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1
Q

vertebral level of thyroid cartilage

A

c4/5

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2
Q

vertebral level of vertebral prom

A

T1 on (C7)

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3
Q

vertebral level of sternal angle

A

T4/5

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4
Q

vertebral level of xiphoid process

A

T10

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5
Q

vertebral level of umbilicus

A

L3/4

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6
Q

vertebral level iliac crest

A

L4/5

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7
Q

greater trochanter is at the level of?

A

pubic symphysis

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8
Q

any restraint used against will is?

A

illegal

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9
Q

immobilization is used to?

A

decrease pt dose

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10
Q

depression along the MSP on the frontal bone

A

glabella

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11
Q

located at the medial and lateral portion of the eye

A

inner and outer canthus

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12
Q

inferior and superior bony portion of the orbit

A

infra and supra orbital margin

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13
Q

lateral bony portion of the orbit

A

mid-lateral orbital margin

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14
Q

most prominent portion of the mandible along the MSP

A

mental point

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15
Q

point along the MSP at the top of the bridge of the nose

A

Nasion

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16
Q

surface landmark located at the occipital protuberance

A

inion

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17
Q

most superior portion of the cranium

A

vertex

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18
Q

ridge of bone across the superior portion of both orbits

A

superciliary ridge

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19
Q

line connecting the pupils of the eye; also known as the inter orbital line

A

inter pupillary line

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20
Q

line connecting the mid-lateral orbital margin and the external auditory meatus

A

OML- orbitomeatal line

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21
Q

line connecting the inferior orbital margin and the EAM

A

IOML- infraorbitomeatal line

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22
Q

line connecting the superior orbital margin and the EAM

A

SOML - supraorbitomeatal line

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23
Q

line connecting the acanthi on and the EAM

A

AML- acanthiomeatal line

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24
Q

line connecting the glabella and the EAM

A

GML- glabellomeatal line

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25
Q

line connecting the mental point and the EAM

A

MML- mentomeatal line

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26
Q

petrous pyramids project anteriorly and medially at an angle of 47 degrees from the MSP

A

mesocephalic - typical

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27
Q

petrous pyramids lie at an average angle of 54 degrees

A

brachycephalic

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28
Q

petrous pyramids form a narrow angle an angle of 40 degrees

A

dolichocephalic

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29
Q

AP Axial Skull

A

also known as the town method, occipital is best demonstrated because its closest to the IR, CR is angled 30 degrees caudal through the foramen magnum to the OML, or 37 degrees to the IOML, demonstrates dorsum sellae and posterior cliniods through the foramen magnum

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30
Q

Lateral skull

A

IOML is perp. to the front edge of the IR, MSP is parallel to IR, IPL is perp to IR, CR is directed perp. to a point 2 inches superior to the EAM, sella turcica in profile

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31
Q

PA Axial skull

A

also known as the caldwell method, MSP and OML positioned perp to the IR, CR 15 degrees caudal to the MSP, Exiting the nasion, petrous ridges projected in the lower thirds of the orbits

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32
Q

PA Skull

A

demonstrates the frontal bone, petrous ridges of the temporal bone fill the orbits

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33
Q

Submentovertex

A

neck is hyperextended until the IOML is parallel to the IR

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34
Q

Facial Bones

A

facial bone views should be done upright whenever possible to demonstrate air and fluid levels

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35
Q

Facial Bones Lateral

A

MSP parallel to the IR, IOL perp to IR

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36
Q

parietocanthial projection

A

waters method, MSP and MML positioned perp to IR, OML forms a 37 degree angle with the IR, CR exits the acantion, petrous ridges projected completely inferior to the maxillary sinuses

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37
Q

What exam would you perform for a blow out fx?

A

PA modified waters

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38
Q

bones to demonstrate in a blow out fx?

A

zygomatic arch, pallatine, maxillary

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39
Q

Mandible

A

CR 25 degrees cephalic, Ramus is demonstrates in a true lateral position, body demonstrated if the pts head is rotated 30 degrees toward the table, mentum is demonstrated if the pts head is rotated 45 degrees toward the table

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40
Q

TMJ

A

Open and Closed

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41
Q

Nasal bones

A

performed table top, same technique as a finger, bilateral for comparison, and a Waters method to demonstrate nasal septum

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42
Q

Lateral Sinus

A

demonstrates all four sinus groups without superimposition

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43
Q

PA Axial Caldwell for Sinus

A

demonstrates the frontal and anterior ethmoid sinus groups

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44
Q

parietocanthial projection for sinuses

A

demonstrates maxillary sinus, may also demonstrate sphenoid sinus through an open mouth

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45
Q

AP Cervical Spine

A

40’’, CR angled 15-20 degrees cephalic to the level of C4, demonstrates intervertebral disk space, and vertebral bodies

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46
Q

AP Cervical Spine open mouth

A

demonstrates C1-C2 relationship, tip of the mastoid process and the lower margin of the upper incisors is positioned perpendicular to the IR (occlusal plane)

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47
Q

on the AP open mouth cervical spine how would you fix the base of the skull over the odontoid process?

A

flex the chin

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48
Q

on the AP open mouth cervical spine how would you fix the teeth superimposed over the odontoid process?

A

extend the chin and neck

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49
Q

Lateral C-Spine

A

demonstrates zygapophyseal joints of C2-3 to C7-T1, 72” to minimize magnification, depress shoulders to demonstrate lower cervical

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50
Q

RPO/LPO C-spine

A

demonstrates intervertebral foramina furthest from IR, pt rotates 45 degrees, 15-20 degrees cephalic

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51
Q

RAO/LAO C-spine

A

demonstrates intervertebral foramina closest to IR, 15-20 degrees caudal

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52
Q

lateral cervicalthoracic projection

A

twinning method, demonstrates a lateral projection of the lower cervical and upper thoracic vertebrae

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53
Q

displaced joint space

A

sublux

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54
Q

In AP projection FFC

A

RPO/LPO= C Furthest, T Furthest, L Closest

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55
Q

When do we perform lateral Cspine with flexion and extension?

A

Post Whiplash

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56
Q

AP Dens Cspine

A

Fuchs Method, pt in supine position, image shows AP projection of the dens lying within the foramen magnum

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57
Q

PA Dens Cspine

A

Judd Method, pt in prone position, adjust the head so that the chin and mastoid top are vertical or the OML is approximately 37 degrees to the plane of the IR, PA projection of the dens seen through the foramen magnum

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58
Q

What position would best demonstrate cervical ribs?

A

AP Tspine

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59
Q

AP Tspine

A

CR is directed perp to the level of T7, *may produce more uniform image density by increasing KVP level and utilizing the anode heel effect by placing the lower portion of the tspine toward the cathode end of the X-ray tube (FAT CAT)

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60
Q

Which exams utilize the breathing technique?

A

T-Spine lateral, AP scapula, lawrence method (transthoracic), STN, RAO sternum

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61
Q

Scoliosis Series

A

Ferguson Method, PA perferred to reduce radiation exposure of radiosensitive organs

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62
Q

forward slipping of the lumbar vertebrae usually L5-S1

A

spondylolisthesis

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63
Q

incomplete fusion of the lamina

A

spina bifida

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64
Q

L5-S1 degrees for males and females

A

3-5 caudal males, 5-8 caudal females

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65
Q

Scotty Dog ear

A

superior articular process

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66
Q

Scotty Dog body

A

lamina

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67
Q

Scotty Dog tail

A

sup articular process on other side

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68
Q

Scotty Dog back leg

A

inferior articular process of opposite side

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69
Q

Scotty Dog front leg

A

inferior articular process

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70
Q

Scotty Dog eye

A

pedicle

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71
Q

Scotty Dog nose

A

transverse process

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72
Q

Sacrum

A

15 to the nose

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73
Q

Coccyx

A

10 to the toes

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74
Q

contrast media is administered via a spinal puncture in what space for a myelogram

A

subarachnoid space- intrathecal injection

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75
Q

SI Joints AP Axial

A

CR is angled 30 cephalic for males 35 cephalic for females

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76
Q

SI joints obliques

A

on posterior obliques 25-30 degrees of rotation , the side of interest is the elevated side

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77
Q

AP Hip

A

pt. supine affected food and leg internally rotated 15 degrees, CR perp to a point 2 1/2 inches distal to the midpoint of the line drawn between the symphysis pubis and the ASIS

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78
Q

X table hip

A

danelius-miller method, IR placed parallel to the affected femoral neck

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79
Q

Unilateral frogleg lateral hip

A

pt. him and knee are flexed and abducted 40-45 degrees from vertical

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80
Q

axiolateral inferosuperior projection of hip

A

Clements-Nakayama method, performed in cases of possible bilateral hip fx

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81
Q

AP Pelvis

A

both feet and legs internally rotated 15-20 to over come ante version of the femoral necks, CR is directed perp 2’’ superior to the pubic symphysis and 2’’ inferior to ASIS

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82
Q

What makes up the acetabulum

A

Ischium, Ilium, Pubis

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83
Q

AP pelvis, axial anterior pelvic bones-Inlet

A

CR directed caudad 40 degrees, demonstrates the anterior pubic and ischial bones and the pubic symphysis

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84
Q

AP pelvis, axial anterior pelvic bones-outlet

A

Taylor Method, Males- 20-35 cephalic, females- 30-45 cephalic, demonstrates the pelvic rami without foreshortening seen

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85
Q

AP oblique projection pelvis- acetabulum

A

Judet method, pt supine, 45 degree oblique affected side up

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86
Q

hysterosalpingography

A

procedure that utilizes contrast media to outline the inner contours of the uterus and demonstrate the latency of the fallopian tubes, may be performed as a diagnostic or and interventional **therapeutic procedure, for infertility

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87
Q

Why do we use a 72” SID for PA chest?

A

reduce heart magnification

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88
Q

Why do we do Chest exams upright?

A

air and fluid levels, prevent engorgement of the pulmonary great vessels, and allow the diaphragm to drop to lowest point

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89
Q

where does the carina bifurcate?

A

T5/6

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90
Q

How many ribs should you see on a Chest?

A

10 pairs of posterior ribs within the lung field

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91
Q

Why do we perform the AP lordotic?

A

to demonstrate the apices of the lungs without superimposition of the clavicles

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92
Q

AP Lordotic hest

A

CR angled 15-20 cephalic

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93
Q

Why do we perform an AP supine chest?

A

for pts in respiratory arrest who have had an endotracheal tube inserted, tube should not go past the level of the carina

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94
Q

Which main stem bronchus is higher and more vertical?

A

Right Side

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95
Q

What do we perform lateral decubitus chest?

A

to demonstrate free air or fluid in the pleural space

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96
Q

Position and inspiration for AP or PA ribs above the diaphragm

A

upright and on inspiration

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97
Q

Position and inspiration for AP or PA ribs below the diaphragm

A

recumbent and on expiration

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98
Q

Posterior Obliques (AP) for Ribs

A

demonstrates the axillary portion of the ribs closest to the IR

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99
Q

Anterior obliques (PA) for Ribs

A

demonstrates the axillary portion of the ribs furthest from the IR

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100
Q

How is the sternum demonstrated in the RAO position?

A

over the heart shadow to the left of the vertebral column

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101
Q

What is being performed when the pt takes a deep breath and attempts to move the bowels while holding their breath

A

Valsalva maneuver

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102
Q

What is in the RUQ

A

liver, gallbladder, duodenum, head of pancreas, common bile duct, transfer colon

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103
Q

What is in the LUQ

A

Stomach, pancreatic duct, body and tail of the pancreas

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104
Q

What is in the RLQ

A

ascending colon, cecum, apendix

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105
Q

What is in the LLQ

A

Ileum, descending colon

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106
Q

AP supine KUB

A

IR at iliac crest, exposure at the end of full expiration

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107
Q

Why do we perform an AP upright abdomen?

A

air and fluid levels and or intra-peritoneal air

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108
Q

what should be visualized on an AP upright abdomen

A

entire diaphragm to visualize the possible existence of free air

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109
Q

how must the CR remain during an AP upright abdomen?

A

parallel to the floor

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110
Q

When do we perform a lateral decubitus abdomen?

A

when pt are unable to sit or stand

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111
Q

Why do we do a left lateral decubitus abdomen?

A

so any free air will rise under the right hemi-diaphragm and not be confused with air in the stomach

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112
Q

where does the CR enter for lateral decubed abdomens?

A

2-3 inches about the iliac crest

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113
Q

during an upper GI when do you take exposures?

A

While pt is swallowing

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114
Q

Why do we use barium?

A

to view the esophageal wall lining

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115
Q

in what position do we see esophageal varices?

A

trendelenburg/supine

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116
Q

What position best demonstrates the bulb and c-loop?

A

RAO

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117
Q

what position will best demonstrate hiatal hernia?

A

trendelenburg

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118
Q

Where will barium be when pt. is supine?

A

barium will be in the fundus , air will be in pylorus

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119
Q

Where will barium be when pt is prone?

A

barium will be in the body of the pylorus, air in fundus

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120
Q

When is a small bowel series complete?

A

ileocecal, terminal ileum, cecum, large intestines ( NEVER ascending colon)

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121
Q

timed sequence procedure based upon the movement of barium through the small bowel

A

small bowel series

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122
Q

using barium only for a barium enema will demonstrate?

A

the anatomy and the muscle contraction of the colon

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123
Q

using barium and air for barium enema will demonstrate?

A

any defects of the mucosal lining, polyps

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124
Q

what position do you use for insertion of the enema tip?

A

sims

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125
Q

lying on the left side with the right hip and knee flexed and drawn forward in front of the left leg is what position?

A

sims

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126
Q

how do you insert the enema tip in a sims position?

A

the tip is directed anteriorly and superiorly

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127
Q

Name the timed procedures that are timed

A

IVU, SBS, Lateral & Decubed abdomen

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128
Q

during a double contrast barium enema what is the surface of interest?

A

those outlined by the negative contrast

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129
Q

what is being demonstrated on the right lateral decub double contrast barium enema?

A

the medial side of the ascending colon and lateral side of the descending colon

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130
Q

what is being demonstrated on the left lateral decub double contrast barium enema?

A

the medial side of the descending colon and the lateral side of the ascending colon

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131
Q

which flexure is best demonstrated on the LPO?

A

hepatic flexure and ascending colon

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132
Q

which flexure is best demonstrated on the RPO?

A

splenic flexure and the descending colon

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133
Q

which flexure is best demonstrated on the RAO?

A

hepatic flexure and ascending colon

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134
Q

which flexure is best demonstrated on the LAO?

A

splenic flexure and descending colon

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135
Q

what is performed following the elimination of barium?

A

post evacuation

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136
Q

this procedure is to demonstrate the latency of the biliary and pancreatic ducts through the retrograde injection of contrast media into the hepatopancreatic ampulla

A

Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

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137
Q

what procedure utilizes fluoroscopy and the use of an endoscope for accurate catheter placement into the hepatopancreatic ampulla?

A

ERCP

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138
Q

Why do we do a cystogram?

A

to R/O reflux

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139
Q

Non-functional procedure that evaluates the contours and anatomical structure of the urinary bladder, requires 150-500 mL of contrast administered by gravity in a retrograde fashion into the bladder using a Foley catheter?

A

cystogram

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140
Q

Functional study of urethra and urinary bladder to R/O reflux

A

Voiding Cystogram

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141
Q

How would you best demonstrate the left kidney?

A

RPO

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142
Q

how would you best demonstrate the right kidney?

A

LPO

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143
Q

When in the RPO which ureter do you demonstrate?

A

Right side

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144
Q

When in the LPO which ureter do you demonstrate?

A

left side

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145
Q

angle for toes?

A

perpendicular, can use 15 degree cephalic to open joint spaces

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146
Q

AP foot angle?

A

towards the 3rd metatarsal, 10 degrees posteriorly, towards the calcareous, cephalic

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147
Q

What are you best demonstrating on the medial oblique of the foot?

A

lateral structures such as: cuboid, lateral cuneiform, talus, and navicular

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148
Q

how much do you rotate for oblique foot?

A

20-30

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149
Q

what are you best demonstrating on the lateral oblique of the foot?

A

medial structures such as: medial and intermediate cuneiform, 1st and 2nd metatarsals

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150
Q

projection for longitudinal arch of the foot?

A

lateromedial

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151
Q

Axial projection of the calcaneus

A

dorsiflexion, foot is flexed 90 degrees to the long axis of the lower leg , CR is angled 40 degrees to the long axis of the foot entering at the level of the base of the 3rd metatarsal

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152
Q

AP ankle

A

ankle is placed in a dorsiflexion position, foot is flexed 90 degrees to the long axis of the lower leg CR is directed perpendicular to the mid-malleolar region

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153
Q

what view is being done with the ankle dorsiflexed and internally rotated 15-20 degrees

A

AP Mortise

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154
Q

What view will be done if their is a suspected ligamentous tear?

A

AP projection stress method done with inversion and eversion

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155
Q

who stresses the ankle for a suspected ligamentous tear?

A

physician

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156
Q

Which bone is the WB bone of the lower leg?

A

Tibia

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157
Q

which bone is the non WB bone of the lower leg?

A

fibula

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158
Q

which bone of the lower leg is more medial and anterior?

A

Tibia

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159
Q

which bone of the lower leg is more lateral and posterior?

A

fibula

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160
Q

which two bones of the leg makes up the knee joint?

A

Femur and Tibia

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161
Q

If you over rotate for a lateral knee what will happen to the tin-fib?

A

will be separated

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162
Q

if the pelvis measures less than 19cm how do you angle for knee?

A

3-5 caudal

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163
Q

if the pelvis measures 19-24cm how to you angle for knee?

A

perp

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164
Q

if the pelvis is greater than 24cm how do you angle for knee?

A

3-5 cephalic

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165
Q

where do you center for AP knee

A

1/2’’ below the patellar apex

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166
Q

how much do you flex the knee joint for lateral knee?

A

20-30 degrees

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167
Q

how do you angle the tube for the lateral knee and why?

A

5-7 cephalic to superimpose the femoral condyles

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168
Q

why do we perform a medial oblique knee?

A

demonstrates an open proximal tibofibular joint space

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169
Q

Where do you place your film for a femur?

A

injured site on long cassette

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170
Q

what kind of fx does the sunrise/tangential projections show?

A

vertical

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171
Q

lateral projections of the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd digit?

A

mediolateral

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172
Q

lateral projection of the 3rd, 4th, 5th digit?

A

lateromedial

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173
Q

how would we demonstrate an oblique thumb?

A

PA hand

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174
Q

Where do you center for a PA hand?

A

3rd MPJ

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175
Q

how do you demonstrate the fingers with no superimposition?

A

fan lateral

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176
Q

how do you demonstrate foreign bodies in the hand?

A

lateral hand with extension

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177
Q

how do you best demonstrate the inter carpal spaces of the wrist?

A

AP

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178
Q

what is the most fx carpal bone?

A

scaphoid

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179
Q

how do you demonstrate the scaphoid?

A

PA with ulnar deviation

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180
Q

how do you perform the stecher method/ scaphoid PA axial

A

elevate the wrist 20 degrees or angle the CR 20 degrees cephalic (towards the elbow)

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181
Q

What is the name of the nerve that gets pinched in the carpal canal

A

median nerve

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182
Q

what carpal bones are you demonstrating on the gaynor heart method/ carpal tunnel

A

on the inferior aspect of the wrist

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183
Q

when the forearm is in the AP position how are the humeral epicondyles?

A

humeral epicondyles are parallel

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184
Q

why is the AP projection preferred for the forearm?

A

to prevent overlap of the proximal radius and ulna

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185
Q

how are the humeral eipcondyles when the forearm is in the lateral position

A

perpendicular

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186
Q

what will be seen in profile on the lateral elbow

A

olecranon process

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187
Q

What will be demonstrates on the external oblique of the elbow

A

the radial head with no superimposition over the ulna and the capitulum

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188
Q

what will be demonstrated on the internal oblique of the elbow

A

the olecranon and coronoid process

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189
Q

what part of the distal humerus articulates with the ulna?

A

Trochlea (UT)

190
Q

What part of the distal humerus articulates with the radius?

A

Capitulum (RC)

191
Q

position for the AP humerus

A

arm fully extended with the hand supinated

192
Q

what does the AP humerus demonstrate?

A

greater tubercle laterally (GTL)

193
Q

what does the lateral humerus demonstrate?

A

lesser tubercle medially (LTM)

194
Q

what kind of dislocation is when the head is under the corocoid?

A

anterior

195
Q

what kind of dislocation is when the head is under the acromion?

A

posterior

196
Q

Where do you center for AP shoulder?

A

1’’ inferior to the coracoid process

197
Q

what is the tubercle part of?

A

shoulder

198
Q

what is the trochanter a part of?

A

hip/femur

199
Q

angle for AP clavicle?

A

15-30 cephalic

200
Q

angle for PA clavicle

A

15-30 caudad

201
Q

how do you demonstrate AC joints?

A

bilateral, WB

202
Q

Which hand do you use for bone age?

A

non dominant

203
Q

Why do we do shoulder arthography?

A

R/O torn rotator cuff

204
Q

why do we do Knee shoulder arthography?

A

R/O torn menesci

205
Q

overall amount of X-rays that reach the IR

A

Receptor Exposure

206
Q

main controlling factor of receptor exposure?

A

mAs

207
Q

difference in adjacent areas

A

contrast

208
Q

controllers of contrast

A

kVp/LUT

209
Q

as kVp goes up contrast goes?

A

down

210
Q

as kVp goes up scatter goes?

A

up

211
Q

if more X-rays reach the IR then receptor exposure?

A

increases

212
Q

if more X-rays get absorbed in patient then contrast?

A

increases

213
Q

as SID increases- receptor exposure?

A

decreases

214
Q

as kVP increases- receptor exposure

A

increases

215
Q

the only 2 times receptor exposure and contrast change in the same way is?

A

screen speed, beam filtration

216
Q

as screen speed increases- receptor exposure

A

increases

217
Q

as grids increase- receptor exposure

A

decreases

218
Q

as beam filtration increases-receptor exposure

A

decreases

219
Q

as subject density increases-receptor exposure

A

decreases

220
Q

as beam restriction (collimation) increases- receptor exposure

A

decreases

221
Q

two types of shape distortion?

A

foreshortening and elongation

222
Q

two types of size distortion?

A

magnification and OID

223
Q

main controlling factor of spatial resolution?

A

Focal Spot Size

224
Q

as SID increases- spatial resolution

A

increases

225
Q

as OID increases- spatial resolution

A

decreases

226
Q

as focal spot size increases- spatial resolution will

A

decreases

227
Q

as screen speed increases- spatial resolution

A

decreases

228
Q

as matrix size increases- spatial resolution

A

increases

229
Q

as pixel size increases- spatial resolution

A

decreases

230
Q

as PSP plate size increases- spatial resolution

A

decreases

231
Q

as field of view increases- spatial resolution

A

decreases

232
Q

a 15% increase or decreases in KVP, keeping all other factors contestant, will result in?

A

doubling or halving of radiographic receptor exposure

233
Q

by applying the 15% rule what do you change?

A

ONLY kvp unless the say to maintain density then you change mAs as well

234
Q

by applying the 15% rule double the receptor exposure of 80kVp 20mAs

A

92 kVP 20 mAs

235
Q

A change from a 1.5 mm focal spot to a 0.5 mm focal spot will limit the maximum mA station that may be selected on the control panel. This change in focal spot size will also have what effect on image contrast?

A

image contrast will remain the same

236
Q

Which of the following does not affect recorded detail?

A. OID B. Screen Speed C. Grid Ratio D. Motion

A

C. Grid Ratio

237
Q

When comparing 100 kV and 70 kV, 70 kV will do which of the following?

1. Produce less compton scatter
2. Produce less exposure latitude
3. Produce shorter scale contrast
A

1,2,3

238
Q

When the exit radiation interacts with a photostimulable imaging plate, what of the following occurs?

A

energy absorption

239
Q

When proper patient positioning and phototimer selection is employed one would expect abdomen images produced on a variety of patients to demonstrate a consistent level of:

1. radiographic mottle
2. radiographic density
3. subject contrast
4. radiographic contrast
A

2 only

240
Q

Grid devices will have no effect on which of the following items?
A.radiographic density
B.effect of secondary and scattered radiation on the image
C.radiographic contrast
D.production of secondary and scattered radiation

A

D. Production of secondary and scattered radiation

241
Q

Select the set of exposure factors below that will yield the same density on a high speed film and screen system (200), as that produced on a par speed film and screen (100) system using 70 kVp 2.0 mm focal spot, 40” source to image receiver distance, 200 mA, 0.25 seconds

A. 70 1.5 mm 40” 300 0.20
B. 70 2.0 mm 40” 100 0.25
C. 80 1.0 mm 40” 500 0.15
D. 70 1.0 mm 40” 400 0.025

A

B

242
Q

To avoid absorption of the primary X-ray beam by lead strips present within a grid cassette, angulation of the central ray should be limited to:

A

angulation along the long axis of the grid

243
Q

Which of the following would reduce the image density by one-half if it was not possible for the technologist to adjust the mAs?

A

make a 15% decrease in kV

244
Q

In digital imaging, receptor exposure is controlled by adjusting:

A

window level

245
Q

What factor(s) determine the amount of contrast present within a radiographic image?

1. film contrast
2. developer contrast
3. illuminator contrast
4. subject contrast
A

1,2,4

246
Q

What is the primary purpose for the use of fast image receptors in radiography?

A

reduce exposure to the patient

247
Q

Administrative and computerized clinical data such as patient demographics, medical reports, insurance claims and physician orders are overseen using which of the following standards?

A

HL-7

248
Q

A decrease in beam filtration will have what effect on radiographic image contrast?

A

radiographic image contrast will increase

249
Q

With all other technical factors remaining constant, what effect(s) will increasing amounts of filtration have on the X-ray beam?

1. decrease patient skin exposure
2. decrease the measurement of the shortest wavelength present within the beam
3. harden the X-ray beam
4. increase the percentage of beam penetration through the objects of interest
A

1,3,4

250
Q

Electrons boiling off

A

Thermionic Emission

251
Q

__ setting determine the amount of current that will be sent to the filament

A

mA

252
Q

electrical potential

A

Voltage

253
Q

X-radiation is produced as a result of high speed electrons bombarding the?

A

anode/ target area

254
Q

what is the target area made of?

A

Tungsten laced w/ rhenium

255
Q

what 2 parts make up the cathode

A

filament wires, focusing cup

256
Q

what is the focusing cup made up of?

A

molybdenum or nickel

257
Q

what are the filament wires made up of?

A

tungsten

258
Q

where is the conversion site of elections to X-ray?

A

anode/ target area

259
Q

smallest subdivision of an element

A

atom

260
Q

the number of protons in the nucleus

A

Atomic Number (Z)

261
Q

the sum of the protons and neutrons in the in the nucleus

A

Atomic Mass (A)

262
Q

Atomic Number =

A

Z

263
Q

Atomic Mass =

A

A

264
Q

negative charged particles located in the orbital shell outside the nucleus and contain no mass

A

Electrons

265
Q

how are electrons held in their orbital shell?

A

electron binding energy

266
Q

Tungstens Atomic Number (z)

A

74

267
Q

Binding k shell of tungsten =

A

69.53

268
Q

Valence number can never exceed?

A

8

269
Q

removal of an electron from one of the orbital shells

A

Ionization

270
Q

during Ionization the previously uncharged atom will now have an _____ electrical charge?

A

positive

271
Q

Projectile electron interacts with the electrostatic charge of the target tungsten nucleus

A

bremsstrahlung radiation

272
Q

during bremsstrahlung radiation the electron undergoes three processes:

A

1- slows down 2- changes direction 3 loses some of its energy

273
Q

below 70 kv what is being produced?

A

100% brems

274
Q

Above 70 kv what is being produced?

A

Characteristic

275
Q

projectile electron interacts with a tungsten target atom by ejecting an inner shell electron and ionizing the atom

A

Characteristic Radiation

276
Q

When the K-shell vacancy is filled by an outer shell electron

A

Characteristic Radiation

277
Q

The process of filing the K shell vacancy results in the emission of a _____ X-ray photon

A

characteristic

278
Q

The smallest bit of electromagnetic energy is called a?

A

Photon or quantum

279
Q

Other forms of radiation, such as beta and alpha radiation, travel in particles called?

A

Particulate Radiation

280
Q

The rise and fall of the electromagnetic photon and is measured in the unit Hertz (HZ)

A

Frequency

281
Q

The distance between two successive peaks of an electromagnetic photon

A

Wavelength

282
Q

As the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation increases the wavelength will?

A

decrease

283
Q

X-rays always move at the speed of?

A

light

284
Q

Quality

A

KVP

285
Q

Quantity

A

mAs

286
Q

thickness of an absorbing material required to reduce X-Ray intensity by one half of its original value

A

Half Value Later

287
Q

The only technical factors that effect HVL are?

A

kVp and filtration

288
Q

intensity is inversly proportional to the square of the distance

A

inverse square law

289
Q

inverse square law

A

intensity 1 / intensity 2 = SID2 squared/ SID 1 squared

290
Q

Used to maintain radiographic density with changes in SID

A

Direct Square Law

291
Q

Direct Square Law

A

mas1/mas2=sid1 squared/ sid2 squared

292
Q

useful radiation consisting of the X-ray photons directed through the X-ray tubes window port in a direction toward the patient

A

Primary Radiation

293
Q

_____ radiation is the x-ray beam prior to interaction with the patient

A

Primary

294
Q

radiation that is emitted from atoms of matter after an x-ray photon from the primary beam interacts with matter

A

Secondary

295
Q

____ also known as Exit radiation is the portion of the attenuated x-ray beam that emerges from the patient and interacts with the image receptor

A

Remnant

296
Q

____ xray beam is also known as the image forming beam

A

Remnant

297
Q

___ is defined as the progressive absorption of the X-ray beam as it passes through matter

A

attenuation

298
Q

X-rays travel in _____

A

straight lines

299
Q

X-rays contain __ mass and __ electrical charge

A

no mass, no electrical charge

300
Q

X-rays have ___ frequencies and ___ wavelengths

A

high frequencies and short wavelengths

301
Q

How does a tech receive occupational exposure

A

compton effect

302
Q

every time an X-ray photon gets scattered it will leave with ____ of its original intensity

A

1/1000 (.001)

303
Q

partial absorption of the incident x-ray photon, interacts with an outer shell electron of a target atom and removes the electron

A

Compton Effect

304
Q

1 Coming , 2 Leaving, Outer most shell

A

Compton

305
Q

2 results when X-rays interact with matter

A

photoelectric (absorption) and Compton (scatter)

306
Q

Total absorption of the X-ray photon

A

Photoelectric effect

307
Q

Incident X-ray photon interacts with an inner (K) shell electron of a target atom and removes the electron

A

Photoelectric Effect

308
Q

All of the remaining energy of the incident photon is transferred to the ejected electron =

A

photoelectron

309
Q

What is the primary source of patient radiation exposure

A

Photoelectric

310
Q

1 incoming, 1 leaving, innermost shell

A

photoelectric

311
Q

no loss of energy, no ionization=

A

Unmodified (classical, Coherent)

312
Q

Quality Factor of X-rays

A

1

313
Q

Quality Factor of Gamma Rays

A

1

314
Q

Quality Factor of Beta Particles

A

1

315
Q

Quality Factor of Fast Neutrons

A

10

316
Q

Quality Factor of Protons

A

10

317
Q

Quality Factor of Alpha

A

20

318
Q

Quality Factor equation

A

Rad X QF = REMS

319
Q

Most sensitive = _________ resistant

A

Least

320
Q

least radiosensitive cell in the body to most sensitive

A

Nerve, Muscle, Stem, Lymphocyte

321
Q

Radio-sensitivity increases with _____ mitotic activity

A

increase

322
Q

the more the cell divides the more sensitive it is

A

mitotic activity

323
Q

law of bergonie and tribondeau

A

the more immature the cell the more sensitive

324
Q

Oxygen Effect

A

the ability of aerobic conditions to enhance the effectiveness of radiation

325
Q

amount of radiation that is transferred to the body as the x-ray beam travels through the body

A

Linear Energy Transfer

326
Q

the ability to produce biologic damage

A

Relative Biologic Effectiveness

327
Q

equal doses of radiation that are delivered with time interval separations

A

fractionation

328
Q

radiation dose that is delivered continuously but at a lower dose rate

A

protraction

329
Q

radiation interaction with water

A

radiolysis

330
Q

highly reactive and unstable substance

A

free radical

331
Q

cell division

A

mitosis

332
Q

germ cell division

A

miosis

333
Q

when a cell divides without attempting to divide

A

interphase death

334
Q

cell goes through one or more mitotic phases and then dies

A

mitotic (genetic) death

335
Q

can be caused by as little as 10mGy of exposure

A

mitotic delay ( threshold dose)

336
Q

can result from exposure doses ranging from 1-10Gy

A

reproductive failure

337
Q

Somatic Effects:

A

short term: epilation, nausea, vomiting, erythema, fatigue

338
Q

Long Term Effects:

A

Cancer, cataractogenesis, life span shortening

339
Q

Acute exposure

A

More harmful

340
Q

10 days of life span shortening

A

10mGy

341
Q

X-rays have __ LET and RBE

A

low

342
Q

Eyes have what radiation dose response?

A

nonlinear, threshold

343
Q

Thyroid have what radiation dose response?

A

linear, non threshold

344
Q

Breasts have what radiation dose response?

A

linear, non threshold

345
Q

sloughing off of skin cells

A

desquamation

346
Q

Skin has what radiation dose response?

A

threshold

347
Q

Dose that could cause permanent sterility

A

5-6Gy

348
Q

Dose that can cause genetic mutations

A

100mGy

349
Q

effects that are limited to the exposed individual and the specific area of exposure only

A

local somatic effects

350
Q

effects that are limited to the exposed individual but the response to the radiation effects the entire body, not just the site of exposure

A

general somatic effects

351
Q

Radiation syndrome that occurs with exposure doses ranging between 1-10Gy,

A

Hemopoietic syndrome

352
Q

Radiation Syndrome that could cause blood disorders, depressing the bodies immune system, and depressing the bodies ability to clot. Death occurs 3-6 weeks

A

Hemopoietic syndrome

353
Q

Radiation syndrome that requires a dose between 10-50Gy

A

Gastrointestinal Syndrome

354
Q

Radiation syndrome that causes nausea, vomiting, fatigue. Death occurs approximately one week following exposure

A

Gastrointestinal Syndrome

355
Q

Radiation syndrome that occurs with exposure of 50Gy +

A

Central Nervous System syndrom

356
Q

Radiation syndrome that occurs within hours or days

A

Central Nervous System Syndrom

357
Q

When is the most radiosensitive trimester

A

First, because of the large number of stem cells

358
Q

the dose, which if delivered to every member of a population, would be expected to yield the same total genetic injury as the doses received by the various individuals

A

Genetic Significant Dose

359
Q

Gonadal shields should be used anytime the gonads are within ____ of the primary field

A

5cm

360
Q

when working in a sterile field what time of shield should you use?

A

shadow

361
Q

___ removes low energy, non diagnostic X-ray photons from the X-ray beam

A

filtration

362
Q

What is the primary purpose of filtration?

A

reduce the entrance skin exposure to the patient

363
Q

____ will increase the effective energy and quality of the X-ray beam

A

filtration

364
Q

NCRP #102

A

Equipment Standards

365
Q

minimum requirement of filtration needed for below 50kvp

A

0.5 mm al

366
Q

minimum requirement of filtration needed for 50-70 KVP

A

1.5 mm al

367
Q

minimum requirement of filtration needed for 70kvp+

A

2.5 mm al

368
Q

___ speed image receptor systems reduce the required amount of radiation needed to produce a diagnostic image

A

high

369
Q

Increasing the speed of the imaging system will _____ the recorded detail

A

decrease

370
Q

grids are to be used on body parts that are more that ____ think

A

10cm

371
Q

What is an alternative to using a grid?

A

air gap tech

372
Q

what type of fluoro reduced pt. dose?

A

pulsed/intermittent

373
Q

length of exam fluoro time must be monitored by a ___ minute cumulative timer

A

5 minute

374
Q

Where is the image intensifier ?

A

over the pt table

375
Q

Cord length for Mobile unit

A

6 ft, 72’’, 2m, 18cm

376
Q

largest source of natural radiation?

A

Radon

377
Q

largest source of artificial radiation?

A

medical imaging

378
Q

minimum lead apron thickness

A

.25 of pb

379
Q

recommended leaf apron thickness

A

.5 mm pb

380
Q

gloves thickness

A

.25 mm pb

381
Q

thyroid shield thickness

A

.5mm pb

382
Q

bucky slot cover thickness

A

.25 mm pb

383
Q

primary protective barrier

A

1/16 inch of pb, 7 ft tall

384
Q

secondary protective barrier

A

1/32 inch of pb, 1/2’’ of the secondary must overlap the primary

385
Q

maximum exposure at the table top fluoro

A

10R/min

386
Q

Typical fluoro units operate within what mA range

A

5 or less

387
Q

minimum source to skin distance for flouro units

A

15’’

388
Q

minimum source to skin distance for mobile flouro units

A

12’’

389
Q

NRCP # 116

A

exposure limits

390
Q

annual whole body exposure

A

50 mSv

391
Q

Lens of the eye

A

150 mSv

392
Q

cumulative effective dose equation

A

10 mSv X age in years

393
Q

annual effective dose for public

A

5mSv

394
Q

embryo/fetus exposure for entire gestational period

A

5mSv for the entire gestational period

395
Q

embryo/fetus exposure per month during gestational period

A

0.5 mSv

396
Q

all or nothing non threshold effects?

A

Stochastic (probabilistic)

397
Q

prenatal death due to radiation exposure delivered during the first trimester of pregnancy is what effect?

A

Stochastic (probabilistic)

398
Q

Exhibits the existence of a threshold

A

Non-Stocastic (deterministic)

399
Q

Erythema site of a radiation therapy patient is cause by what type of effect?

A

Non-Stocastic (deterministic)

400
Q

The portion of the image intensifier device that is responsible for converting light photons into free electrons is

A

photocathode

401
Q

Which of the following barium/air filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LAO position?

A

spelnic

402
Q

Elongation or foreshortening of the image of an object on the radiographic image is a result of:

A

improper alignment of the tube, part or image on the exam in question

403
Q

A threshold dose-response relationship is seen in which of the following types of radiation-induced cancers?

A

skin

404
Q

Why is limiting the maximum kilovoltage of the useful X-ray beam important when performing exams employing an iodinated contrast media?

A

excessive kilovoltage reduces the ability of the iodinated contrast media to attenuate the useful X-ray beam

405
Q

Antiversion of the femoral neck is overcome by a ____ when performing an AP projection.

A

15 degree inversion

406
Q

What is the term associated with an object that once contaminated acts as the vehicle for an infection?

A

fomite

407
Q

Where in the X-ray circuit does the filament circuit draws its electrical energy?

A

from the low voltage primary circuit

408
Q

Which position listed below will demonstrate the broad aspect of the right ilium?

A

right posterior oblique position

409
Q

What is the term applied to the blood pressure value when the heart is at “rest”?

A

diastolic

410
Q

What feature below is an essential component of modern fixed radiographic equipment, designed to minimize unnecessary radiation exposure to patients?

A

PBL

411
Q

As the angle of the face of the anode increases from 14 degrees to 17 degrees the size of the actual focal spot measured for a 1.5 mm filament will:

A

increase

412
Q

What position below will be best for demonstrating a fracture with medial displacement of the right mandibular condyle?

A

AP Axial

413
Q

Which of the following are mapped by a look-up-table?

A

image gray scale values

414
Q

In order to keep the line of gravity close to the center of gravity when carrying a load of cassettes down a long hallway one should:

A

keep the load close to the body

415
Q

wheelchair should be what angle to the X-ray table

A

parallel

416
Q

What units are radiation film badge reports for diagnostic radiographers stated in?

A

millirem

417
Q

Where in the X-ray circuit is the prereading kilovolt meter connected?

A

primary low voltage circuit

418
Q

Shape distortion produced on a finished radiograph will vary directly with which of the following factors?

A

tube angulation

419
Q

When Bremsstrahlung radiation is produced the incident electron:

A

is deflected with a loss in energy

420
Q

At what period during a cell’s life cycle will the cell be at its highest point of radiosensitivity?

A

mitosis

421
Q

The violet light emitted by the PSP is transformed into the image seen on the CRT by which of the following:

A

analog to digital converter

422
Q

Which of the following signifies high principles of professional behavior and a willingness by the profession to control its own conduct?

A

code of ethics

423
Q

A comparison of photon energies would demonstrate that scattered photons resulting from a “Compton” interaction are ____ the energy of the incident X-ray photon.

A

lower than

424
Q

Which of the following occurs with interphase death?

A

the cell dies before before leaving interphase

425
Q

Which law listed below states “a direct relationship is necessary to compensate for the changes in intensity and receptor exposure (image density).”

A

direct square law

426
Q

Sterility of male patients due to excessive radiation exposure to the gonads is an example of what type of radiation effect?

A

somatic local

427
Q

The primary side of a high-voltage transformer is supplied by 240 V and has 150 turns, and the secondary side has 25,000 turns. What is the voltage that will be induced into the secondary side of the transformer?

A

40kV

428
Q

What is the term applied to radiation injuries that are limited to an exposed individual and the area of exposure only?

A

local somatic injuries

429
Q

The use of digital radiography results in _____________exposure to the patient versus conventional radiography.

A

less

430
Q

A PA skull radiograph with the structures of the petrous pyramids completely filling the boney orbits, is an indication that the image was produced with:

A

the orbitomeatal line and central ray perpendicular to the image

431
Q

What test is performed to determine if you are experiencing rectifier failure of a single phase full wave rectified X-ray unit?

A

spinning top test

432
Q

A patient is being scheduled for a series of radiographic examinations. Select the most preferred sequence of exams listed below: IVE, KUB, BE UGI

A

KUB, IVU, BE, UGI (KUB first bc it doesn’t use any contrast, IVU next bc you can excrete/ urinate it )

433
Q

A dose of radiation to a patient’s long bones results in a 70% loss of operation of the hematopoietic system making the patient susceptible to developing infections. This is an example of what type of radiation induced injury?

A

general somatic effect

434
Q

The proper technique for lifting a heavy load from the floor is to:

1. spread your feet
2. bend knees keeping your back straight
3. bend at the waist
4. keep the load close to the body
A

1,2,4

435
Q

Four essentials are necessary for the production of X-rays: sudden deceleration of high speed electrons, a source of free electrons, a sudden acceleration of electrons and:

A

focusing of electrons

436
Q

Which of the following emergency medications may be used on a patient experiencing a seizure?

A

dilantin

437
Q

Which of the following is demonstrated on the scapular Y view of the shoulder?

1. anterior or posterior dislocation
2. a lateral projection of the shoulder 
3. an oblique projection of the shoulder
A

1,3

438
Q

What will be the effect on radiographic contrast when the radiation field size is changed from 5”x7” to 8”x10”?

A

contrast will increase

439
Q

When insufficient light is produced by the imaging plate phosphor, the image will be:

A

grainy

440
Q

What is the minimum lead equivalent thickness that must be present within aprons worn during fluoroscopic procedures?

A

.5 mm

441
Q

What will be measured by a meter connected in series in a simple electric circuit?

A

amperage

442
Q

What will be measured by a meter connected in series in a simple electric circuit?

A

1050 volts

443
Q

Which of the following regions of an ionization chamber instrument would be used to accurately calibrate the output of a radiographic unit?

A

ionization chamber region

444
Q

What is the primary reason for employing ureteric compression during an excretory urogram?

1. compression retards the flow of contrast media to the bladder
2. improves the demonstration of renal calculi in the proximal ureters
3. assures an adequate filling of the renal pelves and calyces
4. aids in decreasing the flow of blood through the renal arteries
A

1 & 3

445
Q

Total brightness gain of an image intensifier is a result of which of the following:

1. Flux gain
2. Focus gain
3. Minification gain
A

1 & 3

446
Q

Frustrated by an extremely uncooperative patient, the technologist shouts out, “I’ve told you to hold still for the last time, next time you move I’m going to have to tie you to the table!” An action such as this is grounds for a legal case of _____ being brought against the technologist.

A

assualt

447
Q

For the PA axial projection (Camp Coventry method), which area of the knee should the central ray enter?

A

poplileal depression

448
Q

Which of the following emissions released during radioactive decay, produces the greatest amount of radiolysis per mm of irradiated material?

A

alpha emission

449
Q

An image produced with the central ray angled along the longitudinal or long axis of a part, is produced in a (an) ____ position.

A

axial

450
Q

How many volts will be sent to the primary side of the step up transformer when 75 tap turns have been selected on an autotransformer consisting of 140 primary turns which is connected to a 112 volt alternating current supply?

A

60 volts

451
Q

What is the effective dose equivalent limit of a student radiographer under the age of 18?

A

.1 rem

452
Q

When performing as part of an upper GI exam, the RAO position places barium in the _______ portion of the stomach.

A

pylorus

453
Q

What projection of the chest below is best for demonstrating the retrocardiac space?

A

RAO

454
Q

What is the most anterior structure of the scapula?

A

coracoid process

455
Q

What view listed below is done to demonstrate the hamular process (hook) of the hamate bone?

A

view for carpal tunnel

456
Q

Digital imaging was first used by which modality?

A

CT

457
Q 
What exam category below is the single greatest form of acute radiation exposure a patient will receive within a diagnostic radiology department?
A.		upper gastrointestinal exam
B.		lumbar spine series
C.		scoliosis series
D.		skull series
A

A. upper gastrointestinal exam

458
Q

What is the proper treatment of a patient who is experiencing a contrast media extravasation into tissues around a vein:

1. apply pressure to the site of injection
2. moist heat should be applied to the affected area
3. a cold pack should be applied to the affected area
A

1 &2

459
Q

Bilateral depressed fractures of the zygomatic arches will be demonstrated best using which of the following positions?

A

SMV

460
Q 
A post processing technique known as shuttering
A.		is added to the screen image.
B.		is placed on the patient.
C.		is placed on the cassette.
D.		Changes the amount of scatter.
A

A

461
Q

Which of the following is the legal document that names the person who is authorized to make all health care decisions when a patient is unable to do so?

1. advanced heath care directives
2. last will and testament
3. living will
A

1 & 3

462
Q

Positions requiring that the base of the cranium be placed parallel to the surface of the film will require the cranium to be adjusted to place:

A

IOML parallel to the image

463
Q

What is the term given to the area of unsharpness surrounding the image of an object on a radiographic image?

A

penumbra

464
Q

What position below is preferred for demonstrating a fracture along the axillary border of the right 7th rib?

A

right posterior oblique taken on full inspiration

465
Q

A change from a 1.5 mm focal spot to a 0.5 mm focal spot will limit the maximum mA station that may be selected on the control panel. This change in focal spot size will also have what effect on image contrast?

A

image contrast will remain the same

466
Q

How does SID relate to image density/brightness and exposure rate?

A

as SID increases, image density decreases and exposure rate decreases

467
Q

With the patient in a PA position, central ray angulation of ____ will be required to free the majority of the clavicle from superimposition of the ribs and scapula.

A

25 - 30 degrees caudad

468
Q

What does “The rate of energy deposited per unit track length through an absorber” define?

A

LET

469
Q

During normal breathing, the least amount of air volume is exchanged in what portion of the lungs?

A

apices

470
Q

What is the prescribed distance used when measuring leakage radiation for the housing of a diagnostic X-ray tube?

A

One meter from the tube housing

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