the outbound leg (towards the protected side). After flying outbound on the 30 degree heading for 1 minute, turn toward the inbound course and intercept the inbound course

48
Q

IFR lost comms 91.185

A

IF in VFR land asap

If in IMC:
Highest altitude: MEA
Route in order of AVEF

Is the clearance limit where an approach begins?
yes- start appraoch at efc or eta
no- at efc go to where an appraoch begins and commence

49
Q

When no to do a procedure turn

A

Straight in
Hold in lieu
Arc
Radar vectors
P NO PT
Time appraoch
Teardrop course reversal

50
Q

Procedure turn enables

A

course reversal onto approach and a descent

51
Q

procedure turn speed

A

max 200, also remain with charted distance

52
Q

when can you decsend below DA/MDA 91.175

A

Continuous position to land
Flight visibility- use eyes, don’t always trust rvr
Runway environment in sight-
10 things for environment:
Red approach lights or red terminating bars
Runway threshold (white bar at beginning of runway)
Runway threshold marking (solid white bars on runway)
Threshold lights (green)
REIL (flashing white)
VASI/PAPI
Touchdown zone or
Touchdown zone markings
Touchdown zone lights multilight bar off of centerline
Runway
runway markings
Runway lights

WHAT LETS YOU GO BELOW MINS. 100FT ABOVE TOUCHDOWN ZONE ELEVATION
Approach light system that doesn’t have the red terminating bars

53
Q

when crossing FAF 7 Ts

A

–Time should be started to determine the MAP–Turn to keep the course within the donut–Throttle reduce by 300RPM to maintain A/S–Trim to maintain the airspeed planned on–Tune in the CTAF or back up LOC–Talk to tower if requested, or position report–Tires verified down in a complex aircraft

54
Q

segments of appraoch

A

–Initial Approach Segment- align the aircraft with the approach course or final approach

–Intermediate Approach Segment- –Designed primarily to position the aircraft for the final descent to the airport. Normally aligned within 30° of the final approach course. –Begins at the intermediate fix (IF)

–Final Approach Segment- Precision Approach (FAS) begins at glide slope intercept altitude on approach charts. w–Non-precision Approach (FAS) begins at the Final Approach Fix (FAF) depicted as a cross on the profile view, or at the final approach point (FAP), when established inbound

–Missed Approach Segment- Begins at the missed approach point (MAP) on ends at a point or fix where an initial or en-route segments begins. Precision Approach (MAP) at DA or DH–Non-precision Approach (MAP) is either a fix, NAVAID, or a specified period of time

55
Q

Visual appraoch

A

must have 3sm of vis and ceiling must be 1000 feet and must maintain vfr at all times. Must have the traffic in front of you in sight or airport in sight and if the controller determines this is possible.

56
Q

Contact appraoch

A

pilot requested atc cannot issue this unlike visual approach. Need 1sm of vis and maintain clear of clouds and go visually from there. Gives SVFR to IFR pilots

57
Q

TPP

A
  • Instrument Approach Procedures (IAPs)
  • Departure Procedures (DPs) charts
  • Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) charts
  • Charted Visual Flight Procedure (CVFP)
  • Airport Diagrams

Also included are Takeoff Minimums, (Obstacle) Departure Procedures, Diverse Vector Area (RADAR Vectors), RADAR and Alternate Minimum textual procedures.

58
Q

VDP

A

Visual descent point
V on descent profile

59
Q

61.65

A

50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command. At least 10 of these hours must be in airplanes for an instrument-airplane rating.
A total of 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time on the areas of operation listed in 61.65(c).
At least 15 hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in the aircraft category for the instrument rating sought.
For instrument-airplane rating, instrument training on cross-country flight procedures that includes at least one cross-country flight in an airplane that is performed under instrument flight rules. This flight must consist of:

A distance of at least 250 nm along airways or ATC-directed routing.
An instrument approach at each airport.
Three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems (Example: ILS, VOR, GPS, etc).
At least 3 hours of instrument training that is appropriate to the instrument rating sought from an authorized instructor in preparation for the checkride within two calendar months before the examination date

60
Q

Instrument rating endorsements

A

61-65H Just pull it out
A1
A2
A38
A39
A40

61
Q

difference between a VOR and GPS track?

A

VOR uses magnetic variation at the VOR station from when it was last adjusted. GPS uses the current magnetic variation at your exact location. That is why the course might be different if you are navigating on a VOR vs GPS, but your ground track should remain the same

62
Q

Circle to land radius from airport (old or just a C)

A

A-1.3
B-1.5
C-1.7
D-2.3
E-4.5

63
Q

Circle to land radius from airport (new or just a black square C)

A

look at chart it is at least or greater than old depending on the MDA altitude

64
Q

Circle to land radius are based on

A

runway ends tangential connections

65
Q

Going missed on a circling approach

A

Turn towards runway and climb to safe altitude before starting the missed approach procedure

66
Q

On new circling radiuses why are radiuses bigger with higher MDA altitudes

A

At higher altitudes the needed to fly faster true altitude to maintain same indicated airspeed, so it will need more room to maneuver.

67
Q
A
68
Q

Position report

A
69
Q

localizer feather

A

shader side is 150 hertz when on shaded side the deflection of the localizer is to the left backcourse or front course like in flight insight video

70
Q

localizer feather

A

shader side is 150 hertz

71
Q

everything needed for ipc

A

hold
unusual attitudes

intercepting and tracking radials and arcs (do dme arc)

precision approach

nonprecision and go missed

circling approach

post flight

partial panel

72
Q

•When utilizing a VOR for navigation, the VOR bearing could be different than a calculated MAGNETIC COURSE
•Why?

A

VORs are built with a set magnetic variation that is determined at time of station construction, this could be different than current local variation
•This is called “Station Declination

73
Q

terminal arrival area (TAA)

A

blocked on approach chart shows safe altitudes on straight in and left and right bases to the approach

74
Q

Position report 91.183

A

■ Aircraft ID.
■ Position.
■ Time.
■ Altitude.
■ Type of flight plan (except when communicating with
ARTCC / Approach control).
■ ETA and name of next reporting fix.
■ Name only of the next succeeding point along the
route of flight.
■ Any pertinent remarks.

75
Q

Why may an airport not be used as an alternate at all

A

Not all airports can be used as alternate airports. An airport
may not be qualified for alternate use if the airport NAVAID
is unmonitored, or if it does not have weather reporting
capabilities

76
Q

• RNAV 1 procedures require that the aircraft’s total
system error remain bounded by ±1 NM for 95
percent of the total flight time.
• RNAV 2 requires a total system error of not more
than 2 NM for 95 percent of the total flight time.
RNP is RNAV with on-board monitoring and alerting; RNP is
also a statement of navigation performance necessary for
operation within defined airspace. RNP 1 (in-lieu-of RNAV
1) is used when a DP that contains a constant radius to a
fix (RF) leg or when surveillance (radar) monitoring is not
desired for when DME/DME/IRU is used. These procedures
are annotated with a standard note: “RNP 1.”

A
77
Q

IFR preferred routes

A

Preferred IFR routes are established between busier airports
to increase system efficiency and capacity. They normally
extend through one or more ARTCC areas and are designed
to achieve balanced traffic flows among high density
terminals. IFR clearances are issued on the basis of these
routes except when severe weather avoidance procedures
or other factors dictate otherwise. Preferred IFR routes are
listed in the CS

78
Q

RNav routes over vhf routes

A

Random RNAV routes are direct routes that are based on
RNAV capability between waypoints defined in terms of
latitude or longitude coordinates, degree-distance fixes,
or offsets from established routes or airways at a specified
distance and direction. Radar monitoring by ATC is required
on all random RNAV routes. Random RNAV routes can
only be approved in a radar environment. Factors that
are considered by ATC when approving random RNAV
routes include the capability to provide radar monitoring
and compatibility with traffic volume and flow. ATC radar
monitor each flight; however, navigation on the random
RNAV route is the responsibility of the pilot

79
Q

You’re flying an ILS and you cross the middle marker. Approximately how far are you from the landing threshold

A

3500

80
Q

safety pilot requirements

A

▷ Holds at least a private pilot certificate with the
appropriate category and class.
▷ Have adequate vision forward and to each side of
the aircraft.
▷ Aircraft must have a dual control system.

81
Q

what to log to be current

A

Location & type of each instrument approach
accomplished, and
■ The name of the safety pilot, if required

82
Q

pop up ifr

A

Pop-up IFR clearances let pilots transition from VFR to
IFR, even without a previously filed flight plan
(required by §91.173(a)), under ATC authorization.
□ While filing a flight plan (with FSS) is preferred, pop-ups
allow to quickly get the flight into the system. (i.e, when
weather is deteriorating fast during VFR). They are
subject to ATC workload and not guaranteed.
□ You must be at or above the minimum IFR altitude, or
climb to it under VFR

83
Q

Control Instruments

A

Power
Attitude
We use the tach and attiude indicator

84
Q

Performance instruments

A

Pitch: altimeter, airspeed, vsi
Bank: heading indicator, turn coordinator, mag compass

CFII (6 decks)

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