PTS Area of Operation II: Technical Subject Areas- A Flashcards

Question

Not changing altimeter setting example

Answer 1

The importance of properly setting the altimeter cannot be overemphasized. Assume the pilot did not adjust the altimeter at Abilene to the current setting and continued using the Mineral Wells setting of 29.94 "Hg. When entering the Abilene traffic pattern at an indicated altitude of 2,600 feet, the aircraft would be approximately 250 feet below the proper traffic pattern altitude. Upon landing, the altimeter would indicate approximately 250 feet higher than the field elevation.

Answer 2

The following is another method of computing the altitude deviation. Start by subtracting the current altimeter setting from 29.94 "Hg. Always remember to place the original setting as the top number. Then subtract the current altimeter setting. Mineral Wells altimeter setting 29.94 Abilene altimeter setting 29.69 29.94 – 29.69 = Difference 0.25 (Since 1 inch of pressure is equal to approximately 1,000 feet of altitude, 0.25 × 1,000 feet = 250 feet.) Always subtract the number from the indicated altitude. 2,600 – 250 = 2,350 Now, try a lower pressure setting. Adjust from altimeter setting 29.94 to 30.56 "Hg. Mineral Wells altimeter setting 29.94 Altimeter setting 30.56 29.94 – 30.56 = Difference –0.62 (Since 1 inch of pressure is equal to approximately 1,000 feet of altitude, 0.62 × 1,000 feet = 620 feet.) Always subtract the number from the indicated altitude. 2,600 – (–620) = 3,220 The pilot will be 620 feet high.

Answer 3

read directly from the altimeter (uncorrected) when it is set to the current altimeter setting

Answer 4

—the vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level—the actual altitude. It is often expressed as feet above mean sea level (MSL). Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations on aeronautical charts are true altitudes

Answer 5

the vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain, or above ground level (AGL).

Answer 6

the altitude indicated when the altimeter setting window (barometric scale) is adjusted to 29.92 "Hg. This is the altitude above the standard datum plane, which is a theoretical plane where air pressure (corrected to 15 °C) equals 29.92 "Hg. Pressure altitude is used to compute density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed (TAS), and other performance data.

Answer 7

pressure altitude corrected for variations from standard temperature. When conditions are standard, pressure altitude and density altitude are the same. If the temperature is above standard, the density altitude is higher than pressure altitude. If the temperature is below standard, the density altitude is lower than pressure altitude. This is an important altitude because it is directly related to the aircraft’s performance.

Answer 8

set pressure altitude if off elevation more than 75 feet cant use

Answer 9

* Trend information shows an immediate indication of an increase or decrease in the aircraft’s rate of climb or descent. * Rate information shows a stabilized rate of change in altitude

Answer 10

static pressure decreases, and as it decreases immediately in the diaphragm. But the instrument casing is a different story. Since the calibrated leak lets air out slowly, it creates a higher pressure in the casing than the diaphragm. When that happens, it creates a pressure differential, the diaphragm is squeezed down, and the gears connected to the VSI needle make it move up or down When you initially start climbing or descending, your VSI needle will start moving, but it can't immediately indicate how fast you're climbing. This is what's called trend information. When you see the directing of the needle moving up, you know your climb rate is increasing, and when it moves down, you know your climb rate is decreasing. You just don't know how much After a second or two, the calibrated leak has a chance to catch up and reach equilibrium, and your VSI will stabilize at a certain climb or descent rate. When that happens, you have rate information.

Answer 11

VSI must be established. Make sure the VSI indicates a near zero reading prior to leaving the ramp area and again just before takeoff. If the VSI indicates anything other than zero, that indication can be referenced as the zero mark.

Answer 12

ASI- zero Altimeter- works VSI- works

Answer 13

ASI- High climb, Low descent Altimeter-works VSI- works

Answer 14

ASI- Low Climb, High descent Altimeter- Frozen VSI- Frozen

Answer 15

ASI- reads high Altimeter- reads high VSI- momentarily shows climb

Answer 16

ASI- reads high Altimeter- reads high VSI-reverses

Answer 17

Precession is the tilting or turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force. The reaction to this force does not occur at the point at which it was applied; rather, it occurs at a point that is 90° later in the direction of rotation. This principle allows the gyro to determine a rate of turn by sensing the amount of pressure created by a change in direction. The rate at which the gyro precesses is inversely proportional to the speed of the rotor and proportional to the deflective force

Answer 18

shows pitch and bank. the gyro in the attitude indicator is mounted in a horizontal plane, and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar is fixed to the gyro and remains in a horizontal plane as the aircraft is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the aircraft relative to the true horizon. The gyro spins in the horizontal plane and resists deflection of the rotational path. Since the gyro relies on rigidity in space, the aircraft actually rotates around the spinning gyro.

Answer 19

a gyroscope remains in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning. An example of rigidity in space is that of a bicycle wheel. As the bicycle wheels increase speed, they become more stable in their plane of rotation. This is why a bicycle is unstable and maneuverable at low speeds and stable and less maneuverable at higher speeds. By mounting this wheel, or gyroscope, on a set of gimbal rings, the gyro is able to rotate freely in any direction. Thus, if the gimbal rings are tilted, twisted, or otherwise moved, the gyro remains in the plane in which it was originally spinning.

Answer 20

Vacuums or electronic

Answer 21

up and erect after 5 minutes within 5 degrees

Answer 22

Cannot pitch more than 70 degrees and bank 110 degrees would cause tumbling.

Answer 23

shows changes in heading but cant measure heading, must set it based on mag compass. operates on riggity in space and has a vertically mounted gyro so only the horizontal axis is used to drive the display. Airplane spins around the gyro itself, when the aircraft turns the gyro and main drive gear stays in place and the. the main drive gear spins in the horizontal axis and then drives the compass card gear to indicated heading change.

Answer 24

precession or friction, must re align

Answer 25

turn coordinator and turn and slip indicator

Answer 26

electric. used while banking. shows rate and quality of turn. shows straight and level and standard rate turns. also has inclinometer, shows slips or skids. gyro rotates vertivcally from a motor in the center angled at 30 degrees so it can remain upright in a turn

Answer 27

needs more rudder, ball inside the turn

Answer 28

needs less rudder, ball outside the turn

Answer 29

28 volt DC system Alternator with 60 amps 24 volt battery 4 volt discrepancy To charge the battery

Answer 30

Standby battery test for 10 seconds to make sure the green light stays on and shows a trend of constant power. Located between the firewall and instrument panel. Power essential bus if alternator and main battery fail. ARM-OFF-TEST. IF not armed does not charge and cannot be used if failures occur. Standby battery annunciation shows -.5 volts are being drawn for more than 10 seconds

Answer 31

Electrical 1 &2 Avionics 1 & 2 Cross Feed Bus Essential Bus Electrical 1- Fuel Pump, Beacon Light, landing lights, overhead cabin lights and 12v power outlet, avionics 1, Avionics 1- PFD and PFD cooling fans, ADC/AHRS, NAV 1 and engine airframe unit, FLight information system, DME, ADF Cross Feed- ALt master switch, Warnings such as stall warning, AP warning, ELT warning, Main bus voltmeter, Stand by battery, Hourmeter, starter relay Electrical Bus 2- Avionics 2, Pitot Heat, Nav and control wheel map lights, Taxi lights, strobes, panel lights Avionics 2- MFD, transponder, nav 2, Avionics cooling fan, COM 2, Audio panel, AP Essential Bus- PFD, ADC,AHRS, Nav 1 GIA Essential Bus voltmeter, Comm1 Standby indicator lights, standby battery.

Answer 32

ANDS The magnetic dip and the forces of inertia cause magnetic compass errors when accelerating and decelerating on easterly and westerly headings. Because of the penduloustype mounting, the aft end of the compass card is tilted upward when accelerating and downward when decelerating during changes of airspeed. When accelerating on either an easterly or westerly heading, the error appears as a turn indication toward north. When decelerating on either of these headings, the compass indicates a turn toward south.

Answer 33

Self-contained that uses magnets suspended in fluid and align with the earths magnetic field.

Answer 34

Some attitude indicators have limits in the banking plane from 100° to 110°, and the pitch limits can be from 60° to 70°. For those attitude indicators that display only pitch information of +/- 25° vertically, the instrument could "peg" (stop) and remain at this pitch indication until the pitch no longer exceeds limitation or "tumble" and provide erroneous pitch and bank indications when the aircraft exceeds these limits.

Answer 35

Very High omni directional Range. Line of site reception

Answer 36

108-117.95mhz excluding 108.1-111.95 odd tenths

Answer 37

10 degrees

Answer 38

T (Terminal) From 1,000 feet ATH up to and including 12,000 feet ATH at radial distances out to 25 NM. L (Low Altitude) From 1,000 feet ATH up to and including 18,000 feet ATH at radial distances out to 40 NM. H (High Altitude) From 1,000 feet ATH up to and including 14,500 feet ATH at radial distances out to 40 NM. From 14,500 ATH up to and including 60,000 feet at radial distances out to 100 NM. From 18,000 feet ATH up to and including 45,000 feet ATH at radial distances out to 130 NM. VL (VOR Low) From 1,000 feet ATH up to but not including 5,000 feet ATH at radial distances out to 40 NM. From 5,000 feet ATH up to but not including 18,000 feet ATH at radial distances out to 70 NM. VH (VOR High) From 1,000 feet ATH up to but not including 5,000 feet ATH at radial distances out to 40 NM. From 5,000 feet ATH up to but not including 14,500 feet ATH at radial distances out to 70 NM. From 14,500 ATH up to and including 60,000 feet at radial distances out to 100 NM. From 18,000 feet ATH up to and including 45,000 feet ATH at radial distances out to 130 NM.

Answer 39

Errors- Line of sight- nothing can be in the way Cone of confusion- short time over VOR it doesn’t know if to/from and cdi gets sensitive Night effect- does not reflect vhs Terrain- ground waves, magnetic radiation from sun bounced of terrain to cause false signals

Answer 40

Signal Transmission a/c equipment measures a phase difference between two signals reference signal-omni bearing phase signal- electronic rotating both of these are on the station receiver know the difference between the two signals and gives location

Answer 41

Every 30 days DEPS

Answer 42

A VOT is coded to emit the 360 Radial in all directions around the facility. This means the airplane’s VOR Receiver should read either: 360 FROM or 180 TO, regardless of the aircraft’s location in relation to the VOR. How the check is done: Tune and Identify the VOT. center the CDI Needle. Check for proper TO/FROM Indication. The radial selected must be within: +/- 4 degrees of 360 or 180.

Answer 43

Many airports have VOR checkpoint signs that are located near a taxiway, ramp or runup area. These signs indicate the exact point on the airport where there is sufficient signal strength from a VOR to check the aircraft's VOR receiver against the radial designated on the sign. To use a VOR checkpoint, simply follow the instructions on the sign. The maximum indicated bearing error is plus or minus 4 degrees

Answer 44

With a Dual VOR check, the airplane must be equipped with 2 VOR Receivers. How the check is done: The pilot tunes both VOR Receivers to the same VOR. The pilot centers both CDI Needles. Check for proper TO/FROM Indications. With both CDI Needles Centered: The Selected Radials should be within 4 degrees of each other.

Answer 45

Airborne VOR Check: VOR equipment can also be checked for accuracy in flight. To accomplish an airborne VOR check: Select a VOR radial that lies along the centerline of an established VOR airway. Select a prominent ground point along the selected radial preferably more than 20 nautical miles from the VOR ground facility and maneuver the aircraft directly over the point at a reasonably low altitude. Note the VOR bearing indicated by the receiver when over the ground point. The maximum indicated bearing error is plus or minus 6 degrees

Answer 46

s flight procedures and route structure based on VORs are gradually being replaced with Performance-Based Navigation (PBN) procedures, the FAA is removing selected VORs from service. PBN procedures are primarily enabled by GPS and its augmentation systems, collectively referred to as Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS). Aircraft that carry DME/DME equipment can also use RNAV which provides a backup to continue flying PBN during a GNSS disruption. For those aircraft that do not carry DME/DME, the FAA is retaining a limited network of VORs, called the VOR MON, to provide a basic conventional navigation service for operators to use if GNSS becomes unavailable. During a GNSS disruption, the MON will enable aircraft to navigate through the affected area or to a safe landing at a MON airport without reliance on GNSS. Navigation using the MON will not be as efficient as the new PBN route structure, but use of the MON will provide nearly continuous VOR signal coverage at 5,000 feet AGL across the NAS, outside of the Western U.S. Mountainous Area (WUSMA).

Answer 47

UHF 962-1213MHz

Answer 48

Normally tuned with VOR or LOC. The airborne DME unit transmits interogation signal and the ground facility replies, calculates slant range on reply time,

Answer 49

be one mile away or further for every 1000 feet of altitide

Answer 50

DL (DME Low) For altitudes up to 12,900 feet ATH at a radial distance corresponding to the LOS to the NAVAID. From 12,900 feet ATH up to but not including 18,000 feet ATH at radial distances out to 130 NM DH (DME High) For altitudes up to 12,900 feet ATH at a radial distance corresponding to the LOS to the NAVAID. From 12,900 ATH up to and including 60,000 feet at radial distances out to 100 NM. From 12,900 feet ATH up to and including 45,000 feet ATH at radial distances out to 130 NM

Answer 51

loc gs markers approaching lighting

Answer 52

lateral guidance. width between 3-6 degrees, so at threshold the width is 700 feet but depends on runway length 4 times more sensitive than a VOR, 2.5 degrees full deflection. 4 letter idents starting with an I must b tuned and Idenified On departure end of the runway

Answer 53

108.1-111.95 odd tenths 90 and 150 Hz frequencies carried over the VHF used to show lateral guidance

Answer 54

35 degrees each side of center line for 10 miles, 10 degrees out to 18 miles

Answer 55

The LDA is of comparable use and accuracy to a localizer but is not part of a complete ILS. The LDA course usually provides a more precise approach course than the similar Simplified Directional Facility (SDF) installation, which may have a course width of 6 or 12 degrees. The LDA is not aligned with the runway. Straight-in minimums may be published where alignment does not exceed 30 degrees between the course and runway. Circling minimums only are published where this alignment exceeds 30 degrees.

Answer 56

provides vertical guidance 3 degrees glideslope (standard) sometimes adjusted for obstacles or terrain Sensitiviety of .7 degrees up or down 1.4 degress full deflection Antenna found side of runway 250-500 from centerline 750-1250 feet down the runway Provides 55 feet at threshold crossing height Opposite of localizer 2 signals 90 hertz on right 150 hertz on left side False glideslope 150 hz side 6,9 12.5 degrees due to being bounced off the ground so always intercept slope from underneath. Don’t have to tune or ident glideslope Seervice Volume can be used up to 10 miles out

Answer 57

UHF 40 channels 329.3mhz -335mhz and pairs with LOC

Answer 58

is blue in cockpit (sometimes associated with final approach fix on nonprecison approaches ) 4-7 miles from the airport 400 hertz 2 dashes per second Must have outer marker (doesn’t have to be the actual outer marker must be something to cross and identify Received glideslope before outer marker

Answer 59

No longer needed is amber in cockpit 3000-6000 from threshold 1300hz faster blinks than outer marker 200ft above touchdown (DA)

Answer 60

The ILS was originally developed before DME was widely accessible. Because of that, marker beacons are sometimes included in an ILS approach. Each beacon designates a specific position on the approach, with an audible tone and/or visual light that illuminates in the cockpit.

Answer 61

white light in cockpit Used for Category 2 or 3 ILS with no published radio altitude 100 feet above the touchdown 3000hz faster than middle marker Blinks six dots per second

Answer 62

Compass locator transmitters are often situated at the MM and OM sites. The transmitters have a power of less than 25 watts, a range of at least 15 miles and operate between 190 and 535 kHz. At some locations, higher powered radio beacons, up to 400 watts, are used as OM compass locators. Compass locators transmit two letter identification groups. The outer locator transmits the first two letters of the localizer identification group, and the middle locator transmits the last two letters of the localizer identification group

Answer 63

Marker beacons (MB) use a carrier frequency of 75 MHz with an amplitude modulation (AM) depth of 95%. The frequency of the marker is configured using the Marker Frequency field, which can be 400 Hz for the outer marker, 1300 Hz for the middle marker, and 3000 Hz for the inner marker

Answer 64

White, 3000Hz indicates FAF on selected back course approaches and where a descent is commenced. Not apart of the ILS system

Answer 65

Decision Height (DH) 200 feet and Runway Visual Range (RVR) 2,400 feet (with touchdown zone and centerline lighting, RVR 1,800 feet), or (with Autopilot or FD or HUD, RVR 1,800 feet);

Answer 66

Inoperative localizer. When the localizer fails, an ILS approach is not authorized.

Answer 67

Inoperative glide slope. When the glide slope fails, the ILS reverts to a non-precision localizer approach.

Answer 68

During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, coded identification (or code and voice, where applicable) is removed from certain FAA NAVAIDs. Removal of identification serves as a warning to pilots that the facility is officially off the air for tune-up or repair and may be unreliable even though intermittent or constant signals are received.

Answer 69

ALS with Sequenced Flashers (ALSF-1) Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System (MALS) Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashers (MALSF) Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights (MALSR) Omnidirectional Approach Lighting System (ODALS) Visual Approach Slope Indicator(VASI) Precision Approach Path Indicator(PAPI)

Answer 70

provies visible means to transition from instruments to visual approach. Help estimate flight visibility

Answer 71

Landing threshold to approach area 2400-3000 feet long

Answer 72

Landing threshold to approach area 1400-1500 feet long

Answer 73

Global Navigations Satellite System

Answer 74

GPS Global positioning system

Answer 75

SPACE: 31 Navigation System using time and range Satellites- NAVSTAR Arranged in 6 orbital planes spaced 60 degrees apart, altitude of 11,000 feet. Orbit earth every 12 hours (move fast) At least 6 satellites in view at all times Mask Angle= satellite within 10 degrees of the horizon signal is weak Satellites equipped w/ atomic clock for precise timing Control: Operated by the US air force 50th space wing Ground based monitoring stations to 16 monitor stations , 11 ground Antennas, 1 master station, and 1 alternate station (WAAS) User Segment: Antenna and receiver on the aircraft Receiver will display position, velocity and time to destination. Must ensure satellite coverage and NOTAMS Handheld GPS is not IFR certified

Answer 76

Satellite sends signal to airplane and calculates time and knows distance from the satellite. This is a time solution. your location can be anywhere, so we need time solutions from multiple satellites to pinpoint location 3 satellites for 2D 4 satellites for 3D positioning. GPS receivers have RAIM to monitor the reliability of each satellite being used for position. This needs 5 satellites. A 6th is needed for fault detection and correction

Answer 77

Barometric aiding is an integrity augmentation that allows a GPS system to use a non-satellite input source (e.g. the aircraft pitot-static system) to provide vertical reference and reduces the number of required satellites from five to four. Baro-aiding requires four satellites and a barometric altimeter input to detect an integrity anomaly. The current altimeter setting may need to be entered into the receiver as described in the operating manual. Baro-aiding satisfies the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) requirement in lieu of a fifth satellite.

Answer 78

IN the U.S. we use WAAS. Wide area augmentation system uses ground stations( Wide area refrence stations (38 of them) and wide area master stations (3 of them)) to measure error and produce correction signals. The GPS satellites send a signal to a Wide area refrence station, which is a known location and compares it to the gps computed position. Then these signals are sent to a master station. Gives a message to uplink dishes and then are sent back to Geostationary satellites in space (different from the 24 GPS satellites) then to the GPS in the plane that has WAAS receiver along with the GPS satellites. This geostationary signal augments the signal so it improves accuracy, integrity, and availability monitoring. Accuracy can be 1 meter or less,non WAAS can be 5 meters

Answer 79

UNLESS WAAS EQUIPPED

Answer 80

uses barometric altitude information from the aircraft’s pitot-static system and air data computer to compute vertical guidance for the pilot. The specified vertical path is typically computed between two waypoints or an angle from a single way point. When using baro-VNAV guidance, the pilots should check for any published temperature limitations on the approach chart which may result in approach restrictions.

Answer 81

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring allows your airplane's GPS navigator to confirm that it's receiving a sufficient number of valid satellite signals to correctly determine its location and altitude, while rejecting any faulty signals from malfunctioning satellites. This assurance of positional integrity requires at least five functioning satellites in view. Various websites and applications confirm RAIM availability for our intended flight path and time. If RAIM is, or becomes unavailable, then GPS cannot be used for navigation

Answer 82

different approaches that can use lower minimums

Answer 83

lateranl navigation only non waas GPS approach mode is .3nm MDA and fly forward to MAP

Answer 84

Lateral navigation with advisory glideslope(get glidepath but its not approved to go below MDA) GPS approach mode is .3nm nonWAAS BUT WAAS created the glidepath So if you have WAAS it can create an advisory glidepath on an LNAV to create LNAV + V but its still on precision and have to meet step downs and the MDA and fly forward to the MAP NOT published on plates, the GPS tells you if vertical advisory is being used

Answer 85

Localizer performance WAAS approach approach mode .1nm (more precise) Has an MDA, fly down to then forward to MAP then go miss not a fall back from an LPV approach. LP approaches are only made when a glidepath isn’t possible due to obstacles

Answer 86

Localizer performance with advisory glidepath(not approved just created by the WAAS receiver) approach mode .1nm SO it has MDA, fly down to then forward to MAP then go miss glidepath shouldnt be flown use stepdowns

Answer 87

not obstacle clear to the runway if on advisory glidepath below the MDA can run into obstacles

Answer 88

WAAS approved glidepath Has a DA GO missed at DA Fallback is LNAV/VNAV then Lnav, not LP approach

Answer 89

Non WAAS LNAV/VNAV approaches don't have increasing angular guidance as you approach the runway. Instead, they're just like an LNAV only approach, decreasing to 0.3 NM sensitivity when you're within 2 miles of the final approach fix, all the way to the missed approach point They have approved vertical guidance SO they have a DA Vertical Navigation (VNAV) utilizes an internally generated glideslope based on the Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) OR baro-VNAV systems EXTERNAL FROM THE GPS. uses change in pressure to create a glide path

Answer 90

Area navigation types are: GPS VOR/DME RNAV DME/DME RNAV INertial Refrence Unit/System(IRU/IRS) GPS is a type of rnav system that is whyn GPS approaches say "RNAV(GPS)" Simply navigate through an area without going to actual stations like VORs

Answer 91

Performance-Based Navigation (PBN) is comprised of Area Navigation (RNAV) and Required Navigation Performance (RNP) and describes an aircraft's capability to navigate using performance standards Performance-Based Navigation (PBN) is a specification for describing how accurately an aircraft can navigate. Three components define an aircraft's PBN code. Crew alerting capabilities-RNAV or RNP? Sensor accuracy-PBN equipment must ensure the aircraft can navigate within some maximum width at least 95% of the time. Sensor type-what type of RNAV is it? (GPS,DME/DME, etc? IN an ICAO flight plan based on the PBN is an umbrella for everything RNAV

Answer 92

RNP is a PBN system that includes autonomous onboard performance monitoring and crew alerting capability if the performance isn't accurate(EX. RAIM) . Aircraft needs to meet requirements of PBN, a specified RNAV or RNP accuracy 95% of flight time.

Answer 93

cannot fly dont have equipment and/or authorization from the FAA on crew or plane RNAV GPS approaches are rnp approaches, the faa makes it confusing. our equipment still needs to make sure that it is accurate for 95% of time fore whatever equipment it is using

Answer 94

broadcasting information about an aircraft's GPS location, altitude, ground speed and other data to ground stations and other aircraft, once per second. Air traffic controllers and properly equipped aircraft can immediately receive this information

Answer 95

ADS-B In provides operators of properly equipped aircraft with weather and traffic position information delivered directly to the cockpit. ADS-B In-equipped aircraft have access to the graphical weather displays in the cockpit as well as text-based advisories, including Notices to Airmen and significant weather activity.

Answer 96

Mode C is the most widely used transponder mode. Mode C provides information on the aircraft’s pressure altitude. Combined with mode A, ATC and other aircraft can receive an aircraft’s unique squawk code, position, and altitude. This combination of mode A and mode C is normally just referred to as mode C

Answer 97

Mode S, short for “Mode Select,” is a type of transponder that offers more advanced communication capabilities than mode A or mode C transponders. When you use a mode S transponder, it transmits a variety of valuable information to ATC and other aircraft. Here’s a rundown of the critical data transmitted by a mode S transponder: Unique ICAO Address: Every aircraft has a unique ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) address assigned to it. Mode S transponders send this address, which helps ATC and other aircraft identify your specific aircraft. Squawk Code: Just like mode A, mode S transponders also transmit the four-digit squawk code assigned by ATC. Altitude: Similar to mode C, mode S transponders provide your aircraft’s altitude. Position, Speed, and Heading: Mode S transponders can also send your aircraft’s GPS-based position, speed, and heading, which helps ATC and nearby aircraft know your location and direction of travel. Additional Flight-Related Data: Depending on the transponder’s capabilities, it can transmit other flight-related information, such as intent data, which provides ATC with a better understanding of your planned flight maneuvers. For example, some mode S transponders can transmit the selected heading on your autopilot. If ATC notices that you have the wrong heading set, they may be able to warn you. But there are two more systems that make mode S transponders incredibly valuable. They’re called Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems (TCAS) and Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B). These systems improve situational awareness and help prevent mid-air collisions by allowing aircraft to share their positions and other relevant information with each other. This way, pilots can get warnings if aircraft get too close to each other, even if ATC doesn’t notice.

Answer 98

is a pilot's manual that provides detailed information on airports. More info that isn't on the sectional. frequncies, hours, notes, navaids, etc.

Answer 99

ENROUTE- +- 2 nmiles Terminal +- 1 nmiles Approach (2nm from the FAF) +-.3 nm

Answer 100

CDI sensitivity with gps with no WAAS ENROUTE- +- 5 nmiles Terminal +- 1 nmiles Approach (2nm from the FAF) +-.3 nm, Missed Approach +- 1 nm

Answer 101

With no RAIM Pilot has no reassurance of GPS accuracy. NO RAIM= NO APPROACH If RAIM failure happens before FAF or before approach mode we know not to proceed approach go miss Failure after FAF can proceed for up to 5 minutes Yellow LOI on G1000

Answer 102

skip raim check, use GPS as primary means of navigation

Answer 103

They do the same thing but not the same. own things.

Answer 104

Can use a GPS only airport

Answer 105

LPV. The GPS appraoch you select in the HSI it will show you what to show. Purple LPV in the HSI

Answer 106

2 miles. HSI says ENR 1 Mile HSI says TERM .3 miles. HSI says APP(2nm from FAF)

Answer 107

just a RNAV system does not have the capability to verify its accuracy or tell you if it isnt. WAAS or RAIM is RNP because it shows messages if accuracy is bad. Old airliners with ring laser gyros are just RNAV because over time the accuracy degreades but the system doesn't detect it or have a way to tell you.

Answer 108

It looks at what RNP value it can do, the most accurate one based on what it can do and what satellites it has.