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CL350 > Ground School Study Questions > Flashcards

Ground School Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The aircraft may be towed up to a limit of _______ degrees of nose wheel center with the torque like connected and the nose wheel steering control disconnected

A

120*

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2
Q

Which doors are monitored by the door warning system

A

M - main door
E - emergency exit
C - cargo door
A - aft equipment door
B - battery door

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3
Q

What happens when you turn the batteries on?

A

CVR starts recording
BIT test
IRS alignment
All busses powered

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4
Q

What is the primary function of the APU

A

Provide electric power for the aircraft

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5
Q

Where does the APU receive its fuel

A

Right collector tank

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6
Q

Under what condition does a passenger door caution (amber) CAS message display when the aircraft is on the ground and the door is not fully secured

A

When the left engine run switch is set to run

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7
Q

What is the maximum fuel quantity with pressure fueling

A

14150 lbs

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8
Q

What is normal TO thrust flat rated to ISA 15* C at sea level

A

7372

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9
Q

Which EICAS messages require prompt action

A

Amber

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10
Q

What color CAS message denotes failure of component or no flow, energy or pressure

A

Amber

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11
Q

What engines does the 350 have

A

HTF7350
(Honeywell turbofan 7000 series on the 350)

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12
Q

What is the max cabin altitude

A

7850 @FL450

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13
Q

What happens if nosewheel is turned to 120*

A

CAS message

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14
Q

What happens if the nosewheel is turned to 123*

A

Damage to sheer pin

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15
Q

What is the aircraft dimensions

A

W 69ft
L 69ft
H 20 ft

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16
Q

What is connected to the right battery?

A

Fuel panel

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17
Q

What is connected to the left battery

A

Lights

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18
Q

How many way are there to close the main door

A

2

Buttons
Hand crack/Lully

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19
Q

What must be done if baggage door is closed from the inside

A

Verify the button is popped back out and flush on the handle on the exterior

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20
Q

What are you looking for in the stall rudder limiter test

A

Red STALL on both PFDs
L/R stick shaker
Pusher is activated
White CAS RUDDER LIMITER IN TEST
red LSC on both PFDs
Flashing red AOA

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21
Q

How long does the standby instrument back up battery last for

A

3.5 hours

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22
Q

How long does the IRS aligning take

A

A few minutes depends on location in the world; the farther north/south from the equator you are

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23
Q

Why is the right battery selected first when powering the aircraft

A

Prevent inadvertent APU start

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24
Q

Red CAS message require _____ action

A

Immediate

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25
Q

Amber CAS message require _______ action

A

Prompt

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26
Q

What does cyan CAS message mean

A

Aircraft has automatically done something for you

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27
Q

What does a white CAS message mean

A

You have manually done something to the aircraft

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28
Q

How can you tell the difference between the taxi and landing light

A

Taxi light is fogged
Landing light is clear

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29
Q

What are the doors by the right wing root

A

Refueling panel
Single point connection door
Outflow valves door

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30
Q

What are the large fin like antennas on top/bottom of the aircraft for

A

VHF
top = com1 & 3
Bottom = com2

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31
Q

How many static wicks can be missing from each group

A

1

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32
Q

What is apart of the right aileron? The left aileron

A

Right - balance anti servo tab
Left - balance anti servo tab and trim tab

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33
Q

What doors must remain unlocked during flight

A

CABO

Cargo
Aft equipment
Battery
Outflow value

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34
Q

When does the emergency lights turn on

A

When power to the right main bus is lost

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35
Q

Where would you look to find the required oxygen quantities for a flight

A

QRH Volume 1

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36
Q

What causes the FDR to start recording

A

When the STROBE BCN is selected to any position or WOW

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37
Q

When the emergency lights are armed, when will they illuminate

A

Right main bus power is lost

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38
Q

Which fuel tanks supply fuel to the engine

A

The collector tanks

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39
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU

A

Retracts the landing gear when the left EDP (engine driven hydraulic pump) system fails

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40
Q

What electronically controls the landing gear system

A

The proximity sensing electronic unit PSEU

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41
Q

What is the only primary flight control system that is not hydraulically assisted

A

Ailerons

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42
Q

Which spoilers operates as multi function spoilers

A

The 2 outbound spoilers on each wing

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43
Q

Select EICAS messages are inhibited when

A

TO above 80kts until 400ft agl
Landing below 400ft agl and lower then then 40kts

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44
Q

Max operating speeds of flaps

A

10 - 210
20 - 210
30 - 175

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45
Q

When will the bus tie open

A

3 gens operating
2 gens operating
Forced open

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46
Q

When will the auxiliary busses load shed

A

In flight with only one generator operative

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47
Q

Dual fire protection loops in the engine and APU provide info to what component

A

FIREX-CU
Fire detection and extinguishing control unit

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48
Q

During climb out what is the correct button sequence to transfer to the engine bleeds from the APU bleeds

A

X bleed
Left bleed
APU bleed
Right bleed

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49
Q

When the air source selector switch is selected to trim air only which valves open and which valves close

A

right FCV opens
Left FCV closes
PCV closes

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50
Q

What does the CABIN DELTA P warning CAS message indicate

A

Cabin differential pressure is greater then 9.2 or less then -0.5

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51
Q

Until what point is the TO and return to base sequence active in the pressurization system

A

Until 1 of the following occurs
• aircraft reaches 6000ft above TO elevation
•10 mins elapse

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52
Q

What is the maximum delta p permitted for landing

A

1.0

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53
Q

When crossing the holding fix for a hold manually entered into the FMS what would be displayed at the bottom of the legs page

A

EXIT HOLD

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54
Q

What kind of batteries does the aircraft have

A

2 24 volt 44 amp hour nicad batteries

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55
Q

What is normal fuel reserve

A

1850

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56
Q

What fuel quantity would constitute a fuel emergency

A

1300

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57
Q

What fuel load is required for inclement wx

A

6000

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58
Q

What is the hot spare fuel load

A

6000

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59
Q

When does yaw damp automatically turn on

A

31,600

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60
Q

When is yaw damp required to be on by

A

31,000

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61
Q

What is our climb speed schedule

A

250kts below 10,000
280kts above 10,000

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62
Q

What is Vmo

A

300 below 8,000
320 above 8,000

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63
Q

When yaw damp is selected ON when will it automatically turn off

A

Takeoff roll above 60kts to WOW

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64
Q

What is the brains of the landing gear

A

PSEU
Proximity sensor electronic unit

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65
Q

What hydraulic system controls the gear

A

The left system

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66
Q

How many quarts of fluid does each hydraulic system hold

A

L 13
R 9.1

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67
Q

Where does the PTU get its fluid from and provide pressure

A

Fluid from the right system and provides pressure to the left system

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68
Q

Max alt for APU bleed

A

20,000

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69
Q

Max alt for APU gen

A

30,000

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70
Q

Max alt for APU

A

37,000

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71
Q

Max alt for APU start

A

30,000

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72
Q

Max airspeed for APU start

A

285

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73
Q

What is required for any valve to open

A

Some sort of flow and electrical signal

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74
Q

What happens when the engine run switch is selected to run

A

Activates ignition system
Turns on DC fuel pump
Position starter control valve to open

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75
Q

What is the fuel imbalances

A

250 lb imbalance with more then 13,700lbs
600lb imbalance with less then 4000lbs

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76
Q

What are the functions of the primary Stab trim system

A

Mach trim
Configure trim
* variable rate pitch trim

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77
Q

Which Stab trim does the autopilot not work with

A

Secondary trim system

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78
Q

What does approach made do

A

NAV to NAV transfer - auto switch from pink needles to green needles on ILS
Find and follow GS or GP

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79
Q

When shooting an RNAV what also needs to be active for GP to be captured

A

VNAV

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80
Q

What system doesn’t have hydraulic redundancy

A

Gear

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81
Q

What is the bulk fuel temp limit

A

50*C

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82
Q

What are the requirements if fuel temp is between 45c and 49c

A

Must have at least 2800lbs if fuel
If a tank drops below 1000lbs that engine can only run for 30 more minutes

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83
Q

When will the hydraulic shutoff valves auto close

A

When hydraulic fluid temp reaches 135*c

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84
Q

What bus powers the right DCMP

A

Left essential buss

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85
Q

What powers the left DCMP

A

Right main bus

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86
Q

What are the spoiler limitations

A

Vref+8
Below 500ft agl

87
Q

When max spoilers are selected, what spoilers are deployed

A

1 and 8

88
Q

What spoilers deploy when EMER spoilers are selected

A

1,2,7,8

89
Q

How far do the multi function spoilers deploy

A

45*

90
Q

How far do the ground spoilers deploy

A

60*

91
Q

What happened if the landing alt is higher then max cabin alt

A

Caution and warning gates change

92
Q

What is apart if the TO configuration warning system

A

Parking break
Roll/pitch disconnect
Any trim out of the green
Flaps not in TO config
Spoilers out
Autopilot on

93
Q

When does the TO configuration system do it’s logic check

A

When thrust levers in climb or TO detent

94
Q

How long can the thrust levers be in TO

A

5 min

95
Q

How long can thrust levers be in APR

A

5 mins

96
Q

What needs to happen for auto APR to activate

A

15% N2 split on TO
Gear down

Flaps greater then 27 for single engine go around

97
Q

What needs to happen for auto APR to arm

A

Thrust levers in TO detent

98
Q

When do you get a cabin alt caution

A

8500

99
Q

When do you get a cabin alt warning

A

9400

100
Q

Max delt p

A

9.2
-0.5

101
Q

How many pressurization valves does the aircraft have

A

3
Outflow
Over pressure
Negative pressure

102
Q

What is the structural limit for delta P

A

9.4

103
Q

What does the manual rate knob control

A

Cabin rate
Outflow valve
Cabin alt

104
Q

What is the brains of the pressurization system

A

Integrated air system controller IASC

105
Q

What happens when the ditching button is pressed

A

Depress cabin
Outflow valve closes
Environmental flow control valve closes

106
Q

When is the ditching button available

A

Below 15000 ft

107
Q

If In auto or manual made how does the cabin depress and to what alt

A

Auto 14000 2500fpm
Manual 14500 3000fpm

108
Q

Do the tow breaks work if complete loss of hydraulics

A

Yes one application of toe breaks

109
Q

What are the breaks made of

A

Carbon fiber

110
Q

Does the emergency breaks have anti skid

A

No

111
Q

What is the min pavement width required to make a 180 turn with a 5ft safety margin

A

58 ft

112
Q

What is the purpose of the scavenger ejectors

A

Replenish fuel from wing tank to collector tank
Lowest inboard point of each wing

113
Q

For what system does the pneumatic system use HP air

A

Wing anti ice

114
Q

How many ice detectors are required to generate an ICE DETECTED CAS message

A

1

115
Q

What do the outboard temp sensors measure

A

Leading edge for insufficient temperature

116
Q

What EICAS message will be displayed when the anti ice systems are off and detected

A

Amber ICE DETECTED

117
Q

How long must the engine be cranked for after an aborted start

A

30 sec

118
Q

At and below what temp must engine anti ice on for ground ops when surface is contaminated

A

10c or below

119
Q

When does wing and engine anti ice have to be on while on the ground while on contaminated surfaces

A

10* C and below Engine anti ice on
5* C and below wing and engine anti ice on

120
Q

After type 4 application when do you turn in wing anti ice

A

Right before departure

121
Q

When is anti ice turned on in flight?

A

I’m icing conditions TAT 10C to -40C
If airspeed is below 210knts

122
Q

What happens if ice detected with anti ice on

A

Cyan ice detected cas message

123
Q

What happens if Ice detected while anti ice not on

A

Amber ice detected cas message

124
Q

When does anti skid provide protection

A

Above 10 kts

125
Q

Min OAT for TO

A

-40c

126
Q

Min battery temp for TO

A

-20*C

127
Q

What does the pack do

A

Provide cold air

128
Q

What does the trim air do

A

Provide warm air

129
Q

What does the air source selector control

A

Flow control valves for pack and trim air

130
Q

What is the auto temperature range

A

15-35*

131
Q

What is the auto temp range

A

3-70*

132
Q

Is the APU bleed air HP or IP

A

Ip

133
Q

What is HP air used for

A

Wing and engine anti ice

134
Q

What bleed air source is used for environmental control

A

IP

135
Q

If a complete electrical failure occurs how does the anti ice valves fail?

A

Engine anti ice fails open
All other fail closed

136
Q

What is the brains of the avionics

A

IAPS

137
Q

What is the Brains of the fire detection and extinguishing

A

FIREX-CU

138
Q

What happens when engine fire occurs

A

Aural “engine fire”
L/R fire button lights illuminate
Extinguishing light 1 and 2 illuminate
Triple chime
Fire CAS
“FIRE” in N1 gage

139
Q

What happens when APU fire occurs

A

APU fire light
Fire extinguisher 2 light
Triple chime
Aural APU fire
APU fire CAS

140
Q

Where do we have fire detection

A

Engine
APU
Cargo compartment
Wheel well

141
Q

How many handheld fire extinguisher are on the aircraft and where are they

A

3
Cockpit
Closet
Lav

142
Q

What happens when L/R fire button is pressed

A

Squibs are armed
Fuel SOV close
Hydraulic SOV close
Bleed SOV close
Generator turns off
Extinguishing lights illuminate
FADEC command engine shut down

143
Q

What happens when APU fire button is pressed

A

Squibs are armed
Fuel SOV close
Bleed SOV close
Generator turns off
Extinguishing 2 light illuminate
ECU commands APU shut down

144
Q

Do you need both loops of a dual loop fire detection loop to detect a fire for fire signal to be set

A

2 if both loops are operational
1 if one loop fails

145
Q

Where do we have dual loop fire protection and where do we have single loop protection

A

Dual loop in both engines and APU
Wheel well single loop

146
Q

How many igniters are in each engine

A

2

147
Q

When is it recommended to manually select the ignitions switch to ON

A

During flight through moderate or heavy intensity turbulence

148
Q

How many ice detectors are installed on the aircraft

A

2

149
Q

In what mode is the ditching switch available

A

Auto mode

150
Q

Where is the fuel/hydraulic heat exchanger

A

In the wing fuel tank

151
Q

What is the power source for left DCMP

A

Right main bus

152
Q

How long will the emergency lights remain illuminated at ambient temperature

A

10 mins at critical ambient temps

153
Q

What is the purpose of the safety valves

A

Prevent over pressurization and negative pressures conditions

154
Q

What is the battery life if the standby instruments

A

3.5 hours

155
Q

In what unit is the oxygen quantity displayed to the crew

A

Liters

156
Q

At what cabin altitude will the EPAV cause the passenger oxygen masks to automatically deploy

A

14,500
Auto mode allows flow of oxygen until cabin alt is below 9500

157
Q

What PSI is a fully charged oxygen system

A

1850

158
Q

What is the duration of the batteries in the event of a total loss of generator power

A

1 hour

159
Q

When manual mode is selected on the pressurization panel the pilot is controlling what

A

Manual Control of the outflow valve

160
Q

Where is the oxygen service point located

A

Right side of the fuselage, directly forward of the right engine

161
Q

What is the amp limit while on the ground for APU gen

A

400

162
Q

What is the amp limit with 1 gen inflight

A

500
600 for 5 min

163
Q

What is the limitation for the air source selector switch

A

Do not select trim air on the ground

164
Q

If the aircraft is on the ground powered for 30 min or more when temp is 40*C or higher what must happen

A

Aircraft must be air condition

165
Q

When should the igniter’s manually be turned on

A

TRCT
thunderstorms
Rain/ any moderate precipitation
Turbulence
Contaminated runways

166
Q

What is the PMA

A

Permanent magnetic alternator
Provides power to the FADEC system is case of complete electrical failure

167
Q

When does the PMA provide enough power to the FADEC

A

At idle thrust

168
Q

What is the single engine limit APR limitation

A

10 min

169
Q

When are the DCMPs automatically turned on

A

Low hydraulic pressure
Flaps set 10 or greater

170
Q

When are both igniters on

A

Manually turned on
Engine flame out
High AOA

171
Q

How many air data computers the aircraft have?

A

2

172
Q

Max oxygen quantity liters and PSI

A

1850 psi
About 5400 liters

173
Q

What is the brains of the oxygen system

A

EPAV

174
Q

What are some concerns with the therapeutic oxygen

A

The oxygen is provided by the same bottle as crew O2. Oxygen charts don’t account for its use

175
Q

What happens to the oxygen system if a complete electrical failure

A

The crew o2 valve fails open to ensure mask have oxygen flow

176
Q

Where are the oxygen bottles located

A

In the lav

177
Q

What is function of the HF?

A

It has auto tune

178
Q

What is needed for an oceanic clearance

A

Route
Altitude
Mach speed

179
Q

What are some of the items on the auxiliary bus

A

Microwave
Cockpit foot heaters
Pax convinces

180
Q

Where are the safety valves

A

Rear pressure bulkhead

181
Q

Where are CB panels 1&2

A

In the cockpit

182
Q

Where CB panels 3&4

A

I’m the galley by the main entrance

183
Q

Which CB are in the right side of the aircraft

A

2&4

184
Q

Which CB panels are on the left side of the aircraft

A

1&3

185
Q

What Kind of system does the electrical system prefer

A

Split bus system

186
Q

Can you force close bus ties closes

A

No, can be forced open

187
Q

What are the generator amp limits

A

400 on ground
400 inflight more then 1 gen
500 in flight 1 gen
600 max in flight for 5 min 1 gen

188
Q

What kind of landing gear does the aircraft have

A

Trailing link landing gear

189
Q

What happens when the manual gear extension is pulled

A

Unlocks are released
Accumulator is fired - good for 30 min from time of complete hydraulic failure

190
Q

Does the anti skid work if complete hydraulic failure

A

Yes 1 anti skid cycle in normal break accumulator

191
Q

How many EMER break applications are stored in the accumulator

A

6

192
Q

What does a cyan L/R EMGINE FAULT CAS mean

A

1 of the FADEC channels on that side has failed

193
Q

What controls the T2 probe heat

A

Engine A/I

194
Q

Which spoilers are on the right hydraulic system

A

1,3,6,8

195
Q

Which spoilers are on the left hydraulic system

A

2,4,5,7

196
Q

What else in the battery compartment

A

Hydraulic pressure gage

197
Q

Which tab on the left aileron is the trim tab

A

Inboard tab

198
Q

where all does RAM airflow go

A

Cabin
PAC
Precooler

199
Q

What are the dangers areas of the aircraft when engines/APU are running

A

15ft forward of engine intake
200ft aft of engine exhaust at idle
400ft aft of engine exhaust at TO
19 ft aft of APU exhaust

200
Q

How far can the nose wheel go either side of center with the tiller

A

65*

201
Q

When does the main cabin door Motor need to be cooled

A

After 3 door actuations in 3 mins needs to be cooled for 5 min

202
Q

Thrust reverser limitations

A

Ground ops on paved surfaces
Do not deploy inflight
Do not back up the aircraft
Do not deploy in touch and goes
Reverse thrust above idle below 40 knots

203
Q

How many degrees does the of steering does just the rudder pedals have

A

7

204
Q

How May static wicks are on the airplane

A

26

205
Q

How is the electrical power distributed through the aircraft

A

3 DC power controllers
2 secondary power controls

206
Q

What is shed inflight when you go down to one gen

A

Aux busses

207
Q

Will the batteries auto disconnect

A

Yes at 70 degrees C

208
Q

What is the HP regulated at

A

36 psi

209
Q

What is the IP regulated at

A

50 psi

210
Q

After an aborted start, what temp does the engine need to be before attempting another start

A

350 to start, 250 for FADEC to introduce fuel

211
Q

What is the purpose of the AUX hydraulic pump

A

Powers lower PCU in the event of right hydraulic system failure

212
Q

What cause the DC fuel pumps to come on

A

Engine switch to run
Primary ejector pump failure
APU running

213
Q

What holds the landing gear down and locked

A

The side brace actuator with an internal down locking mechanism

214
Q

When will you get a gear warning

A

Flaps 30 gear not down

CL350 (6 decks)

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