PT 1 exam - previous Flashcards
List the five objectives of ATS.
Prevent collisions between aircraft
Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights
Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.
Name 4 of the directives for approach controllers
- Providing an ATC service in accordance with the procedures and minima in MATs
- Compliance with procedures detailed in LUOs
- Rendering all possible assistance to an aircraft in emergency or distress
- Maintaining such records as may be required
- Maintaining a continuous watch on the designated approach control frequencies.
Define Air Traffic Control Clearance.
An authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit. (CAR)
Define Approach Control Service.
An air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights. (CAR)
Define Visual Departure.
A departure by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument departure procedure is not completed and the departure is executed in visual reference to terrain. (CAA)
After being informed that an aircraft is responding to an RA, what actions shall the controller take?
The controller shall pass essential traffic information or traffic information (as applicable) to the aircraft reporting the RA and to all other aircraft that may be affected by the manoeuvre.
Control instructions shall not be issued to the aircraft responding to an RA or to any other aircraft involved with the RA event as this may interfere with the resolution action planned by the ACAS.
An ATC clearance issued to an IFR or VFR flight to operate enroute shall contain the following elements in the order listed:
- Aircraft identification as shown on the flight plan, and
- If appropriate, notification and reason for unavailability of requested route and/or cruising level, and
- Authorisation to operate in controlled airspace in accordance with instructions issued, and
- Clearance limit, and
- Route instructions, and
- Level instructions, and
- Any other instructions or information as required, i.e.
- departure and diversionary climb instructions;
- oceanic transition;
- separation or reporting instructions;
- SSR code allocation;
- any special information;
- frequency change instructions;
- release instructions;
- delivery instructions.
- Note: release and delivery instructions are not passed to the aircraft.*
When may an ATC Clearance be denied?
An ATC clearance shall not be denied or withheld except:
- For traffic reasons, when ATC cannot accommodate traffic additional to that already accepted due to traffic congestion, limitations of equipment, procedures, weather or environmental conditions, emergencies and other similar factors; or
- When instructed by the General Manager Air Traffic Services
An ATC clearance shall not be denied or withheld except when instructed by the General Manager ATS provided that:
- a clearance shall not be withheld unless the aircraft is on the ground and the clearance is for entry onto the manoeuvring area.
- normal ATC service shall be provided for any aircraft entering the manoeuvring area without an ATC clearance.
Name three ways of describing an IFR route.
- By using a standard route clearance,
- … and the runway-in-use at destination,
- … and the arrival procedure at aerodrome of destination,
- By using the phrase “VIA FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE”, to describe the route (as filed by the pilot/company) which is detailed in the flight plan
The phrase “VIA FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE” shall not be used when the flight plan has been annotated with “RDR” in the RMK field.
Name three types of departure instructions.
- Published instrument departure procedure i.e. Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
- RADAR SID
- Visual departure (by day only)
TRUE/FALSE aircraft at standard flight levels should be afforded priority over aircraft using non-standard flight levels.
TRUE
True/False: Where published instrument departure procedures do not intercept the cleared route, instructions shall be issued to clearly define how the route is to be joined.
TRUE
TRUE or FALSE, Aircraft performance shall be taken into account to ensure that any intermediate level issued allows a departing aircraft to be at or above the Enroute descent (Distance) steps, VORSEC/VORTAC chart steps, Terminal Arrival Altitudes (TAA) and 25 NM Minimum Sector Altitude (25 NM MSA), or radar terrain map.
TRUE - they shall also be informed to climb above/descend via the distance steps/VORSEC steps etc.
Where it is not possible to clear a flight via the requested or flight planned route or cruising level, the pilot shall be advised using what phrase?
“(route and/or level) NOT AVAILABLE DUE (reason) [ALTERNATIVE(S) IS/ARE (route(s) and/or level(s)) ADVISE]”
What is the phraseology to request an aircraft to report 10 DME from Forest?
“REPORT 10 FROM FZ DME”
“REPORT (distance) FROM (name of DME station) DME”
What is the phraseology to request an aircraft to report their DME distance from Forest?
“REPORT DME DISTANCE FROM FZ”
“REPORT DME DISTANCE FROM (name of DME station)”
What is the time criterion for a revision message?
For a CPL or estimate message passed to:
- An Area, approach or flight information sector - 2 minutes
- A radar sector - 3 minutes
- An aerodrome control or aerodrome flight information unit - 5 minutes
Vertical Separation Table
