Pt. 1 Flashcards

(89 cards)

0
Q

_________ promotes a common perspective from which to plan, train, and conduct military operations.

A

Joint doctrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

1) Which JPUB defines doctrine?

A

JP 1-02

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

______Is the common language and method of understanding that ties services together.

A

Doctrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Objective of joint intel

A

Integrate service and national intelligence into a unified effort and provides the most accurate and timely info to commanders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Primary function of joint intel

A

Provide info and assessments to facilitate accomplishment of mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many principles of joint intel? What are they?

A
10
Perspective
Synchronization
Integrity
Unity of effort
Prioritization
Excellence
Prediction
Agility
Collaboration
Fusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the objective of joint intel?

A

Integrate device and national intel capabilities into a unified effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

principle tells you to think like the adversary

A

Perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

______all intel with plans and operations

A

Synchronize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Remain intellectually honest.

Which principle of joint intel?

A

Integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cooperate to achieve a common end state.

Which principle?

A

Unity of effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ProriE requirements based on ______

A

Commanders guidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Strive to achieve the highest standards of equality.

Which step of joint intel?

A

Excellence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Accept the risk of ______ adversary intentions.

A

Predicting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Remain flexible and adapt to changing situations

A

Agility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Leverage expertise of diverse analytic resources.

Which principle of joint intel?

A

Collaboration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Exploit all sources of info and intel.

Which principle?

A

Fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Any system of policies and procedures used for identifying, controlling, and protecting from unauthorized disclosure…

A

INFOSEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

telecommunications security

A

COMSEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

communications security includes the following:

A

cryptosecurity, emission security, traffic flow security, transmissions security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

-sec on information systems

A

COMPUSEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

-SEC defensive, protect unclass info

A

OPSEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

2 types of scifs

A

open and closed storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the objective of joint intel

A

integrate service and national intel capabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Joint forces are established at what three levels
unified commands, subordinate unified commands, and jtf
25
which directorate of a Joint Staff has the primary function to support staff and commander
intelligence directorate
26
primary intel org providing support to joint forces at operational and tactical level
JIOC
27
3 Levels of war
strategic, operational, tactical
28
address the who what where and when why, we fight
strategic
29
at operational level, why rely on isr
understanding enemy's weakness, COGs, effects of current operations
30
sabotage is a type of ____warfare
unconventional
31
what does contingency planning attempt to address?
potential scenario before it happens
32
what is an oplan
written description of combatant commanders concept of operations
33
follows decision of president, distinct possibility
ALERTORD
34
Whats an AEF
AF force generation construct used to manage battle rhythm while maintaining readiness
35
coalition operations
ad hoc arrangement of two plus nations to work together
36
2 types of intel sharing between coalition partners
full, liason
37
primary advantage of space based systems
global and wide area coverage over denied areas
38
is assets support nuclear operations by providing planners with..
data, identifying critical targets, determine appropriate weapons selection, post strike assessments
39
tenets of air space and power
centralized controlled, decentralized execution, flexibility and versatility, synergy, persistence, concentration, priority, balance
40
how many MAJCOMS? how are they organized?
10, functional in the CONUS and geographically overseas
41
key to successful employment of AF forces when conducting joint ops
providing single AF CC w/ responsibility to organize train and equip and employ AF forces
42
a/c designed to permit AF to gain and maintain air supremacy over the battlefield
f-15c eagle
43
a/c carries the largest payload of both guided and unguided weapons in the AF inventory
b-1 lancer
44
most flexible airlift a/c in AF inventory
c-17 globemaster III
45
a/c disrupts enemy c2, limits adv coordination essential for enemy force managment
ec-130h compass call
46
what satellite capability provides for survivable communication in austere operating conditions
military satcom
47
US army system, defends ground troops from enemy a/c and ballistic missiles
air defense systems
48
US army systems speed and range make it useful for reconnaissance, c2, and comm
armored cars
50
fast warships providing multi-mission offensice and defensive capability, independlty or in fleet support/
destroyers
51
Q1- Most common and expensive health problem in the work place?1=
back injuries
52
Q4- Proper lifting technique procedure
1. Assess object 2. Bend at knees 3. Tuck pelvis 4. Hug object 5. Lift w. leg muscles
53
Q2- What puts strain on the back causing injury?
poor lifting mechanics
54
Q3- When does the likelihood for injury increase
When you extend your body over the load, or perform a twisting movement carrying an item
55
Q5- What are the 4 lifting tips?
1- never twist 2- assistance 3- push 4- eyes up
56
Q6- What is the scientific study of work place design?
ergonomics
57
Q7- In a properly configured work station, how should your monitor screen be positioned?
slightly below eye level
58
Q8- In a properly configured work station, how should your body be positioned?
centered infront of the screen and keyboard, head and neck balanced in line with torso
59
Q9- In a properly configured work station, how should forearms be positioned?
level of tilted slightly
60
Q10- In a properly configured work station, how should your wrists be positioned?
not rest while typing
61
Q11- In a properly configured work station, how should your lower back be positioned?
supported by chair
62
Q12- In a properly configured work station, how should your legs be positioned?
horizontal
63
Q13- In a properly configured work station, how should your feet be positioned?
flat on ground or footrest
64
Q14- The height of the keyoboard and mouse should...
allow hands to rest lightly with forearms on chair rest
65
Q15- Where should the monitor be placed?
directly infront of chair, directly over center knee well
66
Q16- How far should your eyes be from the screen
arms length
67
Q17- Where should the edge of the screen be
slightly below eye level
68
Q18- Four main types of electrical injuries
electrocution, electric shock, burns, falls
69
Q19- Which form do you use to report hazards? Who do you report it to
AF Form 457 safety office
70
Q20- Any system of policies and procudures used for identifying, controlling, and protecting from unauthorized disclosure, info whose protection is authorized by statute
INFOSEC
71
Q21- OUtlines measure and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons access to info derived from TELECOMMUNICATIONS and to ensure the authenticity of those comms
COMSEC'
72
Q22- Safes, vaults, perimeter barriers, guard systems, and other access controls designed are examples of what?
Physical security
73
Q-23 | selective investigations, record checks, personal interviews, and supervisory control are tyes of what?
Personnel security
74
Q-24 Contains further info on host government communications?
US SIGINT Directive (USSID SP0009)
75
Q-25 Management of SCI is the responsibility of...
DNI
76
Q-26 ____ is the standard for classifying info.
EO 12958 National Security Information
77
Q27- ___ issues security classification guidesthat others use making derivative classification decisions
OCA
78
Q28- Who makes derivative classification decisions?
most govt employees and contractors
79
Q29- When performing end of day security checks, ensure:
``` 1 - class. mat. is stored 2- burn bags handles 3- no class. in trash 4- SF702 used (security containers) 5- SF 701 used (inspection results) ```
80
Q30- When dealing with foreign entities, a ___ must be consulted.
Foreign disclosure officer (FDO)
81
Q30(b) __ provides basic guidance on the type of containers used for storage.
AFI 31-401
82
Q31- ___ is consulted for the storage of SCI
AFMAN 14-304
83
Q32- Store TS in __
Safe, steel file w/ built in 3 position dial type, changeable combo lock, a class A vault, or a vault type room
84
Q33- TS in building not govt controlled must have __
alarm system, or be guarded
85
Q34- When a safe or container is taken out of service built in combos will be set to__, padlocks set to __
50-25-50, 10-20-30
86
Q35- Difference between open/closed storage
open - SCI on shelves/metal containers | closed - SCI stored away
87
Q-36 Basic requirements for SCI security
direct custody of person cleared and physically cabaple of protecting it -- otherwise, stored in scif
88
Q37- The following rules apply whn destructing classified material:
1- supervise destruction 2- safeguard until destroyed 3- destroy completely
89
Q38- Name some records of destruction
1- AF Form 310 2- Destruction Receipt/Cert 3- AF Form 145 4- AF Form 1565