PTM Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The minimum pavement width for a 180* turn with a 5 foot margin of safety is

A

58ft

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2
Q

The aircraft may be towed up to a limit of ___________ of nosewheel angle with the torque links connected and the nosewheel steering control system deenergized

A

120*

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3
Q

At what degree of nosewheel angle will the nose landing gear swivel pins shear?

A

123

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4
Q

How is the passenger doors normally closed?

A

Electrically

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5
Q

The purpose of the vent flap is the cabin door handle is

A

To equalize cabin pressure to ambient pressure

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6
Q

Under what condition does a PASSENGER DOOOR cation CAS message display when the aircraft is in the ground and the door is not fully secured

A

The left engine RUN switch is in the RUN position

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7
Q

Under what condition does the PASSENGER DOOR caution CAS message display when the aircraft is in flight?

A

The passenger door rollers are not fully engaged into the fitting guides

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8
Q

What is the indication if the aircraft is on the ground and the cargo door is open

A

With the left engine run switch in RUN, a CARGO DOOR caution CAS message is displayed

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9
Q

The AC inverters provide power for

A

Passenger convenience only

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10
Q

Individual battery voltage can be read on

A

The electrical synoptic page

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11
Q

The generators come online

A

Automatically with the engines running and and ground power deactivated

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12
Q

The auxiliary buses are load shed when

A

In flight, with only one generator operative

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13
Q

What buses will remain powered during loss of all generators in flight

A

The essential and battery buses

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14
Q

When does the green AVAIL light illuminate on the electrical control panel?

A

When the GPU Voltage and polarity is correct

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15
Q

Selecting the battery switch to the on position

A

Connects the batteries to their respective essential buses

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16
Q

The DC power centers provide the following

A

Powered loads in the aft section of the aircraft, electronic logic for load shedding, and control and re-configure the distribution system in response to manual switching, or when a fault occurs.

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17
Q

The secondary power centers provide power for the following

A

Cockpit circuit breaker panel, loads in the front section of the aircraft, the circuit breaker panels on the equipment rack

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18
Q

When armed, when do the emergency lights come automatically

A

When right main bus power is lost

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19
Q

Emergency lighting will last a minimum of

A

10 minutes at critical ambient temperature (low temperature)

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20
Q

Power is normally supplied to the standby instrument lighting by

A

The left main bus

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21
Q

If power to the standby instrument lights normal source is lost, standby lights are automatically switched to

A

The right essential bus

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22
Q

What powers the emergency lights?

A

Two independent rechargeable battery packs

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23
Q

The cabin entry/exit door light switch is powered by

A

The left battery bus regardless of the battery switch position

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24
Q

The secondary navigation light is selected on the

A

Right avionics rack CB panel

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25
Q

The engine indicating and crew alerting system (EICAS) provides all of the following

A

Automatic system monitoring, aural alert warning messages, and integration of system information

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26
Q

What denotes normal status of a component or not flow through the line?

A

White

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27
Q

What denotes component failure(no flow, energy, or pressure)

A

Amber

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28
Q

On the synoptic page display, a parameter that exceeds the established limits changes the indication to what color

A

Red

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29
Q

Which EICAS messages are accompanied by a single chime and flashing master caution lights

A

Caution (amber)

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30
Q

Which EICAS messages require prompt action

A

Caution (amber)

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31
Q

How are CAS messages prioritized on the MFD display

A

By order of importance and order of occurrence

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32
Q

Selected EICAS messages are inhibited for takeoff when

A

Airspeed is above 80 knots and continues until aircraft reaches 400 ft AGL or one minute elapses

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33
Q

How does the pilot select a synoptic page to display on an MFD

A

By selecting the individual system switch in the MFD control panel (MCP)

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34
Q

The aural warning panel is located

A

On the right aft cockpit bulkhead above the CB panel

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35
Q

All fuel supplied to the engines come from the

A

The collector tanks

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36
Q

How is fuel supplied to the APU

A

The right main ejector or the right electric fuel pump takes fuel from the right collector tank

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37
Q

What is the function of the surge bay

A

To provide additional expansion volume for the vent system

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38
Q

What operates the main ejectors

A

Motive flow from the engine-driven fuel pumps

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39
Q

The FUEL BALANCED status (white) CAS message is displayed when

A

Fuel is balanced within 100 lbs and the XFER valve is open

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40
Q

With more then 13,700 lbs of fuel, fuel balance must be maintained with

A

250 lbs

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41
Q

Single point pressure refueling is limited to

A

55 psig

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42
Q

What are some of the functions of the the Honeywell 36-150BD APU

A

Automatic fault detection, automatic and remote shutdown, and automatic fire extinguishing

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43
Q

The primary function of the APU is

A

To provide power for the gear box mounted generator

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44
Q

The APU emergency shut off switch is located

A

Right side, aft of the wing, adjacent to the external power connector

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45
Q

The ________ controls airflow to the bleed system and protects the APU from an over temp condition

A

APU bleed valve

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46
Q

When does the ECU command the APU surge control valve to open

A

When the APU is supplying electrical loads a flight altitudes above 15,000ft

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47
Q

An APU warning (red) CAS message on the ground

A

Will automatically shut the APU down and activate the fire extinguisher

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48
Q

Above what altitude will the APU BLEED ALT LIMIT caution (amber) CAS message be displayed

A

Above 20,000ft

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49
Q

Normal takeoff thrust flat rates to ISA +15*C at sea level for Honeywell AS 907 engine is

A

7,372 lbs

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50
Q

The engine run/off switch’s perform what functions

A

Activates ignition system, position the starter control valve open, turn on the fuel DC boost-pump

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51
Q

During normal start cycle, engine rotation is achieved by

A

Bleed air pressure from the APU, opposite engine bleed air, or external air cart

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52
Q

During normal start sequence, when does the start valve close and the ATS (air turbine starter) disengage

A

55.0% N2

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53
Q

What are the maximum consecutive start cycles allowed prior to to a required 15 min cooling period

A

3

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54
Q

How long must the engine be motored after an aborted engine start

A

30 sec

55
Q

APR thrust is indicated in the associated N1 gage by

A

Cyan APR icon

56
Q

When low engine oil pressure is detected the digital readout changes to

A

Red

57
Q

When N1 or N2 sync is selected, the engines are synchronized if both engines are in the CRZ or CLB rating and the N1 difference between the two engine is within ____ %

A

5%

58
Q

Manually selecting the ignition switch to ON is recommended

A

During flight through moderate or heavy intensity turbulence

59
Q

What are the cockpit indications for a normal TR deployment

A

White REV icon followed by a green REV icon

60
Q

What are some of the functions of the fire protection system

A

Fire detection in the engine and APU, overheat detection in the main landing gear bay, fire extinguishing capabilities for the engine and APU

61
Q

The engines and APU are fitted with dual fire detection loops. The loops and connected to the

A

FIREX control

62
Q

The electronic fire detection and extinguishing control unit (FIREX-CU) is in

A

The aft equipment bay

63
Q

If fire is detected in an engine, what occurs

A

Affected L/R FIRE switches illuminate, master warning light illuminates, master warning chimes

64
Q

The APU fire detection system

A

Detects an overheat condition within the APU enclosure

65
Q

The main landing gear bay is protected

A

By a single overheat detection loop

66
Q

The pneumatic system provides high pressure air for

A

Wing anti ice

67
Q

The high pressure valve limits engine discharge pressure to

A

45+- psi

68
Q

The IP valve are closed when

A

Power is lost to the valves

69
Q

The source of the bleed air for takeoff and landing is normally

A

APU Bleed

70
Q

During climb the sequence to switch to engine bleed air is

A

X BLEED closed
L BLEED on
APU BLEED off
R BLEED on

71
Q

What is monitored by dual-sensing loops

A

Pack ducts
Bleed air ducts in engine pylons
Anti-ice ducts

72
Q

A BLEED LOOP FAIL CAS message indicates

A

Both loops of the dual loop zone are INOP

73
Q

Channel B if IASC monitors what

A

Bleed leak detection monitoring and control

74
Q

The challenger 350 has how many ice detectors

A

2

75
Q

What EICAS message will be displayed when the anti ice systems are ON and ice is detected

A

ICE DETECTED advisory (cyan) CAS message

76
Q

What EICAS message will be displayed when the anti ice systems are OFF and ice is detected

A

ICE DETECTED caution (amber)

77
Q

What is not tested during the ICE DET system check

A

Ice detector prob heater

78
Q

The wing anti ice valves are

A

Spring loaded to the closed position

79
Q

The wing cross bleed valve is

A

Normally closed

80
Q

What source of bleed air is recommended for AC during ground operation

A

APU

81
Q

The APU provides bleed air for air conditioning in flight up to

A

20,000ft

82
Q

When the start switch is selected, the flow control valves

A

Automatically close to shut down the air conditioning system

83
Q

RAM AIR can be used to open the ram air valve to ventilate the cabin

A

Below 10,000ft

84
Q

The primary source of air conditioning in the challenger 350 is

A

PACK air

85
Q

What is the function of the AIR SOURCE selector

A

To control the position of the flow control valves

86
Q

The pressurization system has how many independent modes of operation

A

3

87
Q

The purpose of the safety valves is

A

To provide over pressure and negative pressure relief

88
Q

When LNDG ALT is set automatically from the FMS destination airport database is will be displayed in what color on the EICAS

A

Magenta

89
Q

Pressing EMER DEPRESS during AUTO mode will depressurize the aircraft up to the aircraft altitude whichever is lower

A

At 2500 fpm up to 14,000 ft +- 100ft

90
Q

What is true about ditching

A

Ditching depressurizes the cabin
It’s inhibited above 15,000ft
Keeps the OFV closed in the event of a water landing

91
Q

In the “takeoff and return to base pressurization sequence”

A

The landing field elevation must be set through the FMS departure airport database

92
Q

The maximum differential pressure allowed for landing is

A

1 psid

93
Q

A CABIN DELTA P warning (red) CAS message indicates

A

A cabin differential pressure greater then 9.2 or less then -0.5

94
Q

What are some of the functions of of the pressurization control panel

A

Switching to manual control of the cabin pressure when automatic control fails, control cabin pressure altitude rate in manual mode, depressurization of the cabin to evacuate smoke or fume in an emergency

95
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU

A

Gear retraction when the left EDP is not operational

96
Q

The hydraulic fire wall shutoff valves are

A

normally open

97
Q

The Aux hydroelectric system provides hydraulic system pressure to the rudder when

A

There is a loss of hydraulic power from the right system

98
Q

The left DCMP is powered by the

A

Right main DC bus

99
Q

Normal hydraulic system pressure is

A

3000 psi

100
Q

The DCMPs

A

Are capable of providing sufficient hydraulic pressure on their own

101
Q

Nosewheel steering is actuated by

A

The left hydraulic system

102
Q

The nose landing gear is center

A

Electronically by the steering control unit (SCU)

103
Q

The speed limitation for all tires is

A

182 kts

104
Q

Rudder pressure commands nosewheel steering up to________* in either direction

A

7

105
Q

The landing gear system is electronically controlled by

A

The proximity sensing system

106
Q

The main landing gear is held in the up and locked position by

A

Mechanical unlocks

107
Q

Nose wheel steering using the tiller is limited to

A

65* either side of center

108
Q

In case of failure of both the left and right hydraulic systems, accumulators in both the hydraulic breaks systems provide pressure for

A

At least 6 break applications

109
Q

Horizontal stab trim range of movement is

A

0 - 15*

110
Q

Normal flap extension from 0 to 30 degrees should not exceed

A

20 seconds

111
Q

Multifunction spoilers extend to any position up to

A

45*

112
Q

Which of the primary flight controls are not hydraulically assisted

A

Ailerons

113
Q

Which if the spoiler panels operate as multifunction spoilers

A

The 2 outboard panels

114
Q

When disconnected, the roll disconnect mechanism

A

Allows the left pilot to control roll spoilers

115
Q

When engaged the gust lock

A

prevents damage to the aileron surfaces from wind gust

116
Q

What are some of the functions of the rudder system

A

Trapped hydraulic fluid provides rudder gust lock dampening, a rudder control unit supplies simulated pedal load to the crew, a full scale deflection on the rudder position synoptic corresponds to maximum rudder travel

117
Q

The primary pitot static system supports

A

Air data computers 1 and 2

118
Q

The altimeter barometer knob is located on the

A

Compass panel just above each pilots radio panel

119
Q

By selecting the ADC reversion switch to the #1 position

A

Both PFDs receive data from only air data computer 1

120
Q

What is interfaced with the inertial reference system

A

Stall protection system
Weather radar
Terrain awareness warning system

121
Q

Crew control of the EFIS system consists of

A

Pilot and copilot display control panels and a single flight guidance panel on the glare shield

122
Q

The slip/skid indicator is

A

A small rectangle below the roll Pointer driven by the lateral acceleration

123
Q

The airspeed trend vector

A

Indicates the airspeed predicted in the next 10 sec

124
Q

VOR/localizer displays on the horizontal situation indicator are

A

Green pointer or CDI for the onside information, amber for cross side information

125
Q

The autopilot engagement indication is

A

A green AP on the top of the PFD

126
Q

The flight guidance mode goes to half bank automatically when

A

Climbing through 31,600ft

127
Q

To automatically tune COM1 to 121.5

A

Select the tune reversion switch to the COM1 121.5 position

128
Q

The default lateral mode of flight director is

A

ROLL

129
Q

What are all the ways autopilot may be disconnected

A

Pressing TOGO
Pressing the AP button the FGP
Lowering the AP/YD DISC bar on The FGP

130
Q

Manually entered data is depicted on the flight display in ______ and FMS supplied data is depicted in _______

A

Cyan/magenta

131
Q

Under normal operation the oxygen system delivers oxygen from the cylinder directly to

A

The EPAV

132
Q

When fully charged, oxygen system pressure should be

A

1850 psi

133
Q

The oxygen service point is located

A

On the right side of the fuselage directly aft of the wing

134
Q

What mush the flight crew members do if a fire extinguisher is discharged In the flight compartment

A

All flight crew must wear oxygen mask with EMERGENCY selected