Psychotic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Schizophrenia patients develop illness at what age range? (Males vs females)

A

18-25 males

21-30 females

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2
Q

Schizophrenia patients have trouble with?

A

Thinking clearly

They often don’t want to take their meds becasue they don’t have insight into their illness

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3
Q

DSM criteria for scizophrenia

A

two or more each present during a 1 month period. at least one must be the first 3
delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior, negative symptoms (diminished emotional expression)
must have deterioration in function
signs of disturbance last for 6 months
rule out schizoaffective, depressive, and bipolar or other condition/medication
If ASD, must have hallucinations or delusions for >1 month

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4
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thought, disorganized behavior (would notice if on a bus)
delusions: fixed false beliefs regardless of evidence
hallucinations- perception experience without stimulus. schizo typically auditory

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5
Q

Types of delusions

A

(beliefs by the schizophrenic patient)
grandiose, nihilistic (death), persecutory (being treated wrongfully), somatic (organs have stopped functioning), sexual (other people think they are a rapist or prostitute), religious

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6
Q

Qualities of disorganized though

A

tangentiality, circumstantiality, word salad, perseveration, loose associations, clanging (rhyming everything), neologisms (make up new words), blocking (stop talking mid sentence).
non goal directed behavior (silliness to unpredictable agitation)

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7
Q

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

diminished emotional expression, avolition (lose ability to imitate goal directed behavior)
reduced speech, poor grooming, limited eye contact, less emotional responsiveness, reduced interest, reduced social drive

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8
Q

Mental status Exam findings in schizophrenia

A

appearance/behavior- disheveled, poor hygiene
speech- increased latency, monotone
affect- constructed, blunted or flat
thought process and content- disorganized, thought blocking, poverty of though, hallucinations, thought insertion, though broadcasting
judgement- poor
insight- lack of

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9
Q

Worldwide prevalence of schizo is ____

(Strong/Weak) genetic predisposition

A

0.5-1%
strong. concordance with monozygotic, strong inheritance if both parents schizo
multiple hit hypothesis (genetic predisposition + other risk factors)
Risk factors: paternal age, season of birth (winter), birth complications, urban birth, migration, cannabis use, trauma

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10
Q

In schizophrenia patients, what comes first: negative symptoms or positive

A

negative comes first. positive symptoms tend to diminish over life course

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11
Q

Drugs that enhance _____ transmission to limbic system lead to or worsening psychotic symptoms

A

dopamine. drugs that block dopamine D2 receptors are used to treat psychotic symptoms
don’t let patients do cocaine or meth

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12
Q

What brain pathway leads to the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

mesolimbic hyperactivity pathway

ventral tegmentum->nucleus accumbens

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13
Q

What brain pathway leads to the negative and cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
mesocortical underactivity
(ventral tegmental-> DA to dorsal lateral PFC and ventral medial PFC)
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14
Q

Dopamine pathways that are involved with schizophrenia

A

mesolimbic (pos), mesocortical (neg), nigrostriatal (EPS (movement problems) when blocked by antipsychotics), tuberoinfundibulnar (hyperprolactinemia when antipsychotics)

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15
Q

Pathophysiology role of glutamate NMDA receptors in schizophrenia

A
NMDA hypofunction-> increased symptoms-> mesolimbic and mesocortical paths
NMDA antagonists (PCP and ketamine)-> schizolike symptoms in health and exacerbate preexisting symptoms in pts with schizophrenia.
These interact with dopamine pathways
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16
Q

Besides NMDA and dopamine, what are other neurotransmitters involved in schizophrenia

A

5ht: increased. some antipsychotics block 5-HT2a
GABA: decreased activity in schizo
Ach: decreased-> smaller density of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors

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17
Q

How many patients with schizophrenia attempt and die by suicide

A

⅓, 1/10

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18
Q

What is associated with better prognosis with schizophrenia

A

later onset, social support, mood symptoms, female, good premorbid functioning, no FH, no SU (many schizophrenic patients either increase or decrease psychosis with substances)

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19
Q

Medical causes of Psychosis (there are 9 here)

A

substance use, withdrawal, medication induced, infections, metabolic and endocrine disorders, tumor stroke brain trauma, temporal lobe epilepsy, autoimmune disorder, toxic illness

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20
Q

What are 4 other psychiatric disorders that schizophrenia must be distinguished from (other things that should be on the differential)

A

schizoaffective, mood disorder, delusional disorder, personality disorder
(should also look into schizophreniform disorder, brief psychotic disorder, factitious disorder with psych symptoms, malingering)

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21
Q

Treatments for schizophrenia

A

pharmacotherapy (treat aggressively), ECT, CBT, transcranial magnetic stimulation), community treatment, psychosocial and vocational rehab, family therapy, appropriate housing

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22
Q

Name the psych disorder
uninterrupted period of illness with a major mood episode, delusions or hallucinations for 2 or more weeks w/o mood episode, mood episode must be majority of active duration
not attributable to substance

A

DSM criteria for schizo affective disorder

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23
Q

Schizoaffective disorder prognosis and treatment

A

Prog: better than schizophrenia, worse than mood disorder
Treatment: target mood and psychotic symptoms (one drug: second gen antipsychotic). first gen used for psychotic symptoms. mood stabilizers/antidepressants often needed. combo drug and non drug treatments

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24
Q

Name the disorder
one or more delusions with >1month duration
does not have schizophrenia
behavior is not bizarre or odd
could have manic or depressive but must be brief
not attributable to any other medical condition

A

DSM criteria for delusions disorder

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25
Q

Name the disorder based on epidemiology, age, prevalence etc:

0.2%, persecutory type is most common, no gender differences. onset middle to late adult life. familial relationship with schizo.
generally employed and self supporting

A

Delusional Disorder

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26
Q

Delusional disorder medications

A

antipsychotics but response poor (lower anxiety but still delusions)
SSRIs
Relationship building-> then gently challenge delusional beliefs

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27
Q
Name the psychotic disorder
psychotic symptoms last >1 day, <1 month
others ruled out
2x as common in women, hospitalization may be helpful
antipsychotics helpful if agitated
A

Brief psychotic disorder

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28
Q

Typical schizophrenia but >1month and <6 months, ruled out other med conditions.
if symptoms last more than 6 months, changed diagnosis

A

Schizophreniform disorder

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29
Q

Thought process that wanders from the point but does eventually get to the point

A

circumstantial thought process

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30
Q

Blocking/partial agonist the D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway relieves the ________ symptoms of schizophrenia, but may _______ the negative symptoms from mesocortical

A

positive
worsen
-this may lead to aboral movements from nigrostriatal (extrapyramidal side effects)

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31
Q

D2 receptor activity is how you treat schizophrenia but there might be effects at _______ and ______ that might cause what?

A

nigrostriatal- EPS. treat with anticholinergic medications (d2 block->up Act release)
tuberinfundibular- block d2->up prolactin release->sexual dysfunction, gynecomastia, dysmenorrhea, amenorrhea

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32
Q

What effect do the 5HT2A receptors have in schizophrenia? 5HT2A antagonism has decreased risk of ______ and _____

A

downstream effect on glutamate-> reduce DA in mesolimbic.

EPS and prolactinemia

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33
Q

What is the difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics?

A

typical has little to no 5HT2A receptor antagonism. atypical has potent 5HT2A receptor antagonism

34
Q

Response to antipsychotics should happen within ____ hours. However, __________ are associated with negative attitude and poor responses

A

48 hours

dysphoria, anxiety, akathisia-> pts do not like this and this will make them upset and not take their meds

35
Q

What are some goals for 7 days out from starting antipsychotics for schizophrenia?

A

decrease agitation, hostility, combativeness, anxiety
normalize sleep and eating
-> titrate to good dose

36
Q

What are some goals for 2-3 weeks out from starting antipsychotics for schizophrenia?

A

improve symptoms, increase socialization, self care and mood.
If no response then week 2 then change meds

37
Q

Following remission of 1st episode of schizophrenia, treatment should be continued for ______

A

18 months.

antipsychotics are largely palliative and not curative (not all symptoms resolve)

38
Q

What are the most commonly used typical antipsychotics (there are 3 here)

A

haloperidol (haldol)
fluphenazine (prolix)
chlorpromazine (thorazine)

39
Q

What are the most commonly used atypical antipsychotics? (I used 7 ._.)

A
clozapine (clozaril)
olanzapine (zyprexa)
risperidone (risperdal)
paliperidone (Invega)
quetiapine (Seroquel)
ziprasidone (geodon)
aripiprazole (Abilify)
40
Q

Treatment of naive individuals with first break schizophrenia, what am I prescribing?

A

Aripiprizole, risperidone, Ziprasidone

These three have the lowest risk of causing adverse effects

41
Q

Clozapine should be considered for individuals with schizophrenia ONLY if

A

The patient is have suicidal symptoms or there have been two antipsychotics that have already been tried
this is the BEST antipsychotic we have, reserved for treatment resistant schizophrenia

42
Q

Poor patient adherence for antipsychotics for schizophrenia should suggest usage of ____

A

long acting injectable! (2 weeks-6 months)

This can actually be offered at any time

43
Q

Typical antipsychotics MOA is _______. ___% blockade is what produces the antipsychotic effect.

A

non-selective D2 receptor antagonist (basically no 5HT2)

65%

44
Q

Typical antipsychotics treat ______ symptoms of schizophrenia, but there is a high risk of _____ and ______

A

positive

extrapyramidal side effects, hyperprolactinemia (these cause typical be chosen less)

45
Q

Atypical antipsychotics MOA is ____.

A

High 5HT2 receptor antagonism + D2 receptor antagonist.

modulation or partial agonist at D2 receptors

46
Q

% of D2 antagonism for atypical-> rank how much antagonism

A

risperidone > olanzapine > quetiapine > clozapine

Aripiprazole = D2 partial agonist

47
Q

Atypical antipsychotics treat the positive symptoms of schizophrenia with a lower risk of EPS and hyperprolactinemia but there might be __________

A

metanbolic adverse effects (weight gain, diabetes, dyslipidemia)
ESPECIALLY for clozapine (AEs improve over months)

48
Q

Antipsychotics are ______ (cross BBB) and are metabolized by ______

A

highly lipophilic

CYP450. 2D6 and 3A4-> drug drug I’s

49
Q

What are two antipsychotics that could be taken with food to increase absorption?
Which one is given sublingually?

A

lurasidone, ziprasidone

asenapine

50
Q

What 3 antipsychotics that are available as a short acting injectable?

A

haloperidol, olanzapine, ziprasidone

51
Q

What are 6 antipsychotics that are available as a long acting injectable?

A

haloperidol, fluphenazine, risperidone, aripiprazole, paliperidone, olanzapine
(every 2 weeks)

52
Q

Which antipsychotic has a black box warning for post injection delirium/sedation syndrome?

A

olazapine

must monitor for 3 hrs

53
Q

Which DA tracts do the typical antipsychotics hit?

A

ALL-> mesolimbic, msocortical, nigrostriatal, tuberoinfundibular
best benefit is 65% block

54
Q

For typical antipsychotics, what is the difference between haloperidol + fluphenazine and chlorpromazine? (think MOA)

A

Haloperidol and fluphenazine-> block D2 receptors only

Chlorpromazine block D2 + hist-1 + α-1 + muscarinic (more AEs= sedation, hypotension, anticholinergic)

55
Q

Do atypical antipsychotics treat negative cognitive symptoms?

A

not enough evidence to say these are effective for negative symptoms

56
Q

Most atypical bind to D2, transiently block, then _______ from D2 R’s

A

rapidly disassociate. blockage caries by the atypical + dose
risperidone > olanzapine > quetiapine > clozapine
The rapid dissociation causes fewer AEs

57
Q

Which atypical is a D2 partial agonist? (blocking excess DA)

A

aripiprazole
(also caripraszine and brexpiprazole)
does not block or bind + disassociate like other atypical-> less EPS and hyperprolactinemia

58
Q

At high doses (>6mg), ______ can act like a typical antipsychotic (good D2 block) and cause _____ and _____

A

Risperidone
EPS and hyperprolactinemia

clinical dose <6mg

59
Q

Clozapine and quetiapine MOA have _____ and ______ and there is a low risk of EPS and hyperprolactinemia

A

low D2 antagonist (40% block)

5HT2a receptor antagonism (low doses)

60
Q

If an atypical antipsychotic hits 5HT2C receptors what happens? Histamine 1? α1? muscarinic?

A

5HT2C: weight gain
histamine- weight gain + sedation (quetiapine, clozapine, olanzapine)
α1- hypotension (quetiapine, clozapine)
muscarinic- anticholinergic (olanzapine, clozapine->bowel regime)

61
Q

A risk factor for typical antipsychotics is _______, seen within 24-96 hours post antipsychotic initiation. What does this look like?

A

Dystonia
onset of muscle spams (tonic contractions)
Most commonly in head, neck, jaw, mouth, and eyes (back arching, upward deviation of eyes, tongue protruding, lock jaw)

62
Q

How to treat dystonia that you might get from typical antipsychotics?

A

IV/IM anticholinergives (benztropine =cogentin) +/- benzodiazepine (lorazepam

63
Q

What does akathisia mean? If untreated, what are the risks?

A

Katherine is cancelled party
(inner restlessness, compulsion to move-> cannot be still-> pacing, shifting, shuffling, tapping feet, march in place)
Violence + suicide

64
Q

What to do if patient has akathisia when they start an antipsychotic?

A
switch to different antipsychotic (typical>atypical)
decrease dose
give benzodiazepine (rapid relief)
propranolol (sustained relief)
NO anticholinergics
65
Q

Can you see pseudoparkinsonism in antipsychotics?

A

Uhm, yes duh
bradykinesia, pill rolling tremor, cogwheel rigidity, postural abnormalities.
To treat, switch, add oral anticholinergic

66
Q

What can be seen months after antipsychotic treatments? why?

A

Tardive dyskinesias
chronic block D2->up regulation + hypersensitive D2 receptors->can’t reset when discontinued med. imbalance indirect and direct. damage to striata cholinergic interneurons
longer on antipsychotic -> increased risk
baseline AIMS assessment

67
Q

What does tardive dyskinesia look like?

A

orofacial movements (lipsmacking, chewing, eye linking, jaw movement, tongue movement grimacing)->limb and truncal (twisting, toe tap, pelvic thrusting, rocking, swaying)
irreversible, hyperkinetic, involuntary
worsen with dress

68
Q

How to treat tardive dyskinesia caused by antipsychotics?

A
VMAT inhibitors (decrease presynaptic DA-> block repacking)
valbenazine + deutrabenazine
switching to another antipsychotics or anticholinergics will not help
69
Q

_____ is disruption of central thermoregulatory process in hypothalamus and/or muscle contraction, which is an AE of antipsychotics. Low incidence, high morbidity/mortality. typical are higher risk

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

presents: altered mental status, autonomic instability, lead pipe righty, fever

70
Q

Treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

stop antipsychotic, start again after symptoms resolve/choose another
meds: bromocriptine (D2 agonist), dantrolene (skeletal muscle relaxant)
given em blankets

71
Q

What happens with chronic hyperprolactinemia? How to treat?

A

decreased bone mineral density ->fractures -> osteoporosis

switch to atypical, lower dose, add on partial d2 agonist (aripiprazole)

72
Q

Antipsychotics are a risk factor for developing ________ (other health conditions)

A

T2DM, dyslipidemia, CV disease

many develop DM w/in 6mo treat

73
Q

Antipsychotics with the highest risk for metabolic adverse effects

A

clozapine, olanzapine

74
Q

Antipsychotics with the lowest risk for metabolic adverse effects

A

aripiprazole, ziprasidone, lurasidone

75
Q

How to treat the metabolic adverse effects from antipsychotics?

A

switch to low risk atypical or a typical, diet + exercise, metformin for clozapine or olanzapine

76
Q

Αlpha-1 antagonism from antipsychotics cause ______ and there is an increased risk with ___ and ___

A

orthostatic hypotension

clozapine and quetiapine (tolerance overtime)

77
Q

Antipsychotics can block delayed K-+ rectifier channel during repolarization which might cause _______. Also, all can prolong QTc, highest risk from____

A
ventricular arrhtymias (torsades de pointes)
IV haloperidol
Other risk factors: hypoK, hypoMg, QTc prolong meds
78
Q

Anticholinergic adverse effect from antipsychotics are from antagonism at ______, cause _____, and there is an increased risk with _______

A

muscarinic
dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision, constipation, tachycardia, cog slowing
clozapine, olanzapine, chorpromazine

79
Q

Sedation is an adverse effect from antipsychotics that antagonizes ____. 4 medications that have biggest risk?

A

histamine-1

clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine. Tolerance overtime

80
Q

All antipsychotics lower _______, with ______ with increased risk

A

seizure threshold
chlorpromazine + clozapine
Treat with decrease dose or change. don’t need anticonvulsant

81
Q

Neutropenia is a risk from ____. Should be stopped when absolute neutrophil count <500

A

clozapine. (might be from BM effect or antibodies to WBC)

MUST have baseline ANC and check throughout treatment