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pt care & Image production Flashcards

1
Q

When does an exam require a written consent?

A

When it becomes invasive

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2
Q

right to refuse medical treatment including radiographic procedure

A

Autonomy

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3
Q

HIPAA

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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4
Q

if two co-workers were talking about a pt in the hall who do you report it to?

A

ARRT Code of Ethics

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5
Q

perceived by the affected person only

A

subjective

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6
Q

perceptible to the senses

A

objective

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7
Q

priority scheduling

A

emergency pt, fasting pt, pediatric and geriatric patients that are NPO, Diabetics having to delay medication, Routine

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8
Q

Who is authorized to order a radiographic exam?

A

MD, PA & NP who work under a MD

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9
Q

the threat of touching in an injurious manner

A

assault

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10
Q

an unlawful touching of a person without consent

A

battery

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11
Q

a radiograph taken against a pts will or taking an Xray of the wrong patient is considered?

A

battery

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12
Q

when a pts body has been improperly touched or unnecessarily exposed is considered

A

invasion of privacy

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13
Q

the neglect or omission of reasonable care and caution

A

Negligence

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14
Q

defamation by written or printed words

A

Libel

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15
Q

inaccuracies or misstatements entered into the pts. record

A

libel

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16
Q

defamation by spoken words

A

slander

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17
Q

intentional or unintentional act resulting in injury to the pt.

A

tort

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18
Q

when a pt. is injured due to error caused by the health care provider

A

malpractice

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19
Q

the doing of goodness, kindness, charity including all actions that benefit others

A

beneficence

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20
Q

Let the master answer

A

respondeat superior

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21
Q

the thing speaks for itself

A

res ispa loquitur

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22
Q

an employer can be held liable for the actions of an employee

A

Respondeat Superior

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23
Q

Requires the defendant to prove his/her innocence

A

Res Ispa Loquitur

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24
Q

Something I failed to do

A

Negligence

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25
Q

Something I did wrong

A

malpractice

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26
Q

presentation of material, attitudes, voice tones and volume, effective listening

A

Verbal/ Written communication

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27
Q

Eye contact, touching, facial expressions, physical appearance, body language

A

Non Verbal communitcation

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28
Q

DABDA by Dr. Elisabeth Kubler- Ross

A

Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

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29
Q

2 modalities that do not use Radiation

A

MRI, Ultra sound

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30
Q

Wheelchairs should be ____ to the X-ray table

A

parallel

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31
Q

log rolling requires how many people ?

A

5 , 2 at each side of the pt and one at the head

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32
Q

used for the diagnosis of right and left ventricular failure and pulmonary disorders, and to monitor the effects of specific medications

A

Pulmonary Artery Swan-Ganz Catheter

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33
Q

Catheter that is placed into the pulmonary artery

A

Pulmonary Artery Swan-Ganz Catheter

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34
Q

Used to remove fluid or free air from the pleural cavity

A

Closed Chest Drainage

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35
Q

Maintain solution bag/bottle _____ above the level of the vein for IVS

A

18+

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36
Q

heart rate range for adults

A

60-100 beats/min

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37
Q

heart range for children

A

90-100 beats/min

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38
Q

heart range for infants

A

80-120 beats/ min

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39
Q

fast heart rate, greater than 100 beats per minute

A

tachycardia

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40
Q

slow heart rate, less that 60 beats per minute

A

bradycardia

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41
Q

the pressure created during contraction of the left ventricle

A

systolic

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42
Q

the pressure within the vascular system with the heart at rest

A

diastolic

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43
Q

how do you remove clothing from an injured patient

A

from uninjured site first

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44
Q

how do you put clothing back on an injured patient

A

injured site first

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45
Q

fx that breaks through the skin

A

compound

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46
Q

while taking blood pressure what are you cutting off?

A

brachial artery

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47
Q

CAB

A

compressions, airway, breathing

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48
Q

how many compression do you give per minute for CPR

A

100/min for all ages

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49
Q

med term for fainting

A

syncope

50
Q

how should you move a fx extremity?

A

both ends of the fx site should be supported

51
Q

high blood sugar

A

hyperglycemia

52
Q

characterized by dry skin, fruity smelling breath, excessive thirst and urination

A

hyperglycemia

53
Q

low blood sure

A

hypoglycemia

54
Q

characterized by sweating, clammy, cold skin, nervousness and blurred vision

A

hypoglycemia

55
Q

how do you stop pulsating blood from the artery

A

pressure between the site and the heart

56
Q

how do you stop pulsating blood from the vein

A

pressure away from the heart

57
Q

faint or lightheaded

A

orthostatic hypotension

58
Q

when a pt. is feeling faint and experiencing orthostatic hypotension what position should you put them in?

A

trendelenburg

59
Q

RACE

A

Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish

60
Q

PASS

A

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

61
Q

What to do incase of fire

A

Evacuate the immediate area, report the fire and location, close all doorsm shut off the main oxygen valves

62
Q

deals with reducing the probability of infections organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual

A

Medical Asepsis

63
Q

Microorganisms eliminated through the use of soap, water, friction, and various chemical disinfectants

A

Medical Asepsis

64
Q

the complete removal of all organisms and their spores from equipment used to perform patient care or procedures

A

surgical Asepsis

65
Q

any procedure that involves cauterization or the urinary bladder, tracheostomy care, dressing changes, penetration of the skin or mucosal membranes requires?

A

Sterile Technique

66
Q

an inanimate object that has made contact with an infectious organism ( food, water, gloves, equipment)

A

Fomite

67
Q

transmission of an infectious agent that is indirect by means of fomite that touches a persons body or is ingested

A

Vehicle

68
Q

typically an arthropod (mosquito, flea, tick)

A

Vector

69
Q

hospital acquired infection

A

Nosocomial Infection

70
Q

how do you pass people in a sterile room?

A

back to back

71
Q

where must gloves be kept in a sterile field?

A

above the waist

72
Q

how should a sterile package be opened?

A

away from the operator

73
Q

steam sterilization

A

autoclaving

74
Q

used on electric, plastic, and rubber items

A

gas sterilization

75
Q

what type of precautions are: gloves, gown, restricted pt. placement. Used for diseases spread by close or direct contact

A

Contact precautions

76
Q

what type of precautions are: particulate mask and restricted pt. placement

A

droplet

77
Q

what type of precaution is respiratory protection, and negative ventilation

A

airborne

78
Q

precaution used on pts who’s immune system is limited such as HIV positive pt, chemo pt, burn pt

A

Reverse Isolation

79
Q

Who manages the radiographic equipment the clean tech or dirty tech?

A

clean

80
Q

who manages the patient and the patients linens then clean tech or dirty tech?

A

dirty

81
Q

Injection method in which a large or concentrated volume is rapidly administered into an IV line

A

IV push

82
Q

contrast administered by gravity

A

IV drip

83
Q

holds a single dose

A

Ampule

84
Q

holds multiple doses

A

Vial

85
Q

at what angle do you insert a needle?

A

15

86
Q

related to the concentration of a solution

A

osmolarity

87
Q

KV used for an exam that utilizes barium in a single contrast study

A

100-125KV

88
Q

KV used for an exam that utilizes barium in a double contrast study

A

90-100KV

89
Q

3 lab results that are good indicators of possible contrast medium induced renal effects

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen, Creatinine, Glomerular Filtration Rate

90
Q

normal range of Creatinine

A

0.7-1.3 mg/dL

91
Q

normal range of blood urea nitrogen

A

8-25 mg/dL

92
Q

normal range of Glomerular Filtration Rate

A

90-120ml/min/1.73msquared

93
Q

term used to describe a failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to support oxygen perfusion of vital tissues and is unable to remove the by products of metabolism

A

shock

94
Q

results from massive infection

A

Septic

95
Q

results from external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss due to burns

A

hypovolemic

96
Q

Med given for Angina

A

nitroglycerin

97
Q

med given for blood thinner

A

heprin

98
Q

blood given for clonic spasm

A

glucagon

99
Q

med given for diabetic

A

glucaphage

100
Q

pre meds for allergic reaction

A

benadryl/decadron & a steriod

101
Q

med given for seizures

A

dilantin

102
Q

med given for edema

A

lasix

103
Q

med given for cardiac arrest/ anaphylaxis

A

epinephrine

104
Q

for a properly positioned waters view of the facial bones, where should the pertrous ridges be?

A

completely below the maxillary sinuses

105
Q

what is not part of the microscopic anatomy of the kidney? A. loop of Henle B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Efferent arterioles D. Minor Calyx

A

D

106
Q

Proper evaluation for a PA Caldwell projection of the skull?

A

petrous ridges located in the lower thirds of the orbits

107
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

A. production of bile B production of heparin C detox of blood impurities D storage of bile

A

D

108
Q

With the patin in the RAO position, air will be located in what part of the stomach

A

Fundus

109
Q

With an exposure made on deep inspiration, identify the portion of the thorax demonstrated on the resultant image with the pt placed in the LPO position

A

Left Axillary Ribs

110
Q

Identify the most superior, lateral structure recorded on an AP projection of the scapula

A

Acromion Process

111
Q

how should the tech identify an in patient prior to beginning an exam?

A

Check the pts. id bracelet

112
Q

a requisition requires you to perform a prattle upright chest on a patient in ICU. Upon arrival at the patients room the patient is under heavy med and is lying dorsal recumbent position. what should your first step be?

A

ask the pts. nurse if the patient can be placed in an upright position

113
Q

med term for hives

A

Urticaria

114
Q

Type of contrast agent that will be successful in decreasing the subject receptor exposure of the part effected by the agent

A

Carbon Dioxide

115
Q

Negative contrast agents cause subject receptor exposure to ________ and radiographic receptor exposure to _________.

A

Decrease, increase

116
Q

Which of the following is an example of a non-ionic contrast agent? A. hypaque B. Isovue C. Renographin D. Conray

A

B

117
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a moderate reaction to a contrast agent? 
A. nausea and vomiting 
B. Very low blood pressure 
C. Tachycardia 
D. Cyanosis
A

C

118
Q

A drop in red blood cell production within the hematopoetic system resulting from radiation therapy treatments delivered to the long bones of the body would be classified as what type of radiation effect?

A

General Somatic

119
Q

The unit of measurement equal to 100 ergs of energy absorbed per gram irradiated material describes the?

A

RAD

120
Q

As the distance from source of radiation to the patient is doubled, the intensity of the:

A

decrease 4X

121
Q

With the use of filtration, X-ray quality is said to ______ and X-ray quantity is said to_________

A

Increase, decrease

122
Q 
The compton effect can be found in the \_\_\_ kVp range 
A. high
B low 
C mild 
D. B and C are correct
A

C

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